NSG 3280 EXAM 4 WITH 50 QUESTIONS AND & CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES| 2026 UPDATE – GALEN.
This is a comprehensive 50-question practice exam designed for NSG 3280
Pathophysiology for Nurses I, tailored to the specific units, chapters, and page ranges from
Banasik, J. L. (2022), Pathophysiology (7th ed.).
The questions are categorized by Unit to help you structure your study sessions.
Exam Instructions
● Total Questions: 50
● Focus: Pathophysiological mechanisms, disease progression, and clinical inferences.
● Format: Multiple Choice with Rationales.
Unit 8: Male Genital/Reproductive Function & STIs
(Chapters 31 & 34)
1. A 20-year-old male presents with a painless, ulcerated lesion on the glans penis. He reports
having unprotected sex 3 weeks ago. Based on the pathophysiology of Syphilis, which stage
of the disease is this patient likely experiencing?
A. Secondary Syphilis
B. Latent Syphilis
C. Primary Syphilis
D. Tertiary Syphilis
Answer: C
Rationale: Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a chancre—a
painless, ulcerated lesion—at the site of inoculation (usually 10-90 days
post-infection). Secondary syphilis involves a systemic rash; Tertiary involves
gummas and neurosyphilis. (Ch. 34, p. 702)
2. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the primary cause of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
(BPH)?
A. Neoplastic transformation of prostate epithelial cells
B. Hypertrophy of the prostate due to infection
C. Hyperplasia of periurethral glands due to changes in aging hormones (decreased
testosterone, increased estrogen/DHT)
D. Atrophy of the glandular tissue leading to inflammation
Answer: C
Rationale: BPH is not cancer (neoplasia). It is the hyperplasia (increase in cell
number) of the glands surrounding the urethra, driven by hormonal changes in
aging, specifically the ratio of estrogen to testosterone and the accumulation of
Dihydrotestosterone (DHT). (Ch. 31, p. 661)
https://www.stuvia.com/user/mboffin
,3. A patient is diagnosed with Testicular Torsion. Why is this condition considered a urologic
emergency?
A. It causes immediate sterility due to autoimmune reaction.
B. The twisting of the spermatic cord compresses blood vessels, leading to ischemia and
potential testicular infarction.
C. It indicates the presence of aggressive testicular cancer.
D. It causes a systemic infection that leads to sepsis within hours.
Answer: B
Rationale: Torsion twists the spermatic cord, cufling off arterial blood supply and
venous drainage. If not resolved quickly (usually < 6 hours), ischemia leads to
necrosis (infarction) and permanent loss of the testicle. (Ch. 31, p. 660)
4. Which viral pathogen is most strongly associated with the development of cervical, anal,
and penile cancers due to its ability to integrate into host DNA and inhibit tumor suppressor
genes?
A. Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2 (HSV-2)
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Answer: C
Rationale: High-risk strains of HPV (specifically 16 and 18) produce proteins (E6 and
E7) that inhibit host tumor suppressor genes (p53 and Rb), leading to dysplasia
and cancer. (Ch. 34, p. 705)
5. A male patient complains of a "bag of worms" sensation in his scrotum. A diagnosis of
Varicocele is made. What is the primary pathophysiological concern with this condition
regarding reproductive function?
A. Obstruction of the urethra
B. Increased scrotal temperature causing impaired spermatogenesis
C. High risk of transformation into squamous cell carcinoma
D. Decreased testosterone production due to adrenal suppression
Answer: B
Rationale:
https://www.stuvia.com/user/mboffin
, Shuflerstock
A varicocele is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus of veins. This pooling of blood raises the
temperature of the testes, which can damage sperm production and lead to infertility. (Ch. 31,
p. 657)
6. In the progression of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) Type 2, what explains the recurrence of
lesions after the initial outbreak resolves?
A. Reinfection from a partner
B. The virus remains latent in the sacral nerve root ganglia and reactivates during stress or
immunosuppression
C. The virus mutates into a bacterial form
D. Incomplete antibiotic treatment of the initial infection
Answer: B
Rationale: HSV is a lifelong infection. After the initial outbreak, the virus travels up
the nerve to the dorsal root ganglia where it lies dormant (latent). It reactivates and
travels back down the nerve to the skin during periods of stress or compromised
immunity. (Ch. 34, p. 703)
https://www.stuvia.com/user/mboffin
RATIONALES| 2026 UPDATE – GALEN.
This is a comprehensive 50-question practice exam designed for NSG 3280
Pathophysiology for Nurses I, tailored to the specific units, chapters, and page ranges from
Banasik, J. L. (2022), Pathophysiology (7th ed.).
The questions are categorized by Unit to help you structure your study sessions.
Exam Instructions
● Total Questions: 50
● Focus: Pathophysiological mechanisms, disease progression, and clinical inferences.
● Format: Multiple Choice with Rationales.
Unit 8: Male Genital/Reproductive Function & STIs
(Chapters 31 & 34)
1. A 20-year-old male presents with a painless, ulcerated lesion on the glans penis. He reports
having unprotected sex 3 weeks ago. Based on the pathophysiology of Syphilis, which stage
of the disease is this patient likely experiencing?
A. Secondary Syphilis
B. Latent Syphilis
C. Primary Syphilis
D. Tertiary Syphilis
Answer: C
Rationale: Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a chancre—a
painless, ulcerated lesion—at the site of inoculation (usually 10-90 days
post-infection). Secondary syphilis involves a systemic rash; Tertiary involves
gummas and neurosyphilis. (Ch. 34, p. 702)
2. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the primary cause of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
(BPH)?
A. Neoplastic transformation of prostate epithelial cells
B. Hypertrophy of the prostate due to infection
C. Hyperplasia of periurethral glands due to changes in aging hormones (decreased
testosterone, increased estrogen/DHT)
D. Atrophy of the glandular tissue leading to inflammation
Answer: C
Rationale: BPH is not cancer (neoplasia). It is the hyperplasia (increase in cell
number) of the glands surrounding the urethra, driven by hormonal changes in
aging, specifically the ratio of estrogen to testosterone and the accumulation of
Dihydrotestosterone (DHT). (Ch. 31, p. 661)
https://www.stuvia.com/user/mboffin
,3. A patient is diagnosed with Testicular Torsion. Why is this condition considered a urologic
emergency?
A. It causes immediate sterility due to autoimmune reaction.
B. The twisting of the spermatic cord compresses blood vessels, leading to ischemia and
potential testicular infarction.
C. It indicates the presence of aggressive testicular cancer.
D. It causes a systemic infection that leads to sepsis within hours.
Answer: B
Rationale: Torsion twists the spermatic cord, cufling off arterial blood supply and
venous drainage. If not resolved quickly (usually < 6 hours), ischemia leads to
necrosis (infarction) and permanent loss of the testicle. (Ch. 31, p. 660)
4. Which viral pathogen is most strongly associated with the development of cervical, anal,
and penile cancers due to its ability to integrate into host DNA and inhibit tumor suppressor
genes?
A. Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2 (HSV-2)
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Answer: C
Rationale: High-risk strains of HPV (specifically 16 and 18) produce proteins (E6 and
E7) that inhibit host tumor suppressor genes (p53 and Rb), leading to dysplasia
and cancer. (Ch. 34, p. 705)
5. A male patient complains of a "bag of worms" sensation in his scrotum. A diagnosis of
Varicocele is made. What is the primary pathophysiological concern with this condition
regarding reproductive function?
A. Obstruction of the urethra
B. Increased scrotal temperature causing impaired spermatogenesis
C. High risk of transformation into squamous cell carcinoma
D. Decreased testosterone production due to adrenal suppression
Answer: B
Rationale:
https://www.stuvia.com/user/mboffin
, Shuflerstock
A varicocele is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus of veins. This pooling of blood raises the
temperature of the testes, which can damage sperm production and lead to infertility. (Ch. 31,
p. 657)
6. In the progression of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) Type 2, what explains the recurrence of
lesions after the initial outbreak resolves?
A. Reinfection from a partner
B. The virus remains latent in the sacral nerve root ganglia and reactivates during stress or
immunosuppression
C. The virus mutates into a bacterial form
D. Incomplete antibiotic treatment of the initial infection
Answer: B
Rationale: HSV is a lifelong infection. After the initial outbreak, the virus travels up
the nerve to the dorsal root ganglia where it lies dormant (latent). It reactivates and
travels back down the nerve to the skin during periods of stress or compromised
immunity. (Ch. 34, p. 703)
https://www.stuvia.com/user/mboffin
