APEA Readiness Exam – Part 1 200
Questions With Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026
Q&A | Instant Download Pdf A+ Grade
Guarantee Verified By Professionals
1.
A 58-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes reports blurred vision and increased
urination over 3 weeks. Fasting glucose is 240 mg/dL. What is the most
appropriate next step in management?
Answer: Initiate dual therapy with metformin and a second antihyperglycemic
agent ✔
Rationale: Persistent hyperglycemia with symptoms indicates need for
combination therapy, not monotherapy escalation alone.
2.
A patient presents with chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and
nausea. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Answer: Inferior wall ST-elevation myocardial infarction ✔
Rationale: ST elevation in II, III, aVF = inferior MI, typically RCA involvement.
3.
,A 32-year-old female reports fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. TSH is
elevated and free T4 is low. What condition is most likely?
Answer: Primary hypothyroidism ✔
Rationale: High TSH + low T4 indicates thyroid gland failure.
4.
A patient is started on lisinopril. What laboratory abnormality should be
monitored?
Answer: Elevated potassium levels ✔
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia due to aldosterone suppression.
5.
A child presents with barking cough and inspiratory stridor. Symptoms worsen at
night. Diagnosis?
Answer: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) ✔
Rationale: Classic “seal-like bark” cough + stridor indicates viral croup.
6.
A 45-year-old has sudden unilateral facial drooping, inability to close eye, and loss
of forehead wrinkles. Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Bell’s palsy ✔
Rationale: Upper and lower facial paralysis indicates peripheral CN VII lesion.
7.
A patient with asthma uses albuterol inhaler daily. What does this indicate?
Answer: Poor asthma control requiring step-up therapy ✔
Rationale: Daily SABA use signals uncontrolled asthma.
,8.
A woman presents with thick white vaginal discharge and itching. KOH prep shows
pseudohyphae. Diagnosis?
Answer: Candida vaginitis ✔
Rationale: Yeast infection with pseudohyphae confirms Candida.
9.
A patient has BP 168/104 mmHg with no symptoms or organ damage.
Classification?
Answer: Stage 2 hypertension ✔
Rationale: ≥140/90 defines Stage 2 HTN.
10.
A newborn has cyanosis that improves with crying and a harsh systolic murmur.
Likely condition?
Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot ✔
Rationale: “Tet spells” improve with crying due to increased SVR.
11.
A patient has fever, right lower quadrant pain, and rebound tenderness.
Diagnosis?
Answer: Acute appendicitis ✔
Rationale: Classic McBurney point tenderness + rebound.
12.
, A patient on warfarin has INR of 6.0 without bleeding. Next step?
Answer: Hold warfarin and administer vitamin K ✔
Rationale: High INR increases bleeding risk; reversal indicated.
13.
A 70-year-old has resting tremor, rigidity, and shuffling gait. Diagnosis?
Answer: Parkinson’s disease ✔
Rationale: Dopamine deficiency causes tremor + rigidity + bradykinesia.
14.
A patient presents with sudden severe “worst headache of life.” Next diagnostic
test?
Answer: Non-contrast CT scan of the head ✔
Rationale: Rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage first.
15.
A child presents with honey-colored crusted lesions around the mouth. Diagnosis?
Answer: Impetigo ✔
Rationale: Caused by Staph aureus or Strep pyogenes.
16.
A patient has polyuria, polydipsia, glucose 900 mg/dL, no ketones. Diagnosis?
Answer: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state ✔
Rationale: Severe hyperglycemia without ketosis.
17.
Questions With Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026
Q&A | Instant Download Pdf A+ Grade
Guarantee Verified By Professionals
1.
A 58-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes reports blurred vision and increased
urination over 3 weeks. Fasting glucose is 240 mg/dL. What is the most
appropriate next step in management?
Answer: Initiate dual therapy with metformin and a second antihyperglycemic
agent ✔
Rationale: Persistent hyperglycemia with symptoms indicates need for
combination therapy, not monotherapy escalation alone.
2.
A patient presents with chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and
nausea. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Answer: Inferior wall ST-elevation myocardial infarction ✔
Rationale: ST elevation in II, III, aVF = inferior MI, typically RCA involvement.
3.
,A 32-year-old female reports fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. TSH is
elevated and free T4 is low. What condition is most likely?
Answer: Primary hypothyroidism ✔
Rationale: High TSH + low T4 indicates thyroid gland failure.
4.
A patient is started on lisinopril. What laboratory abnormality should be
monitored?
Answer: Elevated potassium levels ✔
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia due to aldosterone suppression.
5.
A child presents with barking cough and inspiratory stridor. Symptoms worsen at
night. Diagnosis?
Answer: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) ✔
Rationale: Classic “seal-like bark” cough + stridor indicates viral croup.
6.
A 45-year-old has sudden unilateral facial drooping, inability to close eye, and loss
of forehead wrinkles. Most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Bell’s palsy ✔
Rationale: Upper and lower facial paralysis indicates peripheral CN VII lesion.
7.
A patient with asthma uses albuterol inhaler daily. What does this indicate?
Answer: Poor asthma control requiring step-up therapy ✔
Rationale: Daily SABA use signals uncontrolled asthma.
,8.
A woman presents with thick white vaginal discharge and itching. KOH prep shows
pseudohyphae. Diagnosis?
Answer: Candida vaginitis ✔
Rationale: Yeast infection with pseudohyphae confirms Candida.
9.
A patient has BP 168/104 mmHg with no symptoms or organ damage.
Classification?
Answer: Stage 2 hypertension ✔
Rationale: ≥140/90 defines Stage 2 HTN.
10.
A newborn has cyanosis that improves with crying and a harsh systolic murmur.
Likely condition?
Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot ✔
Rationale: “Tet spells” improve with crying due to increased SVR.
11.
A patient has fever, right lower quadrant pain, and rebound tenderness.
Diagnosis?
Answer: Acute appendicitis ✔
Rationale: Classic McBurney point tenderness + rebound.
12.
, A patient on warfarin has INR of 6.0 without bleeding. Next step?
Answer: Hold warfarin and administer vitamin K ✔
Rationale: High INR increases bleeding risk; reversal indicated.
13.
A 70-year-old has resting tremor, rigidity, and shuffling gait. Diagnosis?
Answer: Parkinson’s disease ✔
Rationale: Dopamine deficiency causes tremor + rigidity + bradykinesia.
14.
A patient presents with sudden severe “worst headache of life.” Next diagnostic
test?
Answer: Non-contrast CT scan of the head ✔
Rationale: Rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage first.
15.
A child presents with honey-colored crusted lesions around the mouth. Diagnosis?
Answer: Impetigo ✔
Rationale: Caused by Staph aureus or Strep pyogenes.
16.
A patient has polyuria, polydipsia, glucose 900 mg/dL, no ketones. Diagnosis?
Answer: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state ✔
Rationale: Severe hyperglycemia without ketosis.
17.
