NSG 123 Final Exam Review: (Latest 2026/2027 Update) Comprehensive
Maternity, Pediatrics, Med-Surg & Mental Health | Q&A | Grade A | 100%
Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing Program
Subject: NSG 123 – Medical-Surgical Nursing / Maternity & Mental Health
Source: NSG 123 Final Exam Review Blueprint 2026/2027
Format: Q&A Guide with Rationale | Verified Grade A
1. A laboring client receiving oxytocin for induction has contractions every 90 seconds lasting 100
seconds. The fetal heart rate (FHR) shows late decelerations. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Increase IV fluids
B. Stop the oxytocin infusion
C. Administer oxygen via face mask
D. Reposition the client laterally
Correct Answer: B. Stop the oxytocin infusion
1. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency.
2. Oxytocin can worsen hyperstimulation → fetal compromise.
3. Stop oxytocin first, then reposition, give O₂, and increase IVF.
2. A client at 30 weeks gestation presents with complaints of increased thirst, frequent urination,
and fatigue. Which complication does the nurse suspect?
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
B. Gestational diabetes mellitus
C. Preeclampsia
D. Placental abruption
Correct Answer: B. Gestational diabetes mellitus
1. Polyuria, polydipsia, fatigue are classic signs of GDM (insulin resistance).
2. Screen 24-28 weeks with glucose challenge test (GCT).
3. Treatment: diet, exercise, insulin if needed; monitor for macrosomia, shoulder dystocia.
3. Which vaccine is most important for pregnant women to receive to protect their newborn?
A. MMR
B. Tdap
C. Varicella
D. HPV
Correct Answer: B. Tdap
1. Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis) recommended 27-36 weeks each pregnancy.
2. Maternal antibodies cross placenta → protect newborn from pertussis (whooping cough).
3. Infants <6 months at highest risk for severe pertussis.
, 4. Which action by the client indicates proper safe sleep practices for a newborn?
A. Placing the baby on their stomach to sleep
B. Using a firm mattress with no extra blankets
C. Co-sleeping to promote bonding
D. Elevating the baby's head with a pillow
Correct Answer: B. Using a firm mattress with no extra blankets
1. Back to sleep, firm mattress, no soft objects/blankets (Reduce SIDS risk).
2. Room sharing (not bed sharing) recommended.
3. Avoid overheating, bumper pads, loose bedding.
5. A client with chlamydia asks why their partner must also be treated. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. "Your partner does not need treatment unless they have symptoms."
B. "Treating both partners prevents reinfection."
C. "Chlamydia resolves on its own, so treatment isn't necessary."
D. "Use condoms until your symptoms disappear."
Correct Answer: B. "Treating both partners prevents reinfection."
1. Chlamydia often asymptomatic (50% men, 75% women).
2. Untreated partners cause reinfection (pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility).
3. Treat with azithromycin (1g) or doxycycline 100mg BID ×7d; retest 3 months post-treatment.
6. Which instruction should the nurse include when teaching about UTI prevention?
A. "Wipe from back to front after using the restroom."
B. "Limit fluid intake to decrease urination frequency."
C. "Urinate before and after sexual activity."
D. "Take antibiotics only when symptoms appear."
Correct Answer: C. "Urinate before and after sexual activity."
1. Voiding flushes bacteria from urethra, reducing UTI risk.
2. Front-to-back wiping prevents fecal contamination.
3. Hydration, avoid bladder irritants (caffeine, alcohol).
7. A client with acute cholecystitis should avoid which type of food?
A. Low-fat yogurt
B. Baked chicken
C. Fried foods
D. Steamed vegetables
Correct Answer: C. Fried foods
1. Fatty foods stimulate gallbladder contraction → triggers pain (biliary colic).
2. Cholecystitis often caused by gallstones obstructing cystic duct.
3. NPO, IV fluids, analgesics, antibiotics, possible cholecystectomy.
Maternity, Pediatrics, Med-Surg & Mental Health | Q&A | Grade A | 100%
Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing Program
Subject: NSG 123 – Medical-Surgical Nursing / Maternity & Mental Health
Source: NSG 123 Final Exam Review Blueprint 2026/2027
Format: Q&A Guide with Rationale | Verified Grade A
1. A laboring client receiving oxytocin for induction has contractions every 90 seconds lasting 100
seconds. The fetal heart rate (FHR) shows late decelerations. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Increase IV fluids
B. Stop the oxytocin infusion
C. Administer oxygen via face mask
D. Reposition the client laterally
Correct Answer: B. Stop the oxytocin infusion
1. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency.
2. Oxytocin can worsen hyperstimulation → fetal compromise.
3. Stop oxytocin first, then reposition, give O₂, and increase IVF.
2. A client at 30 weeks gestation presents with complaints of increased thirst, frequent urination,
and fatigue. Which complication does the nurse suspect?
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
B. Gestational diabetes mellitus
C. Preeclampsia
D. Placental abruption
Correct Answer: B. Gestational diabetes mellitus
1. Polyuria, polydipsia, fatigue are classic signs of GDM (insulin resistance).
2. Screen 24-28 weeks with glucose challenge test (GCT).
3. Treatment: diet, exercise, insulin if needed; monitor for macrosomia, shoulder dystocia.
3. Which vaccine is most important for pregnant women to receive to protect their newborn?
A. MMR
B. Tdap
C. Varicella
D. HPV
Correct Answer: B. Tdap
1. Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis) recommended 27-36 weeks each pregnancy.
2. Maternal antibodies cross placenta → protect newborn from pertussis (whooping cough).
3. Infants <6 months at highest risk for severe pertussis.
, 4. Which action by the client indicates proper safe sleep practices for a newborn?
A. Placing the baby on their stomach to sleep
B. Using a firm mattress with no extra blankets
C. Co-sleeping to promote bonding
D. Elevating the baby's head with a pillow
Correct Answer: B. Using a firm mattress with no extra blankets
1. Back to sleep, firm mattress, no soft objects/blankets (Reduce SIDS risk).
2. Room sharing (not bed sharing) recommended.
3. Avoid overheating, bumper pads, loose bedding.
5. A client with chlamydia asks why their partner must also be treated. What is the nurse's best
response?
A. "Your partner does not need treatment unless they have symptoms."
B. "Treating both partners prevents reinfection."
C. "Chlamydia resolves on its own, so treatment isn't necessary."
D. "Use condoms until your symptoms disappear."
Correct Answer: B. "Treating both partners prevents reinfection."
1. Chlamydia often asymptomatic (50% men, 75% women).
2. Untreated partners cause reinfection (pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility).
3. Treat with azithromycin (1g) or doxycycline 100mg BID ×7d; retest 3 months post-treatment.
6. Which instruction should the nurse include when teaching about UTI prevention?
A. "Wipe from back to front after using the restroom."
B. "Limit fluid intake to decrease urination frequency."
C. "Urinate before and after sexual activity."
D. "Take antibiotics only when symptoms appear."
Correct Answer: C. "Urinate before and after sexual activity."
1. Voiding flushes bacteria from urethra, reducing UTI risk.
2. Front-to-back wiping prevents fecal contamination.
3. Hydration, avoid bladder irritants (caffeine, alcohol).
7. A client with acute cholecystitis should avoid which type of food?
A. Low-fat yogurt
B. Baked chicken
C. Fried foods
D. Steamed vegetables
Correct Answer: C. Fried foods
1. Fatty foods stimulate gallbladder contraction → triggers pain (biliary colic).
2. Cholecystitis often caused by gallstones obstructing cystic duct.
3. NPO, IV fluids, analgesics, antibiotics, possible cholecystectomy.
