Page 1 of 40
EVOLVE COMPREHENSIVE EXAM (HESI) 1
COMPREHENSIVE 2026 QUESTIONS EXAM LATEST
VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED
100 %
A 6 year old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with
periobital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects
potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional
manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be
consistent with the basilar skull fracture?
Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with halo sign
Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear
over the mastoid process) are both signs of a basilar skull fracture, so the nurse
should assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a Halo sign with CSF
leakage from the ears or nose (D). (A) is consistent with orbital fractures. (B) occurs
with wrenching traumas of the shoulder or arm fractures. (C) occurs with blunt
abdominal injuries.
The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate
and difficulty sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with
fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retrace, and a staring expression. These findings
are consistent with which disorder?
Graves disease
This client is exhibiting symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism or Grave's
disease (A), which is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. (B, C, and D)
are not associated with these symptoms.
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The nurse is assessing an older adult client and determines that the client's
left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which
description should the nurse use to document this finding?
Ptosis on the left eyelid
Ptosis is the term to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris
(A), which may result from oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscle disorder. (B) is
characterized by rapid, rhythmic movement of both eyes. (C) is a distortion of the
lens of the eye, causing decreased visual acuity. (D) is a term used to describe a
protrusion of the eyeballs that occurs with hyperthyroidism.
The nurse obtains the pluse rate of 89 beats/min for an infant before
administering digoxin (Lanoxin) which action should the nurse take?
Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider
Bradycardia is an early sign of digoxin toxicity, so if the infant's pulse rate is less than
100 beats/minute, digoxin should be withheld and the healthcare provider should be
notified (D). Assessing the respiratory rate (A) is not indicated before administering
Lanoxin. (B and C) place the infant at further risk for digoxin toxicity.
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a milwaukee
brace. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Wear the brace over a T-shirt 23 hours a day.
Idiopathic scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine in adolescent
females. Early treatment uses a Milwaukee brace that places pressure against the
lateral spinal curvature, under the neck, and against the iliac crest, so it should be
worn for 23 hours per day over a T-shirt (D) which reduces friction and chafing of the
skin. (A, B, and C) reduce the effectiveness of the brace.
A 9 year old is hospitalized for the neutropenia and is placed in reverse
isolation. The child asks the nurse " why do you have to wear a gown and
mask when you are in my room?" How should the nurse respond?
" To protect you because you can get an infection very easily
Reverse isolation precaution implement measures to protect the client from exposure
to microorganisms from others (B). Although microbes are prevalent in all
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environments, (A) does not adequately answer the child's question. Reverse
isolation should be implemented until the client's white blood cell increases (C).
Neutropenia in this child does not place others (D) at risk for infection.
A male client who had abdominal surgery has a nasogastric tube to suction,
oxygen per nasal cannula, and complains of dry mouth. Which action should
the nurse implement?
Apply a water soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa and nares.
To ease the client's discomfort, a water soluble lubricant to the lips and nares assists
to keep the mucous membranes moist (D). (A) is a petroleum-based product and
should not be used because it is flammable. (B and C) should not be given to the
client with a nasogastric tube to suction because it can cause further distension and
interfere with fluid and electrolyte balance.
The nurse is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with
renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this
client's clincail picture ?
Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq and total calcium of 6 mg/dl.
In renal failure, normal serum electrolyte balance is altered because the kidneys fail
to activate vitamin D, calcium absorption is impaired, and serum calcium decreases,
which stimulates the release of PTH causing resorption of calcium and phosphate
from the bone. A decreased tubular excretion and a decreased glomerular filtration
rate results in hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalemia (C). (A) is
reflective of a non-renal cause, such as dehydration or liver pathology. (B) is more
indicative of infection. Renal failure causes anemia and hyperphosphatemia, not (D).
A 56 year old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium
implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client?
A nurse with marfran's syndrome who is postmenopausal.
A client receiving intracavity radiation poses a radiation hazard as long as the
intracavity radiation source is in place. A nurse's ability to care of this client is not
affected by Marfan's syndrome (B), which is a hereditary disorder of connective
tissues, bones, muscles, ligaments and skeletal structures. The goal is to limit any
one staff member's exposure to the calculated time span based on the half-life of
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radium, such as the number of minutes at the bedside per day, so (A) should not be
assigned. (C) should not be exposed to the radiation due to the possible effect on
the fetus. A radiation exposure decreases the immune response in the client who
should not be exposed to the potential inadvertent transmission of an infectious
organism (D).
Which info should the nurse provide a client who has undergone cryrosyrgery
for stage 1A cerviacl cancer?
Use a sanitary napkin instead of a tampon.
Clients should avoid the use of tampons for 3 to 6 weeks (D) after the procedure to
reduce the risk of infection. A heavy, watery vaginal discharge is expected during
this time, so (A) is unnecessary. Sexual intercourse should be avoided for up to 6
weeks, so (B) is inaccurate. (C) is not a side effect of the procedure but may indicate
human papillomavirus or a cancerous lesion and should be reported.
the nurse is preparing a client for schedules surgical procedure. What client
statement should the nurse report to the healthcare provider.?
Recalls drinking a glass of juice after midnight. Because there is a risk of aspiration
while under general anesthesia
The risk of aspiration while under general anesthesia is increased when the stomach
is not empty prior to a surgical procedure, so the client's intake of juice (B) after
midnight should be reported the healthcare provider. Preoperative fear and anxiety
(A) are common and should be further explored by the nurse. (C) should be
communicated using allergy identification tags on the client's records and bracelets
on the client's wrist. (D) is a common and expected side effect of perioperative
medications.
The nurse determines that a clients body weight is 105A% above the
standardized height-weight scale. Which related factor should the nurse
include in the nursing problem, " Imbalanced nutrition: More than body
requirements ? "
Inadequate lifesyle changes in diet and exercise
Obesity is a body weight that is 20% above desirable weight for a person's age, sex,
height, body build, and calculated body mass index (BMI). (C) best identifies factors
EVOLVE COMPREHENSIVE EXAM (HESI) 1
COMPREHENSIVE 2026 QUESTIONS EXAM LATEST
VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED
100 %
A 6 year old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with
periobital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects
potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional
manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be
consistent with the basilar skull fracture?
Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with halo sign
Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear
over the mastoid process) are both signs of a basilar skull fracture, so the nurse
should assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a Halo sign with CSF
leakage from the ears or nose (D). (A) is consistent with orbital fractures. (B) occurs
with wrenching traumas of the shoulder or arm fractures. (C) occurs with blunt
abdominal injuries.
The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate
and difficulty sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with
fine hair, prominent eyes, lid retrace, and a staring expression. These findings
are consistent with which disorder?
Graves disease
This client is exhibiting symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism or Grave's
disease (A), which is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. (B, C, and D)
are not associated with these symptoms.
, Page 2 of 40
The nurse is assessing an older adult client and determines that the client's
left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which
description should the nurse use to document this finding?
Ptosis on the left eyelid
Ptosis is the term to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris
(A), which may result from oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscle disorder. (B) is
characterized by rapid, rhythmic movement of both eyes. (C) is a distortion of the
lens of the eye, causing decreased visual acuity. (D) is a term used to describe a
protrusion of the eyeballs that occurs with hyperthyroidism.
The nurse obtains the pluse rate of 89 beats/min for an infant before
administering digoxin (Lanoxin) which action should the nurse take?
Withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider
Bradycardia is an early sign of digoxin toxicity, so if the infant's pulse rate is less than
100 beats/minute, digoxin should be withheld and the healthcare provider should be
notified (D). Assessing the respiratory rate (A) is not indicated before administering
Lanoxin. (B and C) place the infant at further risk for digoxin toxicity.
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a milwaukee
brace. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Wear the brace over a T-shirt 23 hours a day.
Idiopathic scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine in adolescent
females. Early treatment uses a Milwaukee brace that places pressure against the
lateral spinal curvature, under the neck, and against the iliac crest, so it should be
worn for 23 hours per day over a T-shirt (D) which reduces friction and chafing of the
skin. (A, B, and C) reduce the effectiveness of the brace.
A 9 year old is hospitalized for the neutropenia and is placed in reverse
isolation. The child asks the nurse " why do you have to wear a gown and
mask when you are in my room?" How should the nurse respond?
" To protect you because you can get an infection very easily
Reverse isolation precaution implement measures to protect the client from exposure
to microorganisms from others (B). Although microbes are prevalent in all
, Page 3 of 40
environments, (A) does not adequately answer the child's question. Reverse
isolation should be implemented until the client's white blood cell increases (C).
Neutropenia in this child does not place others (D) at risk for infection.
A male client who had abdominal surgery has a nasogastric tube to suction,
oxygen per nasal cannula, and complains of dry mouth. Which action should
the nurse implement?
Apply a water soluble lubricant to the lips, oral mucosa and nares.
To ease the client's discomfort, a water soluble lubricant to the lips and nares assists
to keep the mucous membranes moist (D). (A) is a petroleum-based product and
should not be used because it is flammable. (B and C) should not be given to the
client with a nasogastric tube to suction because it can cause further distension and
interfere with fluid and electrolyte balance.
The nurse is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with
renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this
client's clincail picture ?
Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq and total calcium of 6 mg/dl.
In renal failure, normal serum electrolyte balance is altered because the kidneys fail
to activate vitamin D, calcium absorption is impaired, and serum calcium decreases,
which stimulates the release of PTH causing resorption of calcium and phosphate
from the bone. A decreased tubular excretion and a decreased glomerular filtration
rate results in hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalemia (C). (A) is
reflective of a non-renal cause, such as dehydration or liver pathology. (B) is more
indicative of infection. Renal failure causes anemia and hyperphosphatemia, not (D).
A 56 year old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium
implant. Which nurse should be assigned to care for this client?
A nurse with marfran's syndrome who is postmenopausal.
A client receiving intracavity radiation poses a radiation hazard as long as the
intracavity radiation source is in place. A nurse's ability to care of this client is not
affected by Marfan's syndrome (B), which is a hereditary disorder of connective
tissues, bones, muscles, ligaments and skeletal structures. The goal is to limit any
one staff member's exposure to the calculated time span based on the half-life of
, Page 4 of 40
radium, such as the number of minutes at the bedside per day, so (A) should not be
assigned. (C) should not be exposed to the radiation due to the possible effect on
the fetus. A radiation exposure decreases the immune response in the client who
should not be exposed to the potential inadvertent transmission of an infectious
organism (D).
Which info should the nurse provide a client who has undergone cryrosyrgery
for stage 1A cerviacl cancer?
Use a sanitary napkin instead of a tampon.
Clients should avoid the use of tampons for 3 to 6 weeks (D) after the procedure to
reduce the risk of infection. A heavy, watery vaginal discharge is expected during
this time, so (A) is unnecessary. Sexual intercourse should be avoided for up to 6
weeks, so (B) is inaccurate. (C) is not a side effect of the procedure but may indicate
human papillomavirus or a cancerous lesion and should be reported.
the nurse is preparing a client for schedules surgical procedure. What client
statement should the nurse report to the healthcare provider.?
Recalls drinking a glass of juice after midnight. Because there is a risk of aspiration
while under general anesthesia
The risk of aspiration while under general anesthesia is increased when the stomach
is not empty prior to a surgical procedure, so the client's intake of juice (B) after
midnight should be reported the healthcare provider. Preoperative fear and anxiety
(A) are common and should be further explored by the nurse. (C) should be
communicated using allergy identification tags on the client's records and bracelets
on the client's wrist. (D) is a common and expected side effect of perioperative
medications.
The nurse determines that a clients body weight is 105A% above the
standardized height-weight scale. Which related factor should the nurse
include in the nursing problem, " Imbalanced nutrition: More than body
requirements ? "
Inadequate lifesyle changes in diet and exercise
Obesity is a body weight that is 20% above desirable weight for a person's age, sex,
height, body build, and calculated body mass index (BMI). (C) best identifies factors
