2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit
Assessment ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor
form A, B and C Exit Exam with NGN 100%
Correct Answers and 180 Questions Each Version
to Score 97% and Above
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam with NGN -
Form A
Part 1: Management of Care / Priority Setting (Q1-20)
1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
• A) A client with pneumonia who has a fever of 38.3°C (101°F)
• B) A client with a new tracheostomy who has thick, yellow secretions
• C) A client who is 1-day post-operative and reports pain of 6 on a 0-10 scale
• D) A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Airway is always the priority. Thick secretions can obstruct
a new tracheostomy, leading to respiratory arrest. Fever (A) is expected. Pain (C) is
moderate but not life-threatening. A glucose of 180 (D) is hyperglycemic but not critical.
2. A nurse receives a telephone prescription from a provider for a client. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take first?
• A) Ask the provider to spell the medication name
• B) Read back the prescription to the provider
• C) Inform another nurse of the prescription
• D) Obtain a copy of the facility's do-not-use abbreviation list
,Rationale: Correct Answer: B. The "read back" is a critical safety step to prevent errors.
The nurse must verify the prescription by reading it back verbatim before documenting.
3. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for new admissions. Which client should be
assigned to a private room?
• A) A client with Clostridioides difficile infection
• B) A client with diabetic ketoacidosis
• C) A client with a fractured femur
• D) A client with angina pectoris
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. C. diff requires contact precautions and a private room to
prevent transmission. The other conditions do not require isolation.
4. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who requires a wound vacuum-
assisted closure (VAC) device. Which of the following actions is the nurse's
priority?
• A) Demonstrate how to change the dressing
• B) Provide a list of home health agencies
• C) Ensure the client can state signs of infection
• D) Schedule a follow-up appointment
Rationale: Correct Answer: C. According to Maslow’s hierarchy, safety is the priority.
Recognizing infection prevents sepsis. Education (A) is important but secondary to
safety.
5. A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the
following tasks should the nurse delegate?
• A) Suctioning a tracheostomy
• B) Administering a tube feeding
• C) Measuring intake and output
• D) Assessing a post-operative incision
,Rationale: Correct Answer: C. I&O is a routine task within AP scope. Suctioning (A) and
tube feedings (B) require licensed nursing judgment. Assessment (D) cannot be
delegated.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day 1 following a hip arthroplasty.
The client refuses to use the incentive spirometer. Which of the following
responses is most therapeutic?
• A) "You must use it or you will get pneumonia."
• B) "I will come back later when you are ready."
• C) "Tell me more about your concerns regarding the spirometer."
• D) "Your doctor ordered it; you don't have a choice."
Rationale: Correct Answer: C. This response uses therapeutic communication (open-
ended questions) to explore barriers. Threats (A/D) and avoidance (B) are not
therapeutic.
7. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of terminal cancer.
Which of the following advance directives should the nurse recommend to allow
the client to designate a healthcare decision-maker?
• A) Living will
• B) Durable power of attorney for health care
• C) Do not resuscitate (DNR) order
• D) Organ donation card
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Durable power of attorney appoints someone to make
decisions. A living will (A) specifies treatments, not a person. DNR (C) is specific to
resuscitation.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who is agitated and attempting to remove their IV
line. The provider prescribes restraints. Which action should the nurse take?
• A) Apply restraints for 4 hours before reassessing
, • B) Document the client's behavior leading to restraint use
• C) Obtain verbal consent from the client's family
• D) Tie restraints to the side rail for quick release
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Documentation of behavior is required to justify restraints.
Restraints require a new prescription every 2-4 hours (A) depending on age. Never
restrain to side rail (D) - tie to bed frame.
9. A nurse in an emergency department is triaging clients after a mass casualty
event. Which client should the nurse tag as "expectant" (black tag)?
• A) Client with a partial-thickness burn to 20% of body surface area
• B) Client with a penetrating head injury and no respirations
• C) Client with an open femur fracture and weak pulses
• D) Client with a sucking chest wound and tachycardia
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Expectant (black) indicates unlikely survival. No
respirations with catastrophic head injury is non-survivable. The others are urgent (red)
or delayed (yellow).
10. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who speaks a different
language. An interpreter is present. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
• A) Speak directly to the client, not the interpreter
• B) Use family members to interpret for medical terms
• C) Speak loudly and slowly while facing the interpreter
• D) Add medical jargon to ensure accuracy
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Speaking directly to the client maintains respect and
allows observation of nonverbal cues. Family members (B) should not interpret due to
potential bias.
11. A nurse manager is reviewing informed consent with a new graduate. Which
statement by the graduate indicates understanding?
Assessment ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor
form A, B and C Exit Exam with NGN 100%
Correct Answers and 180 Questions Each Version
to Score 97% and Above
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam with NGN -
Form A
Part 1: Management of Care / Priority Setting (Q1-20)
1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
• A) A client with pneumonia who has a fever of 38.3°C (101°F)
• B) A client with a new tracheostomy who has thick, yellow secretions
• C) A client who is 1-day post-operative and reports pain of 6 on a 0-10 scale
• D) A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Airway is always the priority. Thick secretions can obstruct
a new tracheostomy, leading to respiratory arrest. Fever (A) is expected. Pain (C) is
moderate but not life-threatening. A glucose of 180 (D) is hyperglycemic but not critical.
2. A nurse receives a telephone prescription from a provider for a client. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take first?
• A) Ask the provider to spell the medication name
• B) Read back the prescription to the provider
• C) Inform another nurse of the prescription
• D) Obtain a copy of the facility's do-not-use abbreviation list
,Rationale: Correct Answer: B. The "read back" is a critical safety step to prevent errors.
The nurse must verify the prescription by reading it back verbatim before documenting.
3. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for new admissions. Which client should be
assigned to a private room?
• A) A client with Clostridioides difficile infection
• B) A client with diabetic ketoacidosis
• C) A client with a fractured femur
• D) A client with angina pectoris
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. C. diff requires contact precautions and a private room to
prevent transmission. The other conditions do not require isolation.
4. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who requires a wound vacuum-
assisted closure (VAC) device. Which of the following actions is the nurse's
priority?
• A) Demonstrate how to change the dressing
• B) Provide a list of home health agencies
• C) Ensure the client can state signs of infection
• D) Schedule a follow-up appointment
Rationale: Correct Answer: C. According to Maslow’s hierarchy, safety is the priority.
Recognizing infection prevents sepsis. Education (A) is important but secondary to
safety.
5. A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the
following tasks should the nurse delegate?
• A) Suctioning a tracheostomy
• B) Administering a tube feeding
• C) Measuring intake and output
• D) Assessing a post-operative incision
,Rationale: Correct Answer: C. I&O is a routine task within AP scope. Suctioning (A) and
tube feedings (B) require licensed nursing judgment. Assessment (D) cannot be
delegated.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day 1 following a hip arthroplasty.
The client refuses to use the incentive spirometer. Which of the following
responses is most therapeutic?
• A) "You must use it or you will get pneumonia."
• B) "I will come back later when you are ready."
• C) "Tell me more about your concerns regarding the spirometer."
• D) "Your doctor ordered it; you don't have a choice."
Rationale: Correct Answer: C. This response uses therapeutic communication (open-
ended questions) to explore barriers. Threats (A/D) and avoidance (B) are not
therapeutic.
7. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of terminal cancer.
Which of the following advance directives should the nurse recommend to allow
the client to designate a healthcare decision-maker?
• A) Living will
• B) Durable power of attorney for health care
• C) Do not resuscitate (DNR) order
• D) Organ donation card
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Durable power of attorney appoints someone to make
decisions. A living will (A) specifies treatments, not a person. DNR (C) is specific to
resuscitation.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who is agitated and attempting to remove their IV
line. The provider prescribes restraints. Which action should the nurse take?
• A) Apply restraints for 4 hours before reassessing
, • B) Document the client's behavior leading to restraint use
• C) Obtain verbal consent from the client's family
• D) Tie restraints to the side rail for quick release
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Documentation of behavior is required to justify restraints.
Restraints require a new prescription every 2-4 hours (A) depending on age. Never
restrain to side rail (D) - tie to bed frame.
9. A nurse in an emergency department is triaging clients after a mass casualty
event. Which client should the nurse tag as "expectant" (black tag)?
• A) Client with a partial-thickness burn to 20% of body surface area
• B) Client with a penetrating head injury and no respirations
• C) Client with an open femur fracture and weak pulses
• D) Client with a sucking chest wound and tachycardia
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Expectant (black) indicates unlikely survival. No
respirations with catastrophic head injury is non-survivable. The others are urgent (red)
or delayed (yellow).
10. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who speaks a different
language. An interpreter is present. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
• A) Speak directly to the client, not the interpreter
• B) Use family members to interpret for medical terms
• C) Speak loudly and slowly while facing the interpreter
• D) Add medical jargon to ensure accuracy
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Speaking directly to the client maintains respect and
allows observation of nonverbal cues. Family members (B) should not interpret due to
potential bias.
11. A nurse manager is reviewing informed consent with a new graduate. Which
statement by the graduate indicates understanding?