NCLEX RN Test 1 for 2026 Questions with 100% Correct Answers
For each finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of
hemothorax or tension pneumothorax. Each finding may support more than one disease process. -
(ANSWER)Hemothorax: results from the accumulation of blood loss in the pleural cavity --> loss of
intravascular blood vlolume: tachycardia, hypotension, unilateral diminished breath sounds
Pneumothorax is characterized by air inside the pleural space, which disrupts the negative pressure that
maintains lung expansion, causing the lung to collapse either partially or completely. Tension
pneumothorax develops if air enters but cannot escape the pleural space --> this trapping compresses
the heart and great vessels and displaces the midline structures (trachea) to the opposite side. Tension
pneumothorax: tachycardia, hypotension, subcutaneous emphysema/crepitus on palpitation (air gets
into the tissue under the skin), unilateral diminished breath sounds (also tracheal deviation,
hyperresonance to percussion)
Endoctracheal intubation would worsen the existing pneumothorax by delivering positive pressure
ventilation, which would increase intrathoracic pressure ==> compress the heart and great vessels and
lead to cardiac arrest.
The charger nurse is responsible for making room assignments multiple clients. Which pari of client
assignments to a shared room is appropriate? - (ANSWER)3. Client who had a bowel resection 1 day ago
and client with asthma exacerbation.
When making room assignments, it is important to remember that a client with an active or suspected
infection should not be paired with a client who has a fresh surgical wound or is immunocompromised.
A client having an asthma exacerbation does not have an infection and is not at risk for spreading
infection to a client who had a recent bowel resection surgery.
The clinic nurse is assessing a client who is being treated for depression and suicidal ideation. Which
client statement best indicates that the client is not currently at risk for suicide? - (ANSWER)2. "I plan to
attend my grandchild's graduation next month"
Clients receiving treatment for depression and suicidal ideation must be carefully monitored for
indications of increasing suicidal intent. During a client interview, the nurse should assess:
- Access to psychiatric medications
,NCLEX RN Test 1 for 2026 Questions with 100% Correct Answers
- Availability of help during a crisis (counselor, family)
- Future goals and plans
- Home and environment risks
- Overall affect and level of energy
- Possible access to weapons
Clients who articulate long-term personal goals and family milestones are less likely to attempt death by
suicide
The nurse is caring for a client who had an anterior wall myocardial infarction 2 days ago. The telemetry
technician notifies the nurse at 8:30 AM that the client is in ventricular trigeminy. What is the nurse's
priority intervention? - (ANSWER)1. Administer potassium supplement
In ventricular trigeminy, premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) occur every third heartbeat.
Myocardial injury (eg, myocardial infarction) predisposes the client to ectopy (eg, PVCs), which increases
the client's risk for lethal dysrhythmias (eg, ventricular tachycardia). PVCs are caused and/or
exacerbated by hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, emotional stress, stimulants, fever, and exercise.
This client's morning laboratory results show hypokalemia (potassium <3.5 mEq/L [3.5 mmol/L]);
therefore, the priority is treatment of the underlying cause of the ectopy by administering the
prescribed potassium replacement (Option 1). Health care providers (HCPs) often prescribe electrolyte
replacement algorithms to clients at risk for electrolyte imbalances (eg, myocardial injury, receiving
diuretics) unless a contraindication exists (eg, serum creatinine >1.5 mg/dL [133 µmol/L], anuric, weight
<99.2 lb [45 kg]).
The nurse cares for a client with a terminal disease who created a do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR)
directive. The client stops breathing and loses their pulse. The client's adult child states, "Please, do
whatever you can to save them!" Which intervention is appropriate? - (ANSWER)3. Explain the client's
resuscitation directive to the client's child
,NCLEX RN Test 1 for 2026 Questions with 100% Correct Answers
Clients can create a do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR) directive instructing that CPR and other life-
saving measures be withheld. With an advance directive in place, the client's wishes should be followed,
even if they conflict with the wishes of loved ones
The nurse in the cardiac intensive care unit receives report on 4 clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first? - (ANSWER)2. Client who underwent coronary artery stent placement via femoral approach
3 hours ago and is reporting severe back pain
A client who undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and intracoronary stent placement
using the femoral approach is at increased risk for retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Administration of
antithrombotic drugs before, during, and after PCI can exacerbate potentially life-threatening bleeding
from the femoral artery.
Hypotension, back pain, flank ecchymosis (eg, Grey Turner sign), hematoma formation, and diminished
distal pulses can be early signs of bleeding into the retroperitoneal space and require immediate
intervention (eg, notify health care provider, serial complete blood count, CT scan of the abdomen)
The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has sustained a right tibia/fibula fracture from
a fall. The nurse identifies which finding as most likely to hinder healing? - (ANSWER)4. Peripheral
arterial disease
Bone healing depends on multiple factors, including nutrition, adequate circulation, and age. A client
with peripheral arterial disease has decreased perfusion to the extremities due to atherosclerotic
changes in the arteries. Without adequate perfusion, the bone is not supplied with the oxygen and
nutrients required for healing
Based on the nursing assessment progress notes, what is the correct staging of the client's pressure
injury? Click on the exhibit button for additional information. - (ANSWER)WRONG
2. Stage 2: Stage 2 pressure injuries have partial-thickness skin loss (abrasion, blister, or shallow crater).
The skin blisters or forms an open sore, and the area around the sore may be red and irritated. (shallow,
open ulcer, red-pink wound with no sloughing and possible intact or ruptured blister)
, NCLEX RN Test 1 for 2026 Questions with 100% Correct Answers
Stage 1: Intact skin with nonblanchable redness
Stage 2: Partial-thickness skin loss (abrasion, blister, or shallow crater) involving the dermis or
epidermis; the wound bed is red or pink and may be shiny or dry
Stage 3: Full-thickness skin loss; subcutaneous fat is visible but not tendon, muscle, or bone; tunneling
may be present
Stage 4: Full-thickness skin loss with visible tendon, muscle, or bone; slough or eschar (scabbing, dead
tissue) may be present; undermining and tunneling may be present
Pressure injuries are described as "unstageable" if the base is covered by necrotic tissue or eschar
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has prescriptions for NPH insulin and regular insulin. At 0730, the
client's blood glucose level is 322 mg/dL (17.9 mmol/L), and the breakfast tray has arrived. What action
should the nurse take? Click the exhibit button for additional information. - (ANSWER)4. Administer 37
units of insulin: 25 units of NPH mixed with 12 units of regular insulin in the same syringe, drawing up
the regular insulin first
Intermediate-acting insulins (NPH) can be safely mixed with short-acting (regular) and rapid-acting (eg,
lispro, aspart) insulins in one syringe. Regular insulin should be drawn into the syringe before
intermediate-acting insulin to avoid cross-contaminating multidose vials (mnemonic - RN: Regular
before NPH).
To prepare the mixed dose:
Inject 25 units of air into the NPH insulin vial without inverting the vial or passing the needle into the
solution.
Inject 12 units of air into the regular insulin vial and withdraw the dose, leaving no air bubbles.
Draw 25 units of NPH insulin, totaling 37 units in one syringe. Any overdraw of NPH into the syringe will
necessitate wasting the entire quantity.
A client is receiving packed RBCs intravenously through a double-lumen peripherally inserted central
catheter (PICC) line. During the transfusion, the nurse receives a new prescription to begin intravenous
piggyback (IVPB) amphotericin B. What is the nurse's best action? - (ANSWER)4. Wait 1 hour after blood
transfusion finishes administering amphotericin B
For each finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of
hemothorax or tension pneumothorax. Each finding may support more than one disease process. -
(ANSWER)Hemothorax: results from the accumulation of blood loss in the pleural cavity --> loss of
intravascular blood vlolume: tachycardia, hypotension, unilateral diminished breath sounds
Pneumothorax is characterized by air inside the pleural space, which disrupts the negative pressure that
maintains lung expansion, causing the lung to collapse either partially or completely. Tension
pneumothorax develops if air enters but cannot escape the pleural space --> this trapping compresses
the heart and great vessels and displaces the midline structures (trachea) to the opposite side. Tension
pneumothorax: tachycardia, hypotension, subcutaneous emphysema/crepitus on palpitation (air gets
into the tissue under the skin), unilateral diminished breath sounds (also tracheal deviation,
hyperresonance to percussion)
Endoctracheal intubation would worsen the existing pneumothorax by delivering positive pressure
ventilation, which would increase intrathoracic pressure ==> compress the heart and great vessels and
lead to cardiac arrest.
The charger nurse is responsible for making room assignments multiple clients. Which pari of client
assignments to a shared room is appropriate? - (ANSWER)3. Client who had a bowel resection 1 day ago
and client with asthma exacerbation.
When making room assignments, it is important to remember that a client with an active or suspected
infection should not be paired with a client who has a fresh surgical wound or is immunocompromised.
A client having an asthma exacerbation does not have an infection and is not at risk for spreading
infection to a client who had a recent bowel resection surgery.
The clinic nurse is assessing a client who is being treated for depression and suicidal ideation. Which
client statement best indicates that the client is not currently at risk for suicide? - (ANSWER)2. "I plan to
attend my grandchild's graduation next month"
Clients receiving treatment for depression and suicidal ideation must be carefully monitored for
indications of increasing suicidal intent. During a client interview, the nurse should assess:
- Access to psychiatric medications
,NCLEX RN Test 1 for 2026 Questions with 100% Correct Answers
- Availability of help during a crisis (counselor, family)
- Future goals and plans
- Home and environment risks
- Overall affect and level of energy
- Possible access to weapons
Clients who articulate long-term personal goals and family milestones are less likely to attempt death by
suicide
The nurse is caring for a client who had an anterior wall myocardial infarction 2 days ago. The telemetry
technician notifies the nurse at 8:30 AM that the client is in ventricular trigeminy. What is the nurse's
priority intervention? - (ANSWER)1. Administer potassium supplement
In ventricular trigeminy, premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) occur every third heartbeat.
Myocardial injury (eg, myocardial infarction) predisposes the client to ectopy (eg, PVCs), which increases
the client's risk for lethal dysrhythmias (eg, ventricular tachycardia). PVCs are caused and/or
exacerbated by hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, emotional stress, stimulants, fever, and exercise.
This client's morning laboratory results show hypokalemia (potassium <3.5 mEq/L [3.5 mmol/L]);
therefore, the priority is treatment of the underlying cause of the ectopy by administering the
prescribed potassium replacement (Option 1). Health care providers (HCPs) often prescribe electrolyte
replacement algorithms to clients at risk for electrolyte imbalances (eg, myocardial injury, receiving
diuretics) unless a contraindication exists (eg, serum creatinine >1.5 mg/dL [133 µmol/L], anuric, weight
<99.2 lb [45 kg]).
The nurse cares for a client with a terminal disease who created a do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR)
directive. The client stops breathing and loses their pulse. The client's adult child states, "Please, do
whatever you can to save them!" Which intervention is appropriate? - (ANSWER)3. Explain the client's
resuscitation directive to the client's child
,NCLEX RN Test 1 for 2026 Questions with 100% Correct Answers
Clients can create a do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR) directive instructing that CPR and other life-
saving measures be withheld. With an advance directive in place, the client's wishes should be followed,
even if they conflict with the wishes of loved ones
The nurse in the cardiac intensive care unit receives report on 4 clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first? - (ANSWER)2. Client who underwent coronary artery stent placement via femoral approach
3 hours ago and is reporting severe back pain
A client who undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and intracoronary stent placement
using the femoral approach is at increased risk for retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Administration of
antithrombotic drugs before, during, and after PCI can exacerbate potentially life-threatening bleeding
from the femoral artery.
Hypotension, back pain, flank ecchymosis (eg, Grey Turner sign), hematoma formation, and diminished
distal pulses can be early signs of bleeding into the retroperitoneal space and require immediate
intervention (eg, notify health care provider, serial complete blood count, CT scan of the abdomen)
The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has sustained a right tibia/fibula fracture from
a fall. The nurse identifies which finding as most likely to hinder healing? - (ANSWER)4. Peripheral
arterial disease
Bone healing depends on multiple factors, including nutrition, adequate circulation, and age. A client
with peripheral arterial disease has decreased perfusion to the extremities due to atherosclerotic
changes in the arteries. Without adequate perfusion, the bone is not supplied with the oxygen and
nutrients required for healing
Based on the nursing assessment progress notes, what is the correct staging of the client's pressure
injury? Click on the exhibit button for additional information. - (ANSWER)WRONG
2. Stage 2: Stage 2 pressure injuries have partial-thickness skin loss (abrasion, blister, or shallow crater).
The skin blisters or forms an open sore, and the area around the sore may be red and irritated. (shallow,
open ulcer, red-pink wound with no sloughing and possible intact or ruptured blister)
, NCLEX RN Test 1 for 2026 Questions with 100% Correct Answers
Stage 1: Intact skin with nonblanchable redness
Stage 2: Partial-thickness skin loss (abrasion, blister, or shallow crater) involving the dermis or
epidermis; the wound bed is red or pink and may be shiny or dry
Stage 3: Full-thickness skin loss; subcutaneous fat is visible but not tendon, muscle, or bone; tunneling
may be present
Stage 4: Full-thickness skin loss with visible tendon, muscle, or bone; slough or eschar (scabbing, dead
tissue) may be present; undermining and tunneling may be present
Pressure injuries are described as "unstageable" if the base is covered by necrotic tissue or eschar
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has prescriptions for NPH insulin and regular insulin. At 0730, the
client's blood glucose level is 322 mg/dL (17.9 mmol/L), and the breakfast tray has arrived. What action
should the nurse take? Click the exhibit button for additional information. - (ANSWER)4. Administer 37
units of insulin: 25 units of NPH mixed with 12 units of regular insulin in the same syringe, drawing up
the regular insulin first
Intermediate-acting insulins (NPH) can be safely mixed with short-acting (regular) and rapid-acting (eg,
lispro, aspart) insulins in one syringe. Regular insulin should be drawn into the syringe before
intermediate-acting insulin to avoid cross-contaminating multidose vials (mnemonic - RN: Regular
before NPH).
To prepare the mixed dose:
Inject 25 units of air into the NPH insulin vial without inverting the vial or passing the needle into the
solution.
Inject 12 units of air into the regular insulin vial and withdraw the dose, leaving no air bubbles.
Draw 25 units of NPH insulin, totaling 37 units in one syringe. Any overdraw of NPH into the syringe will
necessitate wasting the entire quantity.
A client is receiving packed RBCs intravenously through a double-lumen peripherally inserted central
catheter (PICC) line. During the transfusion, the nurse receives a new prescription to begin intravenous
piggyback (IVPB) amphotericin B. What is the nurse's best action? - (ANSWER)4. Wait 1 hour after blood
transfusion finishes administering amphotericin B
