ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR FORM C EXAM – PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
Core DomainsPharmacology and Parenteral TherapiesManagement of Care and LeadershipReduction of Risk PotentialPhysiological AdaptationHealth Promotion and
MaintenancePsychosocial IntegritySafety and Infection ControlNutrition and Basic Care
IntroductionThe ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Form C Practice Exam is designed to evaluate a student's preparedness for the NCLEX-RN licensure examination. This
comprehensive assessment focuses on the integration of nursing knowledge, clinical judgment, and the ability to apply the nursing process across diverse healthcare settings.
The exam utilizes multiple-choice and scenario-based questions to measure proficiency in core nursing domains, including safety, pharmacology, and physiological adaptation.
By emphasizing real-world application and complex decision-making, this tool identifies specific strengths and areas for improvement, ensuring candidates possess the critical
thinking skills necessary for safe and effective entry-level nursing practice.
Section One: Questions 1–100
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Assist the client with incentive spirometry.
B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
C. Assess the client’s incision for signs of infection.
D. Administer prescribed analgesic medication.
🟢 Correct answer A. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Using the airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) priority-setting framework, the nurse should first address respiratory status to prevent postoperative atelectasis
and pneumonia.
2. A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify
as a priority to report to the provider?
A. Deep tendon reflexes of 1+
B. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 14/min
D. Generalized flushing and sweating
🟢 Correct answer B. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Magnesium sulfate is excreted by the kidneys. A urinary output of less than 30 mL/hr can indicate renal impairment, leading to magnesium toxicity.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for a potassium-sparing diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
C. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L
D. Chloride 100 mEq/L
🟢 Correct answer C. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Potassium-sparing diuretics can lead to hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L is above the expected reference range and requires intervention.
, 4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets for angina pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include?
A. Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing.
B. Discard unused tablets 6 months after the bottle is opened.
C. Store the medication in a clear plastic container.
D. Take a tablet every 15 minutes until the pain subsides.
🟢 Correct answer B. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Sublingual nitroglycerin loses its potency over time. Clients should be instructed to replace the tablets every 6 months to ensure effectiveness.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Polyuria
C. Hypotension
D. Pruritus
🟢 Correct answer D. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Pruritus, or itching, is common in ESRD due to the buildup of uremic wastes and phosphate crystals in the skin.
6. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse
include?
A. Limit intake of foods high in potassium.
B. Maintain a consistent intake of sodium.
C. Decrease daily fluid intake to 1 liter.
D. Avoid foods containing tyramine.
🟢 Correct answer B. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Lithium is a salt. If sodium intake is reduced, the kidneys retain lithium, increasing the risk of toxicity. Consistency is key to maintaining therapeutic levels.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the active phase of labor and has a fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing showing late decelerations. Which of the following actions should
the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask.
B. Increase the rate of the IV fluid infusion.
C. Assist the client into a side-lying position.
D. Notify the healthcare provider.
🟢 Correct answer C. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. Repositioning the client to the side-lying position improves blood flow to the placenta and is the
immediate priority.
8. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. Which of the following findings indicates a tension pneumothorax?
, A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
B. Tracheal deviation to the unaffected side.
C. Fluctuations in the water level with respiration.
D. Drainage of 50 mL of serosanguinous fluid in 1 hour.
🟢 Correct answer B. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Tracheal deviation is a hallmark sign of a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition where air pressure shifts the mediastinum.
9. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a child who has cystic fibrosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Administer pancreatic enzymes 2 hours after meals.
B. Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
C. Limit physical activity to prevent fatigue.
D. Perform chest physiotherapy once daily in the evening.
🟢 Correct answer B. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Clients with cystic fibrosis require high-calorie and high-protein diets to compensate for malabsorption caused by pancreatic insufficiency.
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following nursing interventions is the priority?
A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
B. Provide the client with high-calorie finger foods.
C. Maintain a quiet, low-stimulus environment.
D. Set firm limits on the client’s behavior.
🟢 Correct answer C. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: For a client in an acute manic state, reducing environmental stimuli is the priority to promote safety and decrease agitation.
11. A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water.
B. Warm the formula to room temperature.
C. Verify the placement of the NG tube.
D. Check the gastric residual volume.
🟢 Correct answer C. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: The first and most important step is to ensure the tube is in the stomach to prevent aspiration of the formula into the lungs.
12. A nurse is assessing a client who has Graves' disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Weight gain
C. Cold intolerance
D. Exophthalmos
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
Core DomainsPharmacology and Parenteral TherapiesManagement of Care and LeadershipReduction of Risk PotentialPhysiological AdaptationHealth Promotion and
MaintenancePsychosocial IntegritySafety and Infection ControlNutrition and Basic Care
IntroductionThe ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Form C Practice Exam is designed to evaluate a student's preparedness for the NCLEX-RN licensure examination. This
comprehensive assessment focuses on the integration of nursing knowledge, clinical judgment, and the ability to apply the nursing process across diverse healthcare settings.
The exam utilizes multiple-choice and scenario-based questions to measure proficiency in core nursing domains, including safety, pharmacology, and physiological adaptation.
By emphasizing real-world application and complex decision-making, this tool identifies specific strengths and areas for improvement, ensuring candidates possess the critical
thinking skills necessary for safe and effective entry-level nursing practice.
Section One: Questions 1–100
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Assist the client with incentive spirometry.
B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
C. Assess the client’s incision for signs of infection.
D. Administer prescribed analgesic medication.
🟢 Correct answer A. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Using the airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) priority-setting framework, the nurse should first address respiratory status to prevent postoperative atelectasis
and pneumonia.
2. A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify
as a priority to report to the provider?
A. Deep tendon reflexes of 1+
B. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 14/min
D. Generalized flushing and sweating
🟢 Correct answer B. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Magnesium sulfate is excreted by the kidneys. A urinary output of less than 30 mL/hr can indicate renal impairment, leading to magnesium toxicity.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for a potassium-sparing diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
C. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L
D. Chloride 100 mEq/L
🟢 Correct answer C. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Potassium-sparing diuretics can lead to hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L is above the expected reference range and requires intervention.
, 4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets for angina pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include?
A. Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing.
B. Discard unused tablets 6 months after the bottle is opened.
C. Store the medication in a clear plastic container.
D. Take a tablet every 15 minutes until the pain subsides.
🟢 Correct answer B. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Sublingual nitroglycerin loses its potency over time. Clients should be instructed to replace the tablets every 6 months to ensure effectiveness.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Polyuria
C. Hypotension
D. Pruritus
🟢 Correct answer D. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Pruritus, or itching, is common in ESRD due to the buildup of uremic wastes and phosphate crystals in the skin.
6. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse
include?
A. Limit intake of foods high in potassium.
B. Maintain a consistent intake of sodium.
C. Decrease daily fluid intake to 1 liter.
D. Avoid foods containing tyramine.
🟢 Correct answer B. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Lithium is a salt. If sodium intake is reduced, the kidneys retain lithium, increasing the risk of toxicity. Consistency is key to maintaining therapeutic levels.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the active phase of labor and has a fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing showing late decelerations. Which of the following actions should
the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask.
B. Increase the rate of the IV fluid infusion.
C. Assist the client into a side-lying position.
D. Notify the healthcare provider.
🟢 Correct answer C. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. Repositioning the client to the side-lying position improves blood flow to the placenta and is the
immediate priority.
8. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. Which of the following findings indicates a tension pneumothorax?
, A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
B. Tracheal deviation to the unaffected side.
C. Fluctuations in the water level with respiration.
D. Drainage of 50 mL of serosanguinous fluid in 1 hour.
🟢 Correct answer B. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Tracheal deviation is a hallmark sign of a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition where air pressure shifts the mediastinum.
9. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a child who has cystic fibrosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Administer pancreatic enzymes 2 hours after meals.
B. Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
C. Limit physical activity to prevent fatigue.
D. Perform chest physiotherapy once daily in the evening.
🟢 Correct answer B. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: Clients with cystic fibrosis require high-calorie and high-protein diets to compensate for malabsorption caused by pancreatic insufficiency.
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following nursing interventions is the priority?
A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
B. Provide the client with high-calorie finger foods.
C. Maintain a quiet, low-stimulus environment.
D. Set firm limits on the client’s behavior.
🟢 Correct answer C. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: For a client in an acute manic state, reducing environmental stimuli is the priority to promote safety and decrease agitation.
11. A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water.
B. Warm the formula to room temperature.
C. Verify the placement of the NG tube.
D. Check the gastric residual volume.
🟢 Correct answer C. Option
🔴 RATIONALE: The first and most important step is to ensure the tube is in the stomach to prevent aspiration of the formula into the lungs.
12. A nurse is assessing a client who has Graves' disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Weight gain
C. Cold intolerance
D. Exophthalmos
