ABRET EEG R. EEG T. Exam Study Guide (2026) | Verified Board Prep Q&A &
Waveform Analysis GRADED A+
Ace your neurodiagnostic boards with this comprehensive ABRET EEG study guide,
fully updated with verified questions and expert rationales for the 2026 exam cycle. This
review masters high-yield technical domains, including the 10-20 electrode placement
system, differential amplifier instrumentation, and ACNS clinical recording standards.
Designed for technologists aiming for R. EEG T. certification, it provides the critical
knowledge needed to identify complex seizure patterns, metabolic waveforms, and
essential patient safety protocols.
1. According to the International 10-20 System, the distance between Fp1 and F3
is what percentage of the total distance between Fp1 and O1?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 50%
Answer: C. 25%
Rationale: The distance from Fp1 to F3 is 25% of the total distance from Fp1 to O1. The
increments on the longitudinal lines are Fp1 to F3 (25%), F3 to C3 (25%), C3 to P3
(25%), and P3 to O1 (25%).
2. Which electrode site is halfway between Fp2 and T4?
A. F4
B. F8
C. C4
D. Fz
Answer: B. F8
Rationale: On the right side of the head, the electrode site located between the frontal
pole (Fp2) and the mid-temporal (T4) is the anterior temporal (F8).
,3. If the distance from the Nasion to Inion is 36 cm, what is the distance from the
Nasion to Fpz?
A. 1.8 cm
B. 3.6 cm
C. 7.2 cm
D. 9.0 cm
Answer: B. 3.6 cm
Rationale: The distance from Nasion to Fpz is 10% of the total Nasion-Inion distance (36
x 0.10 = 3.6 cm).
4. A differential amplifier records the:
A. Sum of the two inputs
B. Difference between the two inputs
C. Average of the two inputs
D. Input from only the active electrode
Answer: B. Difference between the two inputs
Rationale: A differential amplifier subtracts the voltage of Input 2 from Input 1. This
process is called Common Mode Rejection, which helps eliminate noise common to both
inputs.
5. What is the standard sensitivity for a routine EEG?
A. 1 uV/mm
B. 7 uV/mm
C. 10 uV/mm
D. 20 uV/mm
Answer: B. 7 uV/mm
Rationale: While sensitivity can be adjusted, 7 uV/mm is the industry standard for
starting a routine adult EEG recording.
6. A fast-frequency activity of 14–30 Hz is defined as:
A. Delta
B. Theta
C. Alpha
D. Beta
Answer: D. Beta
,Rationale: Beta frequency is defined as any activity greater than 13 Hz (typically 14–30
Hz).
7. Which filter would be used to reduce interference from 60 Hz power lines?
A. High-frequency filter
B. Low-frequency filter
C. Notch filter
D. Bandpass filter
Answer: C. Notch filter
Rationale: A Notch filter is specifically designed to eliminate a narrow band of
frequencies, most commonly the 60 Hz (or 50 Hz) line noise.
8. In a bipolar montage, a "Phase Reversal" between two channels indicates:
A. An artifact
B. The localization of a focal discharge
C. A malfunctioning electrode
D. Drowsiness
Answer: B. The localization of a focal discharge
Rationale: In bipolar recordings, the electrode common to two channels where the
waveforms point toward each other (or away) represents the site of maximum potential
(the focus).
9. What is the frequency of the Mu Rhythm?
A. 3–5 Hz
B. 4–7 Hz
C. 8–11 Hz
D. 13–20 Hz
Answer: C. 8–11 Hz
Rationale: The Mu rhythm occurs at the same frequency as alpha (8–13 Hz) but is
localized over the central regions (C3, C4) and is attenuated by physical movement of
the opposite limb.
10. Which activation procedure is most likely to elicit a 3 Hz spike-and-wave
discharge?
A. Sleep deprivation
B. Hyperventilation
, C. Photic stimulation
D. Eye opening/closing
Answer: B. Hyperventilation
Rationale: Hyperventilation is highly effective at triggering generalized 3 Hz spike-and-
wave patterns characteristic of Absence (Petit Mal) seizures.
11. The polarity of an eye blink artifact at Fp1/Fp2 is typically:
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Neutral
D. 60 Hz
Answer: A. Positive
Rationale: The front of the eye (cornea) is positive relative to the back (retina). When the
eye closes/blinks, the positive cornea moves closer to the Fp1/Fp2 electrodes, creating
a downward (positive) deflection.
12. A "Ground" electrode is used in EEG primarily to:
A. Measure brain activity
B. Improve the signal-to-noise ratio
C. Protect the patient from shock
D. Record eye movements
Answer: B. Improve the signal-to-noise ratio
Rationale: In modern EEG, the ground electrode provides a reference point for the
differential amplifier to help eliminate common mode interference.
13. What is the minimum recommended duration for a routine EEG recording?
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 4 hours
Answer: B. 20 minutes
Rationale: ACNS guidelines state that a routine EEG should contain at least 20 minutes
of technically satisfactory recording.
14. An EEG pattern associated with deep coma, characterized by bursts of activity
followed by periods of flatness, is:
Waveform Analysis GRADED A+
Ace your neurodiagnostic boards with this comprehensive ABRET EEG study guide,
fully updated with verified questions and expert rationales for the 2026 exam cycle. This
review masters high-yield technical domains, including the 10-20 electrode placement
system, differential amplifier instrumentation, and ACNS clinical recording standards.
Designed for technologists aiming for R. EEG T. certification, it provides the critical
knowledge needed to identify complex seizure patterns, metabolic waveforms, and
essential patient safety protocols.
1. According to the International 10-20 System, the distance between Fp1 and F3
is what percentage of the total distance between Fp1 and O1?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 50%
Answer: C. 25%
Rationale: The distance from Fp1 to F3 is 25% of the total distance from Fp1 to O1. The
increments on the longitudinal lines are Fp1 to F3 (25%), F3 to C3 (25%), C3 to P3
(25%), and P3 to O1 (25%).
2. Which electrode site is halfway between Fp2 and T4?
A. F4
B. F8
C. C4
D. Fz
Answer: B. F8
Rationale: On the right side of the head, the electrode site located between the frontal
pole (Fp2) and the mid-temporal (T4) is the anterior temporal (F8).
,3. If the distance from the Nasion to Inion is 36 cm, what is the distance from the
Nasion to Fpz?
A. 1.8 cm
B. 3.6 cm
C. 7.2 cm
D. 9.0 cm
Answer: B. 3.6 cm
Rationale: The distance from Nasion to Fpz is 10% of the total Nasion-Inion distance (36
x 0.10 = 3.6 cm).
4. A differential amplifier records the:
A. Sum of the two inputs
B. Difference between the two inputs
C. Average of the two inputs
D. Input from only the active electrode
Answer: B. Difference between the two inputs
Rationale: A differential amplifier subtracts the voltage of Input 2 from Input 1. This
process is called Common Mode Rejection, which helps eliminate noise common to both
inputs.
5. What is the standard sensitivity for a routine EEG?
A. 1 uV/mm
B. 7 uV/mm
C. 10 uV/mm
D. 20 uV/mm
Answer: B. 7 uV/mm
Rationale: While sensitivity can be adjusted, 7 uV/mm is the industry standard for
starting a routine adult EEG recording.
6. A fast-frequency activity of 14–30 Hz is defined as:
A. Delta
B. Theta
C. Alpha
D. Beta
Answer: D. Beta
,Rationale: Beta frequency is defined as any activity greater than 13 Hz (typically 14–30
Hz).
7. Which filter would be used to reduce interference from 60 Hz power lines?
A. High-frequency filter
B. Low-frequency filter
C. Notch filter
D. Bandpass filter
Answer: C. Notch filter
Rationale: A Notch filter is specifically designed to eliminate a narrow band of
frequencies, most commonly the 60 Hz (or 50 Hz) line noise.
8. In a bipolar montage, a "Phase Reversal" between two channels indicates:
A. An artifact
B. The localization of a focal discharge
C. A malfunctioning electrode
D. Drowsiness
Answer: B. The localization of a focal discharge
Rationale: In bipolar recordings, the electrode common to two channels where the
waveforms point toward each other (or away) represents the site of maximum potential
(the focus).
9. What is the frequency of the Mu Rhythm?
A. 3–5 Hz
B. 4–7 Hz
C. 8–11 Hz
D. 13–20 Hz
Answer: C. 8–11 Hz
Rationale: The Mu rhythm occurs at the same frequency as alpha (8–13 Hz) but is
localized over the central regions (C3, C4) and is attenuated by physical movement of
the opposite limb.
10. Which activation procedure is most likely to elicit a 3 Hz spike-and-wave
discharge?
A. Sleep deprivation
B. Hyperventilation
, C. Photic stimulation
D. Eye opening/closing
Answer: B. Hyperventilation
Rationale: Hyperventilation is highly effective at triggering generalized 3 Hz spike-and-
wave patterns characteristic of Absence (Petit Mal) seizures.
11. The polarity of an eye blink artifact at Fp1/Fp2 is typically:
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Neutral
D. 60 Hz
Answer: A. Positive
Rationale: The front of the eye (cornea) is positive relative to the back (retina). When the
eye closes/blinks, the positive cornea moves closer to the Fp1/Fp2 electrodes, creating
a downward (positive) deflection.
12. A "Ground" electrode is used in EEG primarily to:
A. Measure brain activity
B. Improve the signal-to-noise ratio
C. Protect the patient from shock
D. Record eye movements
Answer: B. Improve the signal-to-noise ratio
Rationale: In modern EEG, the ground electrode provides a reference point for the
differential amplifier to help eliminate common mode interference.
13. What is the minimum recommended duration for a routine EEG recording?
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 4 hours
Answer: B. 20 minutes
Rationale: ACNS guidelines state that a routine EEG should contain at least 20 minutes
of technically satisfactory recording.
14. An EEG pattern associated with deep coma, characterized by bursts of activity
followed by periods of flatness, is:
