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HESI RN Pharmacology Exam 2026/2027 | ACTUAL EXAM | 60 Q&A with Expert Explanations | Newly Released | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Ace your HESI RN Pharmacology Exam with this newly released 2026/2027 actual exam featuring 60 questions, correct answers, and expert explanations – all graded A+. This A+ Graded resource provides comprehensive coverage of essential pharmacology topics for registered nursing students. Content includes: pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics (absorption, distribution, metabolism (CYP450), excretion, half-life, onset/peak/duration, therapeutic range, receptor binding, agonist/antagonist, dose-response curve); medication safety (rights of administration (7-10 rights), high-alert medications (heparin, insulin, opioids, potassium), look-alike/sound-alike, error prevention (independent double check, barcode scanning), medication reconciliation, adverse drug reactions (allergic, anaphylaxis, idiosyncratic, hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity), medication administration across lifespan (pediatric, pregnancy, lactation, geriatric)); cardiovascular drugs (antihypertensives (ACE inhibitors (lisinopril – cough, angioedema), ARBs, beta-blockers (carvedilol – bradycardia, heart failure exacerbation, mask hypoglycemia), calcium channel blockers (amlodipine – peripheral edema, constipation), thiazide diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide – hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hyperglycemia), loop diuretics (furosemide – ototoxicity, hypokalemia), potassium-sparing diuretics (spironolactone – hyperkalemia, gynecomastia)); antiarrhythmics (amiodarone – pulmonary toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, photosensitivity); antidyslipidemics (statins (atorvastatin – myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatotoxicity, monitor LFTs, avoid grapefruit), ezetimibe, PCSK9 inhibitors); anticoagulants (heparin (monitor aPTT, HIT risk), enoxaparin (subcutaneous, no monitoring), warfarin (monitor INR, vitamin K reversal, drug/food interactions), DOACs (apixaban, rivaroxaban)); antiplatelets (aspirin (bleeding, Reye's syndrome in children), clopidogrel, ticagrelor); heart failure drugs (digoxin (monitor level 0.5-0.8 ng/mL, signs of toxicity: nausea, visual changes, arrhythmias, hypokalemia increases risk), sacubitril/valsartan, SGLT2 inhibitors); respiratory drugs (bronchodilators – beta-2 agonists (albuterol – tremor, tachycardia, hypokalemia), anticholinergics (ipratropium – dry mouth), methylxanthines (theophylline – narrow therapeutic index); inhaled corticosteroids (fluticasone – oral thrush, dysphonia, rinse mouth); leukotriene modifiers (montelukast – neuropsychiatric events); monoclonal antibodies (omalizumab – anaphylaxis risk); endocrine drugs (insulin – rapid-acting (lispro), short-acting (regular), intermediate-acting (NPH), long-acting (glargine, detemir); mixing insulins (clear to cloudy), injection sites rotation, hypoglycemia treatment (rule of 15); oral hypoglycemics (metformin – GI upset, lactic acidosis risk, hold before contrast, no alcohol); sulfonylureas (glipizide – hypoglycemia, weight gain), DPP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin), GLP-1 agonists (liraglutide – GI, pancreatitis risk), SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin – UTI, euglycemic DKA); thyroid drugs (levothyroxine – take on empty stomach, monitor TSH, signs of over/under replacement; methimazole – agranulocytosis (sore throat, fever), PTU – hepatotoxicity); adrenal drugs (corticosteroids (prednisone – immunosuppression, hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, adrenal suppression – taper dose); neurologic/psychiatric drugs (antidepressants – SSRIs (fluoxetine – sexual dysfunction, serotonin syndrome, discontinuation syndrome), SNRIs, TCAs (amitriptyline – cardiotoxicity in overdose), MAOIs (tyramine restriction – hypertensive crisis); anxiolytics (benzodiazepines (lorazepam – dependence, withdrawal, sedation), buspirone (no dependence); mood stabilizers (lithium – therapeutic range 0.6-1.2 mEq/L, toxicity signs (tremor, ataxia, nausea, polyuria), avoid NSAIDs, maintain hydration; valproate – hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, teratogenic); antipsychotics (first-generation (haloperidol – EPS, tardive dyskinesia, NMS); second-generation (risperidone – metabolic syndrome, weight gain, diabetes), clozapine – agranulocytosis (monitor ANC)); antiparkinson (carbidopa/levodopa – dyskinesia, nausea, avoid pyridoxine); anticonvulsants (phenytoin – gingival hyperplasia, nystagmus, narrow therapeutic index; levetiracetam – behavioral changes; valproate – hepatotoxicity); antibiotics (penicillins (amoxicillin – allergic reaction, rash, diarrhea); cephalosporins (cross-reactivity with penicillin ~10%); carbapenems; macrolides (azithromycin – QT prolongation); tetracyclines (doxycycline – photosensitivity, avoid in children 8 – tooth discoloration); aminoglycosides (gentamicin – nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, monitor peak/trough); fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin – tendon rupture, QT prolongation, avoid in children); vancomycin – red man syndrome (infuse slowly), nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, monitor trough); metronidazole – disulfiram reaction with alcohol; antifungals (fluconazole – hepatotoxicity, QT prolongation; amphotericin B – infusion reaction, nephrotoxicity, hypokalemia); antivirals (acyclovir – nephrotoxicity, IV hydration; oseltamivir – neuropsychiatric events); pain management (opioids (morphine, hydromorphone, fentanyl – respiratory depression, constipation, sedation, tolerance, withdrawal); opioid antagonists (naloxone – reversal of respiratory depression); non-opioids (acetaminophen – hepatotoxicity max 4g/day, NAC for overdose; NSAIDs – GI bleed, renal impairment, cardiovascular risk); chemotherapy agents (myelosuppression (neutropenia – infection risk, thrombocytopenia – bleeding precautions, anemia); extravasation (vesicants – doxorubicin); tumor lysis syndrome; antiemetics (ondansetron – QT prolongation, constipation)); dosage calculations (oral solids/liquids, injectable (volume, reconstitution), weight-based dosing (mg/kg), IV flow rates (mL/hr, gtt/min with drip factor), safe dose range verification). Each answer includes an expert explanation detailing drug mechanism, nursing implications, adverse effects, patient teaching, and prioritization. With fully verified Q&A and our Pass Guarantee, this is the definitive tool to pass your HESI RN Pharmacology Exam on the first attempt. Get instant access now.

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HESI RN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM
2026/2027 | Newly Released

Actual 60 questions with Correct Answers and
Expert Explanations



Q1: A patient is receiving a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the
"Rights of medication administration" is the nurse fulfilling by asking the patient about their
history of angioedema?

A. Right drug

B. Right patient

C. Right indication/reason [CORRECT]

D. Right documentation

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Checking for a history of angioedema ensures the medication is safe for this specific
patient, which fulfills the right indication or right reason for giving the drug.



Q2: A patient is starting therapy with atorvastatin. Which teaching points should the nurse
include? Select all that apply.

A. "Report any unexplained muscle weakness or tenderness immediately." [CORRECT]

B. "Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this medication." [CORRECT]

C. "This medication will replace your need for a heart-healthy diet."

D. "Expect to have routine blood tests to monitor your liver function." [CORRECT]

E. "Take this medication on an empty stomach to increase absorption."

Correct Answer: A, B, D

,Rationale: Statins carry a risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis, so muscle pain must be
reported. Grapefruit juice increases the toxicity risk of statins. Liver enzymes should be
monitored due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. They do not replace lifestyle changes and can be
taken with or without food.



Q3: A provider orders ciprofloxacin 200 mg IV piggyback to infuse over 60 minutes. The
pharmacy sends the medication in a 100 mL bag. At what rate should the nurse set the IV pump?
_____ mL/hr
Correct Answer: 100 mL/hr

Rationale: To infuse 100 mL of fluid over 60 minutes (1 hour), the nurse divides the total
volume by the time in hours (100 mL ÷ 1 hour = 100 mL/hr).



Q4: A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol and fluticasone. Which statement by the patient
indicates an understanding of how to use these medications? [PILOT]

A. "I will use the fluticasone inhaler when I feel short of breath."

B. "I will take the albuterol to prevent me from having an asthma attack."

C. "I will use the albuterol for acute attacks and the fluticasone for long-term control."
[CORRECT]

D. "I should use the fluticasone first, then wait to use the albuterol."

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist (rescue inhaler) used for acute bronchospasm,
while fluticasone is a corticosteroid (controller inhaler) used for long-term anti-inflammatory
control.

Q5: A patient taking haloperidol develops a high fever, muscle rigidity, and an altered mental
status. The nurse recognizes these as signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). What is
the priority nursing action?

A. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine.

B. Discontinue the antipsychotic and notify the provider immediately. [CORRECT]

C. Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids and rest.

D. Document the findings and reassess in one hour.

Correct Answer: B

, Rationale: NMS is a life-threatening emergency caused by antipsychotics. The first step is to
stop the offending agent and notify the provider immediately for interventions like cooling
measures and IV fluids.



Q6: Use the EHR excerpt below to answer the following questions.

Patient: 68-year-old male admitted with heart failure exacerbation.

Vital Signs: BP 110/70, HR 54 bpm, RR 18, Temp 98.6°F.

Medication Record: Furosemide 40 mg IV daily, Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily, Potassium chloride
20 mEq PO daily.

Lab Results (AM): K+ 3.0 mEq/L, Digoxin level 2.5 ng/mL.

Nurse's Notes: Patient reports feeling nauseous and states everything looks "yellowish."

Which lab result is the most critical to analyze regarding the patient's current symptoms?

A. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L [CORRECT]

B. Digoxin level 2.5 ng/mL

C. Blood pressure of 110/70

D. Respiratory rate of 18

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia (K+ 3.0) significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. While the
digoxin level is high (normal is 0.8-2.0 ng/mL), the low potassium is the primary precipitating
factor making the patient highly symptomatic.



Q7: Based on the EHR data, what is the nurse's priority action regarding the digoxin?

A. Administer the digoxin with a snack to reduce nausea.

B. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. [CORRECT]

C. Give the digoxin and recheck the heart rate in an hour.

D. Double the potassium chloride dose to correct the level faster.

Correct Answer: B

Información del documento

Subido en
20 de abril de 2026
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25
Escrito en
2025/2026
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