Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support
Exam 1 Questions and Verified Answers
C. Second-degree type II Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm?
A. First-degree
This ECG rhythm strip shows second-degree type II B. Second-degree type I
atrioventricular block. C. Second-degree type II
D. Third-degree
A. Monitor the patient’s PETCO2 Your patient is in cardiac arrest and has been intubated. To assess CPR quality,
which should you do?
The AHA recommends using quantitative waveform A. Monitor the patient's PETCO2
capnography in intubated patients to monitor CPR B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
quality, optimize chest compressions, and detect return C. Check the patient's pulse
of spontaneous circulation during chest compressions. D. Obtain a chest x-ray
D. Coronary reperfusion–capable medical center Which facility is the most appropriate EMS destination for a patient with sudden
cardiac arrest who achieved return of spontaneous circulation in the field?
After return of spontaneous circulation in patients in A. Comprehensive stroke care unit
whom coronary artery occlusion is suspected, B. Acute rehabilitation care unit
providers should transport the patient to a facility C. Acute long-term care unit
capable of reliably providing coronary reperfusion (eg, D. Coronary reperfusion-capable medical center
percutaneous coronary intervention) and other goal-
directed post–cardiac arrest care therapies.
C. Agonal gasps Which of the following signs is a likely indicator of cardiac arrest in an
unresponsive patient?
Agonal gasps are not normal breathing. They are a sign A. Slow, weak pulse rate
of cardiac arrest. Agonal gasps may be present in the B. Cyanosis
first minutes after sudden cardiac arrest. C. Agonal gasps
D. Irregular, weak pulse rate
B. Second-degree atrioventricular block type I Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm?
A. Third-degree atrioventricular block
This ECG rhythm strip shows second-degree B. Second-degree atrioventricular block type I
atrioventricular block type I. C. First-degree atrioventricular block
D. Second-degree atrioventricular block type II
B. Once every 5 to 6 seconds To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you
squeeze the bag?
For a patient in respiratory arrest with a pulse, deliver A. Once every 3 to 4 seconds
ventilations once every 5 to 6 seconds with a bag-mask B. Once every 5 to 6 seconds
device or any advanced airway. C. Once every 10 seconds
D. Once every 12 seconds
, C. Continuous waveform capnography In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm
and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube?
The AHA recommends continuous waveform A. Arterial blood gases
capnography in addition to clinical assessment as the B. Chest radiography
most reliable method of confirming and monitoring C. Continuous waveform capnography
correct placement of an endotracheal tube. D. Hemoglobin levels
B. Start fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2
hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs of hemorrhage. The patient
Start fibrinolytic therapy in appropriate patients (those does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment
without contraindications) within 1 hour of hospital approach is best for this patient?
arrival and 3 hours from symptom onset. A. Hold fibrinolytic therapy for 24 hours
B. Start fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible
C. Order an echocardiogram before fibrinolytic administration
D. Wait for the results of the MRI
D. Third-degree atrioventricular block Which best describes this rhythm?
A. First-degree atrioventricular block
This ECG rhythm strip shows third-degree B. Second-degree atrioventricular block type I
atrioventricular block. C. Second-degree atrioventricular block type II
D. Third-degree atrioventricular block
C. 32°C to 36°C What is the recommended range from which a temperature should be selected
and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after
For targeted temperature management, healthcare cardiac arrest?
providers should select and maintain a constant target A. 26°C to 28°
temperature between 32°C and 36°C for a period of at C B. 29°C to 31°C
least 24 hours. C. 32°C to 36°C
D. 35°C to 37°C
D. 300 mg Which is the recommended first intravenous dose of amiodarone for a patient
with refractory ventricular fibrillation?
Consider amiodarone for treatment of ventricular A. 100 mg
fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. 150 mg
unresponsive to shock delivery, CPR, and a vasopressor. C. 250 mg
During cardiac arrest, consider amiodarone 300 mg D. 300 mg
IV/IO push for the first dose.
B. Improving patient outcomes by identifying and Which is the primary purpose of a medical emergency team or rapid response
treating early clinical deterioration team?
A. Improving care for patients admitted to critical care units
Many hospitals have implemented the use of medical B. Improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical
emergency teams or rapid response teams. The deterioration
purpose of these teams is to improve patient outcomes C. Providing diagnostic consultation to emergency department patients
by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration. D. Providing online consultation to EMS personnel in the field
Exam 1 Questions and Verified Answers
C. Second-degree type II Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm?
A. First-degree
This ECG rhythm strip shows second-degree type II B. Second-degree type I
atrioventricular block. C. Second-degree type II
D. Third-degree
A. Monitor the patient’s PETCO2 Your patient is in cardiac arrest and has been intubated. To assess CPR quality,
which should you do?
The AHA recommends using quantitative waveform A. Monitor the patient's PETCO2
capnography in intubated patients to monitor CPR B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
quality, optimize chest compressions, and detect return C. Check the patient's pulse
of spontaneous circulation during chest compressions. D. Obtain a chest x-ray
D. Coronary reperfusion–capable medical center Which facility is the most appropriate EMS destination for a patient with sudden
cardiac arrest who achieved return of spontaneous circulation in the field?
After return of spontaneous circulation in patients in A. Comprehensive stroke care unit
whom coronary artery occlusion is suspected, B. Acute rehabilitation care unit
providers should transport the patient to a facility C. Acute long-term care unit
capable of reliably providing coronary reperfusion (eg, D. Coronary reperfusion-capable medical center
percutaneous coronary intervention) and other goal-
directed post–cardiac arrest care therapies.
C. Agonal gasps Which of the following signs is a likely indicator of cardiac arrest in an
unresponsive patient?
Agonal gasps are not normal breathing. They are a sign A. Slow, weak pulse rate
of cardiac arrest. Agonal gasps may be present in the B. Cyanosis
first minutes after sudden cardiac arrest. C. Agonal gasps
D. Irregular, weak pulse rate
B. Second-degree atrioventricular block type I Which type of atrioventricular block best describes this rhythm?
A. Third-degree atrioventricular block
This ECG rhythm strip shows second-degree B. Second-degree atrioventricular block type I
atrioventricular block type I. C. First-degree atrioventricular block
D. Second-degree atrioventricular block type II
B. Once every 5 to 6 seconds To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you
squeeze the bag?
For a patient in respiratory arrest with a pulse, deliver A. Once every 3 to 4 seconds
ventilations once every 5 to 6 seconds with a bag-mask B. Once every 5 to 6 seconds
device or any advanced airway. C. Once every 10 seconds
D. Once every 12 seconds
, C. Continuous waveform capnography In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm
and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube?
The AHA recommends continuous waveform A. Arterial blood gases
capnography in addition to clinical assessment as the B. Chest radiography
most reliable method of confirming and monitoring C. Continuous waveform capnography
correct placement of an endotracheal tube. D. Hemoglobin levels
B. Start fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible You are caring for a patient with a suspected stroke whose symptoms started 2
hours ago. The CT scan was normal, with no signs of hemorrhage. The patient
Start fibrinolytic therapy in appropriate patients (those does not have any contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. Which treatment
without contraindications) within 1 hour of hospital approach is best for this patient?
arrival and 3 hours from symptom onset. A. Hold fibrinolytic therapy for 24 hours
B. Start fibrinolytic therapy as soon as possible
C. Order an echocardiogram before fibrinolytic administration
D. Wait for the results of the MRI
D. Third-degree atrioventricular block Which best describes this rhythm?
A. First-degree atrioventricular block
This ECG rhythm strip shows third-degree B. Second-degree atrioventricular block type I
atrioventricular block. C. Second-degree atrioventricular block type II
D. Third-degree atrioventricular block
C. 32°C to 36°C What is the recommended range from which a temperature should be selected
and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after
For targeted temperature management, healthcare cardiac arrest?
providers should select and maintain a constant target A. 26°C to 28°
temperature between 32°C and 36°C for a period of at C B. 29°C to 31°C
least 24 hours. C. 32°C to 36°C
D. 35°C to 37°C
D. 300 mg Which is the recommended first intravenous dose of amiodarone for a patient
with refractory ventricular fibrillation?
Consider amiodarone for treatment of ventricular A. 100 mg
fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia B. 150 mg
unresponsive to shock delivery, CPR, and a vasopressor. C. 250 mg
During cardiac arrest, consider amiodarone 300 mg D. 300 mg
IV/IO push for the first dose.
B. Improving patient outcomes by identifying and Which is the primary purpose of a medical emergency team or rapid response
treating early clinical deterioration team?
A. Improving care for patients admitted to critical care units
Many hospitals have implemented the use of medical B. Improving patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical
emergency teams or rapid response teams. The deterioration
purpose of these teams is to improve patient outcomes C. Providing diagnostic consultation to emergency department patients
by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration. D. Providing online consultation to EMS personnel in the field
