NSG 6005 Week 2 Chapter 2, 5, 6,10 and 13 study Guide with all the Answers

A patient’s nutritional intake and laboratory results reflect hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because: 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect: 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be the: 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed intramuscularly (IM) to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs: 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s: 6.Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day’s dosage be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose: 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the: 8. Phenytoin requires that a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done: 9. A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the: 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property? 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause: 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include: 13. Drugs administered via IV: 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is: 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true? 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true? 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via phase I or phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to: 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be: 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by: 20. Steady state is: 21. Two different pain medications are given together for pain relief. The drug—drug interaction is: 22. Actions taken to reduce drug—drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT: 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process? 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called: 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time, the body may: 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that: 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements? 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained-release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in: 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach? 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption? 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is: 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may: 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state: 34. Upregulation or hypersensitization may lead to: Chapter 5. Adverse Drug Reactions 1. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs): 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to: 3. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to: 4. The type of adverse drug reaction that is idiosyncratic when a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is type: 5. Digoxin may cause a type A adverse drug reaction due to: 6. Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a type __ allergic drug reaction. 7. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n): 8. Anaphylactic shock is a: 9. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction? 10. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a type D reaction because they are known: 11. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for a _____ adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids. 12. An example of a first-dose reaction that may occur includes: 13. Drugs that are prone to cause adverse drug effects include: 14. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration MedWatch system is activated when: 15. The Vaccine Adverse Events Reporting System is: Chapter 6. Factors That Foster Positive Outcomes 1. A comprehensive assessment of a patient should be holistic when trying to determine competence in drug administration. Which of the following factors would the NP omit from this type of assessment? 2. Elena Vasquez’s primary language is Spanish, and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed? 3. Rod, age 68, has hearing difficulty. Which of the following would NOT be helpful in assuring that he understands teaching about his drug? 4. Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen? 5. The health-care delivery system itself can create barriers to adherence to a treatment regimen. Which of the following system variables creates such a barrier? 6. Ralph’s blood pressure remains elevated despite increased doses of his drug. The NP is concerned that he might not be adhering to his treatment regimen. Which of the following events would suggest that he might not be adherent? 7. Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that: 8. Factors in chronic conditions that contribute to nonadherence include: 9. While patient education about their drugs is important, information alone does not necessarily lead to adherence to a drug regimen. Patients report greater adherence when: 10. Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs: 11. Many disorders require multiple drugs to treat them. The more complex the drug regimen, the less likely the patient will adhere to it. Which of the following interventions will NOT improve adherence? 12. Pharmacologic interventions are costly. Patients for whom the cost/benefit variable is especially important include: 13. Providers have a responsibility for determining the best plan of care, but patients also have responsibilities. Patients the provider can be assured will carry through on these responsibilities include those who: 14. Monitoring adherence can take several forms, including: 15. Factors that explain and predict medication adherence include: