Chamberlain university
Verified Questions, Answers & Rationales
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2026/2027 | Newly Released
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders (Hypertension, Heart Failure, CAD, Shock)
Section 2: Respiratory Disorders (COPD, Asthma, Pneumonia, ARDS)
Q1: Which of the following best describes the primary pathophysiological mechanism of
essential (primary) hypertension?
A. Excessive renin secretion from the kidneys leading to acute fluid retention.
B. A complex interaction of genetic, environmental, and neural/hormonal factors that
increase peripheral vascular resistance. [CORRECT]
C. Coarctation of the aorta causing a mechanical increase in afterload.
D. Primary aldosteronism resulting directly from an adrenal adenoma.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Essential hypertension accounts for 90-95% of cases and has no single identifiable
cause, but rather involves a complex interplay of factors increasing systemic vascular resistance.
Options C and D describe secondary causes of hypertension.
, Q2: A patient with long-standing, uncontrolled hypertension presents with left ventricular
hypertrophy (LVH). Which physiological response explains this cardiac adaptation?
A. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system to decrease heart rate.
B. Increased preload causing dilation of the ventricular wall.
C. Increased afterload requiring the myocardium to work harder, leading to cellular
enlargement. [CORRECT]
D. Decreased systemic vascular resistance reducing cardiac workload.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic hypertension increases afterload (resistance the heart must pump against). To
compensate, the myocardial muscle fibers thicken (hypertrophy) to generate the force needed to
eject blood, leading to LVH.
Q3: A 55-year-old patient presents with dyspnea on exertion and fatigue. Echocardiography
reveals an ejection fraction (EF) of 35%. Which type of heart failure is the patient experiencing?
A. Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction (HFpEF).
B. Right-sided heart failure.
C. Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction (HFrEF). [CORRECT]
D. Diastolic heart failure.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An EF of 35% is below the normal range (55-70%), indicating the systolic function is
impaired. This defines Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction (HFrEF) or systolic heart
failure. HFpEF (diastolic) involves a normal EF but impaired filling.
Q4: A patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) presents with jugular venous
distension, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly. These findings are most consistent with which
type of heart failure?
A. Left-sided heart failure.
B. Biventricular failure.
C. Right-sided heart failure. [CORRECT]
D. Acute pulmonary edema.
.