NURS 5433 University Of Texas - Arlington -NURS
5433 FNP II Midterm Exam Questions With Complete
Solutions| instant pdf download
Master your NURS 5433 (Family Nurse Practitioner II) Midterm with this comprehensive, high-yield study
resource. Specifically designed for University of Texas at Arlington (UTA) students, this guide
streamlines complex clinical guidelines into actionable knowledge. It focuses on diagnostic reasoning,
physical exam "red flags," and first-line pharmacological interventions for the FNP role.
This exam prep covers all key modules, including:
1. EENT: Glaucoma vs. Cataracts, Weber/Rinne testing, Strep A protocols, and Ocular emergencies.
2. Respiratory: Asthma GINA/NAEPP steps, COPD management, Pneumonia (CAP), and Pediatric
Croup/RSV.
3. Urology & Men’s Health: UTI (Cystitis) first-line meds, BPH, Testicular Torsion vs. Epididymitis, and
Wilms Tumor.
4. Dermatology: ABCDEs of Melanoma, Shingles (Varicella), Lyme Disease, and common viral exanthems.
5. Theory & Screening: Family Systems Theory (Triangles), USPSTF cancer screening
(Colon/Cervical/Lung), and Osteoporosis (DEXA) guidelines.
1. A 6-year-old presents with a "barking" cough and mild inspiratory stridor. An X-ray
reveals a "steeple sign." What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Bronchiolitis
C) Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)
D) Pertussis
Answer: C) Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)
Explanation: The steeple sign indicates subglottic narrowing characteristic of
Croup, typically caused by parainfluenza virus.
2. A patient with persistent Blepharitis has not responded to warm compresses and lid
scrubs. Which oral antibiotic is commonly used for refractory cases?
, A) Amoxicillin
B) Doxycycline
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Nitrofurantoin
Answer: B) Doxycycline
Explanation: Low-dose tetracyclines like Doxycycline are used for their anti-
inflammatory properties in chronic blepharitis and rosacea.
3. Which physical exam finding is most suggestive of a cataract?
A) Increased intraocular pressure
B) Neovascularization of the retina
C) Absent or diminished red reflex
D) Peripheral vision loss
Answer: C) Absent or diminished red reflex
Explanation: Opacification of the lens blocks the light, resulting in a dull or
absent red reflex during fundoscopy.
4. A 4-year-old presents with a painless, firm abdominal mass that does not cross the
midline. What is the priority differential?
A) Neuroblastoma
B) Wilms Tumor
C) Intussusception
D) Pyloric Stenosis
Answer: B) Wilms Tumor
Explanation: Wilms Tumor (nephroblastoma) typically presents as a smooth, firm,
unilateral mass in children.
5. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for a child with Group A Beta-Hemolytic
Streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis?
A) Azithromycin
B) Penicillin V or Amoxicillin
C) Cephalexin
D) Levofloxacin
Answer: B) Penicillin V or Amoxicillin
Explanation: Penicillins remain the gold standard for GABHS due to narrow
spectrum and efficacy in preventing rheumatic fever.
,6. A patient presents with acute epistaxis. After ensuring the airway is clear, what is the
next immediate step?
A) Apply a topical vasoconstrictor
B) Cauterize with silver nitrate
C) Apply direct pressure for 10-15 minutes while leaning forward
D) Pack the nose with nasal tampons
Answer: C) Apply direct pressure for 10-15 minutes while leaning forward
Explanation: Initial management of nosebleeds involves firm compression of the
nasal alae to allow clot formation.
7. Which diagnostic tool is considered the "gold standard" for confirming Vesicoureteral
Reflux (VUR)?
A) Renal Ultrasound
B) Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG)
C) CT Urogram
D) Urinalysis
Answer: B) Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG)
Explanation: VCUG allows for the visualization of urine flowing backward from
the bladder into the ureters.
8. A patient complains of sudden onset of "curtain closing" over their vision and floaters.
This is a classic sign of:
A) Macular Degeneration
B) Retinal Detachment
C) Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
D) Diabetic Retinopathy
Answer: B) Retinal Detachment
Explanation: Retinal detachment is a surgical emergency characterized by
flashes of light, floaters, and a peripheral shadow.
9. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of Bronchiolitis in infants?
A) High fever and productive cough
B) Episodic wheezing and tachypnea
C) Stiff neck and drooling
D) Inspiratory "whoop"
Answer: B) Episodic wheezing and tachypnea
, Explanation: Bronchiolitis, often caused by RSV, involves inflammation of the
small airways leading to wheezing.
10. A patient presents with a "sandpaper" rash and a strawberry tongue. These findings are
associated with:
A) Measles
B) Scarlet Fever
C) Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease
D) Kawasaki Disease
Answer: B) Scarlet Fever
Explanation: Scarlet fever occurs as a result of exotoxin production from a
Streptococcus pyogenes infection.
11. What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Legionella
Answer: B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: S. pneumoniae is the most frequent bacterial cause of CAP across
most age groups.
12. In a patient with Open-Angle Glaucoma, what is the primary goal of treatment?
A) To restore lost vision
B) To lower intraocular pressure (IOP)
C) To prevent cataracts
D) To treat underlying infection
Answer: B) To lower intraocular pressure (IOP)
Explanation: Lowering IOP is the only proven method to slow the progression of
optic nerve damage in glaucoma.
13. A 2-year-old has recurrent Otitis Media. At what point should a referral to ENT be
considered?
A) 1 episode in 6 months
B) 3 episodes in 6 months or 4 in 12 months
C) Every time the child has a cold
D) Only if hearing loss is permanent
Answer: B) 3 episodes in 6 months or 4 in 12 months
5433 FNP II Midterm Exam Questions With Complete
Solutions| instant pdf download
Master your NURS 5433 (Family Nurse Practitioner II) Midterm with this comprehensive, high-yield study
resource. Specifically designed for University of Texas at Arlington (UTA) students, this guide
streamlines complex clinical guidelines into actionable knowledge. It focuses on diagnostic reasoning,
physical exam "red flags," and first-line pharmacological interventions for the FNP role.
This exam prep covers all key modules, including:
1. EENT: Glaucoma vs. Cataracts, Weber/Rinne testing, Strep A protocols, and Ocular emergencies.
2. Respiratory: Asthma GINA/NAEPP steps, COPD management, Pneumonia (CAP), and Pediatric
Croup/RSV.
3. Urology & Men’s Health: UTI (Cystitis) first-line meds, BPH, Testicular Torsion vs. Epididymitis, and
Wilms Tumor.
4. Dermatology: ABCDEs of Melanoma, Shingles (Varicella), Lyme Disease, and common viral exanthems.
5. Theory & Screening: Family Systems Theory (Triangles), USPSTF cancer screening
(Colon/Cervical/Lung), and Osteoporosis (DEXA) guidelines.
1. A 6-year-old presents with a "barking" cough and mild inspiratory stridor. An X-ray
reveals a "steeple sign." What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Bronchiolitis
C) Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)
D) Pertussis
Answer: C) Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)
Explanation: The steeple sign indicates subglottic narrowing characteristic of
Croup, typically caused by parainfluenza virus.
2. A patient with persistent Blepharitis has not responded to warm compresses and lid
scrubs. Which oral antibiotic is commonly used for refractory cases?
, A) Amoxicillin
B) Doxycycline
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Nitrofurantoin
Answer: B) Doxycycline
Explanation: Low-dose tetracyclines like Doxycycline are used for their anti-
inflammatory properties in chronic blepharitis and rosacea.
3. Which physical exam finding is most suggestive of a cataract?
A) Increased intraocular pressure
B) Neovascularization of the retina
C) Absent or diminished red reflex
D) Peripheral vision loss
Answer: C) Absent or diminished red reflex
Explanation: Opacification of the lens blocks the light, resulting in a dull or
absent red reflex during fundoscopy.
4. A 4-year-old presents with a painless, firm abdominal mass that does not cross the
midline. What is the priority differential?
A) Neuroblastoma
B) Wilms Tumor
C) Intussusception
D) Pyloric Stenosis
Answer: B) Wilms Tumor
Explanation: Wilms Tumor (nephroblastoma) typically presents as a smooth, firm,
unilateral mass in children.
5. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for a child with Group A Beta-Hemolytic
Streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis?
A) Azithromycin
B) Penicillin V or Amoxicillin
C) Cephalexin
D) Levofloxacin
Answer: B) Penicillin V or Amoxicillin
Explanation: Penicillins remain the gold standard for GABHS due to narrow
spectrum and efficacy in preventing rheumatic fever.
,6. A patient presents with acute epistaxis. After ensuring the airway is clear, what is the
next immediate step?
A) Apply a topical vasoconstrictor
B) Cauterize with silver nitrate
C) Apply direct pressure for 10-15 minutes while leaning forward
D) Pack the nose with nasal tampons
Answer: C) Apply direct pressure for 10-15 minutes while leaning forward
Explanation: Initial management of nosebleeds involves firm compression of the
nasal alae to allow clot formation.
7. Which diagnostic tool is considered the "gold standard" for confirming Vesicoureteral
Reflux (VUR)?
A) Renal Ultrasound
B) Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG)
C) CT Urogram
D) Urinalysis
Answer: B) Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG)
Explanation: VCUG allows for the visualization of urine flowing backward from
the bladder into the ureters.
8. A patient complains of sudden onset of "curtain closing" over their vision and floaters.
This is a classic sign of:
A) Macular Degeneration
B) Retinal Detachment
C) Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
D) Diabetic Retinopathy
Answer: B) Retinal Detachment
Explanation: Retinal detachment is a surgical emergency characterized by
flashes of light, floaters, and a peripheral shadow.
9. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of Bronchiolitis in infants?
A) High fever and productive cough
B) Episodic wheezing and tachypnea
C) Stiff neck and drooling
D) Inspiratory "whoop"
Answer: B) Episodic wheezing and tachypnea
, Explanation: Bronchiolitis, often caused by RSV, involves inflammation of the
small airways leading to wheezing.
10. A patient presents with a "sandpaper" rash and a strawberry tongue. These findings are
associated with:
A) Measles
B) Scarlet Fever
C) Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease
D) Kawasaki Disease
Answer: B) Scarlet Fever
Explanation: Scarlet fever occurs as a result of exotoxin production from a
Streptococcus pyogenes infection.
11. What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Legionella
Answer: B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation: S. pneumoniae is the most frequent bacterial cause of CAP across
most age groups.
12. In a patient with Open-Angle Glaucoma, what is the primary goal of treatment?
A) To restore lost vision
B) To lower intraocular pressure (IOP)
C) To prevent cataracts
D) To treat underlying infection
Answer: B) To lower intraocular pressure (IOP)
Explanation: Lowering IOP is the only proven method to slow the progression of
optic nerve damage in glaucoma.
13. A 2-year-old has recurrent Otitis Media. At what point should a referral to ENT be
considered?
A) 1 episode in 6 months
B) 3 episodes in 6 months or 4 in 12 months
C) Every time the child has a cold
D) Only if hearing loss is permanent
Answer: B) 3 episodes in 6 months or 4 in 12 months
