APEA WOMEN'S HEALTH EXAM: (LATEST 2026/2027 UPDATE)
WITH CORRET/ACCURATE ANSWERS
A female patient complains of dysuria
with vaginal discharge. How should she be
managed? - ANSWERPerform an
abdominal exam,
urinalysis, and
pelvic exam
Three of the following interventions are
appropriately used to prevent
osteoporosis after menopause. Which one
is not? - ANSWEREstrogen
replacement
therapy
The clinical syndrome resulting from
replacement of normal vaginal flora with
anaerobic bacteria is: - ANSWERbacterial
vaginosis.
A 30-year-old woman presents with
complaints of abnormal uterine bleeding.
,If the patient has leiomyomas, the NP will
likely find which of the following when
performing the bimanual exam? - ANSWERTenderness with
uterine mobility
Which of the following is NOT a
manifestation seen in women with
polycystic ovarian syndrome? - ANSWERPelvic pain
A 25-year-old man presents to be tested
for STDs. He reports that his girlfriend
recently tested positive for Chlamydia.
They both report no other partners and
have been in a monogamous relationship
for the past 6 months and they have had
unprotected vaginal intercourse. The
patient is tested for STDs and
prophylactically treated for Chlamydia.
Upon return of the lab reports, the patient
is not positive for Chlamydia. In this
scenario, which of the following
statements is most likely? - ANSWERIt is possible that
the woman has
been an
, asymptomatic
carrier of
Chlamydia during
the relationship.
A female should be told to take her oral
contraceptive pill (ocp) at bedtime if she
experiences: - ANSWERnausea.
Which of the following statements is true
of vulvovaginal candidiasis? - ANSWERVaginal pH is
typically normal
(4-4.5) in the
presence of
Candida infection.
When considering treatment for a 20-year-
old nonpregnant woman with bacterial
vaginosis, the nurse practitioner knows
that: - ANSWERoral or vaginal
metronidazole
and clindamycin
have similar
efficacy.
WITH CORRET/ACCURATE ANSWERS
A female patient complains of dysuria
with vaginal discharge. How should she be
managed? - ANSWERPerform an
abdominal exam,
urinalysis, and
pelvic exam
Three of the following interventions are
appropriately used to prevent
osteoporosis after menopause. Which one
is not? - ANSWEREstrogen
replacement
therapy
The clinical syndrome resulting from
replacement of normal vaginal flora with
anaerobic bacteria is: - ANSWERbacterial
vaginosis.
A 30-year-old woman presents with
complaints of abnormal uterine bleeding.
,If the patient has leiomyomas, the NP will
likely find which of the following when
performing the bimanual exam? - ANSWERTenderness with
uterine mobility
Which of the following is NOT a
manifestation seen in women with
polycystic ovarian syndrome? - ANSWERPelvic pain
A 25-year-old man presents to be tested
for STDs. He reports that his girlfriend
recently tested positive for Chlamydia.
They both report no other partners and
have been in a monogamous relationship
for the past 6 months and they have had
unprotected vaginal intercourse. The
patient is tested for STDs and
prophylactically treated for Chlamydia.
Upon return of the lab reports, the patient
is not positive for Chlamydia. In this
scenario, which of the following
statements is most likely? - ANSWERIt is possible that
the woman has
been an
, asymptomatic
carrier of
Chlamydia during
the relationship.
A female should be told to take her oral
contraceptive pill (ocp) at bedtime if she
experiences: - ANSWERnausea.
Which of the following statements is true
of vulvovaginal candidiasis? - ANSWERVaginal pH is
typically normal
(4-4.5) in the
presence of
Candida infection.
When considering treatment for a 20-year-
old nonpregnant woman with bacterial
vaginosis, the nurse practitioner knows
that: - ANSWERoral or vaginal
metronidazole
and clindamycin
have similar
efficacy.
