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APEA Predictor Exam 2025–2026 –
Complete Practice Questions and
Verified Answer Guide
A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat
and low-grade fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks.
She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite.
The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is
the LEAST appropriate intervention?
Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae Obtain a
CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test.
Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase -
Correct Answer- Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs
and amylase
Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection
caused by the Epstein-Bar virus. Common is people 15-24
years of age. Common signs and symptoms following
1
,2
incubation period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills,
malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar exudates and
lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region.
Splenomegaly can be present. A maculopapular or
occasionally a petechial rash occurs in less than 15% of
patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the Monospot.
In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually
detected in the CBC
A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency
and burning on urination for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals
bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of
urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for
7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose - Correct
Answer- . trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim,
Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
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Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is
usually n appropriate medication to treat urinary tract
infections in most patients. In the case of community
resistance to TMPS >20%^, another medication should be
substituted. In men, the appropriate length of time is 7 10
days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated
UTI
Which agent is most effective for the treatment of
nodulocystic acne?
Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
Retinoic acid (Retin A)
Topical tetracycline
Isotretinoin - Correct Answer- Isotretinoin
Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent
indicated for treatment with severe inflammatory acne.
Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood by the
patient. A woman of childbearing age must use an effective
method of contraception because isotretinoin is 1 There are
many restrictions in prescribing this medication because of
the teratogenic effects is given during pregnancy.
Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.
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APEA Predictor Exam 2025–2026 –
Complete Practice Questions and
Verified Answer Guide
A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat
and low-grade fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks.
She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite.
The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is
the LEAST appropriate intervention?
Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae Obtain a
CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test.
Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase -
Correct Answer- Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs
and amylase
Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection
caused by the Epstein-Bar virus. Common is people 15-24
years of age. Common signs and symptoms following
1
,2
incubation period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills,
malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar exudates and
lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region.
Splenomegaly can be present. A maculopapular or
occasionally a petechial rash occurs in less than 15% of
patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the Monospot.
In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually
detected in the CBC
A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency
and burning on urination for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals
bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of
urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for
7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose - Correct
Answer- . trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim,
Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
2
, 3
Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is
usually n appropriate medication to treat urinary tract
infections in most patients. In the case of community
resistance to TMPS >20%^, another medication should be
substituted. In men, the appropriate length of time is 7 10
days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated
UTI
Which agent is most effective for the treatment of
nodulocystic acne?
Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
Retinoic acid (Retin A)
Topical tetracycline
Isotretinoin - Correct Answer- Isotretinoin
Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent
indicated for treatment with severe inflammatory acne.
Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood by the
patient. A woman of childbearing age must use an effective
method of contraception because isotretinoin is 1 There are
many restrictions in prescribing this medication because of
the teratogenic effects is given during pregnancy.
Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.
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