1
NR293 EXAM 1 Actual Exam 2026/2027 Complete
Questions and Verified Answers with Detailed
Rationales Pharmacology for Nursing Practice
Chamberlain Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: NR293 Exam 1
Q1: Which phase of pharmacokinetics describes the process by which a drug moves from the site
of administration into the bloodstream?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Absorption [CORRECT]
D. Excretion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Absorption is the pharmacokinetic phase that involves the movement of a drug from
its site of administration (such as oral, intramuscular, or subcutaneous) across biological
membranes into the systemic circulation where it can be distributed to target tissues.
Q2: A patient is prescribed a medication that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the
liver. Which route of administration would be most appropriate to avoid this effect?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Subcutaneous
D. Both B and C [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: First-pass metabolism occurs when a drug absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
travels via the portal vein to the liver before entering systemic circulation. Intravenous and
subcutaneous routes bypass the portal circulation and liver first-pass effect, delivering drug
directly to systemic circulation.
Q3: A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. Approximately how long will it take for 87.5% of the drug
to be eliminated from the body?
A. 6 hours
,2
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours [CORRECT]
D. 24 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After one half-life (6 hours), 50% remains; after two half-lives (12 hours), 25%
remains; after three half-lives (18 hours), 12.5% remains, meaning 87.5% has been eliminated.
This follows the principle that approximately 94% elimination occurs after 4-5 half-lives.
Q4: Which factor would most likely increase the distribution of a lipid-soluble drug to tissues?
A. Decreased blood flow to tissues
B. Increased protein binding in plasma
C. Increased tissue perfusion and high lipid content in tissues [CORRECT]
D. Decreased membrane permeability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Distribution of lipid-soluble drugs is enhanced by increased blood flow (tissue
perfusion) which delivers drug to tissues, and high lipid content in tissues which attracts lipid-
soluble drugs. These factors facilitate movement from blood into tissue compartments.
Q5: A patient with liver cirrhosis is prescribed a drug that is primarily metabolized by hepatic
enzymes. Which adjustment should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increased dosage due to enhanced metabolism
B. Decreased dosage due to reduced metabolism [CORRECT]
C. No change in dosage
D. Switch to topical administration only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Liver cirrhosis reduces the functional capacity of hepatic enzymes responsible for
drug metabolism. This leads to decreased metabolism, prolonged drug action, and potential
toxicity, necessitating dosage reduction for drugs metabolized by the liver.
Q6: The primary organ responsible for drug excretion is the:
A. Liver
B. Kidney [CORRECT]
, 3
C. Lung
D. Skin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The kidneys are the primary organ for drug excretion, filtering drugs and their
metabolites from blood into urine. While the liver metabolizes drugs, the kidney eliminates
water-soluble metabolites and unchanged drugs from the body.
Q7: A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a biological response is called a(n):
A. Antagonist
B. Agonist [CORRECT]
C. Inverse agonist
D. Competitive inhibitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it, producing a biological
response similar to the endogenous substance. This contrasts with antagonists which bind but do
not activate receptors, thereby blocking agonist action.
Q8: Which term describes the concentration of a drug required to produce 50% of the maximum
possible response?
A. Efficacy
B. Potency
C. EC50 [CORRECT]
D. Therapeutic index
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: EC50 (effective concentration 50) is the concentration of a drug that produces 50% of
the maximum response. It is a measure of drug potency, with lower EC50 values indicating
greater potency.
Q9: A patient is taking warfarin and phenobarbital. The phenobarbital induces hepatic enzymes,
causing decreased warfarin effect. This is an example of:
A. Pharmacodynamic antagonism
B. Pharmacokinetic induction [CORRECT]
C. Additive effect
NR293 EXAM 1 Actual Exam 2026/2027 Complete
Questions and Verified Answers with Detailed
Rationales Pharmacology for Nursing Practice
Chamberlain Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: NR293 Exam 1
Q1: Which phase of pharmacokinetics describes the process by which a drug moves from the site
of administration into the bloodstream?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Absorption [CORRECT]
D. Excretion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Absorption is the pharmacokinetic phase that involves the movement of a drug from
its site of administration (such as oral, intramuscular, or subcutaneous) across biological
membranes into the systemic circulation where it can be distributed to target tissues.
Q2: A patient is prescribed a medication that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the
liver. Which route of administration would be most appropriate to avoid this effect?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Subcutaneous
D. Both B and C [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: First-pass metabolism occurs when a drug absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
travels via the portal vein to the liver before entering systemic circulation. Intravenous and
subcutaneous routes bypass the portal circulation and liver first-pass effect, delivering drug
directly to systemic circulation.
Q3: A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. Approximately how long will it take for 87.5% of the drug
to be eliminated from the body?
A. 6 hours
,2
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours [CORRECT]
D. 24 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After one half-life (6 hours), 50% remains; after two half-lives (12 hours), 25%
remains; after three half-lives (18 hours), 12.5% remains, meaning 87.5% has been eliminated.
This follows the principle that approximately 94% elimination occurs after 4-5 half-lives.
Q4: Which factor would most likely increase the distribution of a lipid-soluble drug to tissues?
A. Decreased blood flow to tissues
B. Increased protein binding in plasma
C. Increased tissue perfusion and high lipid content in tissues [CORRECT]
D. Decreased membrane permeability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Distribution of lipid-soluble drugs is enhanced by increased blood flow (tissue
perfusion) which delivers drug to tissues, and high lipid content in tissues which attracts lipid-
soluble drugs. These factors facilitate movement from blood into tissue compartments.
Q5: A patient with liver cirrhosis is prescribed a drug that is primarily metabolized by hepatic
enzymes. Which adjustment should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increased dosage due to enhanced metabolism
B. Decreased dosage due to reduced metabolism [CORRECT]
C. No change in dosage
D. Switch to topical administration only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Liver cirrhosis reduces the functional capacity of hepatic enzymes responsible for
drug metabolism. This leads to decreased metabolism, prolonged drug action, and potential
toxicity, necessitating dosage reduction for drugs metabolized by the liver.
Q6: The primary organ responsible for drug excretion is the:
A. Liver
B. Kidney [CORRECT]
, 3
C. Lung
D. Skin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The kidneys are the primary organ for drug excretion, filtering drugs and their
metabolites from blood into urine. While the liver metabolizes drugs, the kidney eliminates
water-soluble metabolites and unchanged drugs from the body.
Q7: A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a biological response is called a(n):
A. Antagonist
B. Agonist [CORRECT]
C. Inverse agonist
D. Competitive inhibitor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it, producing a biological
response similar to the endogenous substance. This contrasts with antagonists which bind but do
not activate receptors, thereby blocking agonist action.
Q8: Which term describes the concentration of a drug required to produce 50% of the maximum
possible response?
A. Efficacy
B. Potency
C. EC50 [CORRECT]
D. Therapeutic index
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: EC50 (effective concentration 50) is the concentration of a drug that produces 50% of
the maximum response. It is a measure of drug potency, with lower EC50 values indicating
greater potency.
Q9: A patient is taking warfarin and phenobarbital. The phenobarbital induces hepatic enzymes,
causing decreased warfarin effect. This is an example of:
A. Pharmacodynamic antagonism
B. Pharmacokinetic induction [CORRECT]
C. Additive effect
