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ABFM ITE Exam V4 (Latest Update 2026 / 2027) | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct

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ABFM ITE Exam V4 (Latest Update 2026 / 2027) | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct Question: A 56-year-old female with type 2 diabetes is hospitalized with acute epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that several of her diabetes medications were recently changed. Findings on physical examination and laboratory studies are consistent with acute pancreatitis. Which one of the following classes of medications is the most likely cause? A) Biguanides B) GLP-1 receptor agonists C) Insulin D) SGLT2 inhibitors Answer: B GLP-1 receptor agonists should be discontinued in patients suspected to have pancreatitis. Additionally, therapy with GLP-1 receptor agonists should not be restarted once the pancreatitis has resolved. Although pancreatitis has been reported in clinical trials, the causality between GLP-1 receptor agonists and pancreatitis has not been established. Other medication classes such as DPP-4 inhibitors can also cause pancreatitis. Biguanides, insulin, and SGLT2 inhibitors do not cause pancreatitis (SOR C). Question: 1. Dx criteria for schizophrenia? 2. What are negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia? 3. What are positive symptoms associated with schizophrenia? 4. Is depression a negative or positive sx associated with schizophrenia? Answer: 1. The diagnosis of schizophrenia requires at least ≥1 positive and 1 negative sx or disorganized behavior be present for 6 months and be severe for at least 1 month. 2. Negative sx: alogia (reduced number of words spoken) blunted affect avolition (a decrease in motivated, self-initiated, purposeful activities), asociality anhedonia. 3. Positive sx:

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ABFM ITE Exam V4 (Latest Update
) | Questions & Answers
| Grade A | 100% Correct


Question:
A 56-year-old female with type 2 diabetes is hospitalized with acute epigastric
pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that several of her diabetes
medications were recently changed. Findings on physical examination and
laboratory studies are consistent with acute pancreatitis.


Which one of the following classes of medications is the most likely cause?


A) Biguanides
B) GLP-1 receptor agonists
C) Insulin
D) SGLT2 inhibitors
Answer: B


GLP-1 receptor agonists should be discontinued in patients suspected to have
pancreatitis. Additionally, therapy with GLP-1 receptor agonists should not be
restarted once the pancreatitis has resolved. Although pancreatitis has been
reported in clinical trials, the causality between GLP-1 receptor agonists and

,pancreatitis has not been established. Other medication classes such as DPP-
4 inhibitors can also cause pancreatitis. Biguanides, insulin, and SGLT2
inhibitors do not cause pancreatitis (SOR C).




Question:
1. Dx criteria for schizophrenia?


2. What are negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia?
3. What are positive symptoms associated with schizophrenia?
4. Is depression a negative or positive sx associated with schizophrenia?
Answer:
1. The diagnosis of schizophrenia requires at least ≥1 positive and 1 negative sx
or disorganized behavior be present for 6 months and be severe for at least 1
month.


2. Negative sx:
alogia (reduced number of words spoken)
blunted affect
avolition (a decrease in motivated, self-initiated, purposeful activities),
asociality
anhedonia.


3. Positive sx:

,delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech.


4. Depression may be present in schizophrenia but is NOT a positive nor
negative symptom.




Question:
1. What is jersey finger?
2. What finger is MC involved?
3. How to pts get this type of injury?
4. NBS in mgnt?


5. What is mallet finger? Tx of mallet finger?
Answer: E
1. Dx = Jersey finger = avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP)
tendon injury
2. MC finger involved = the ring finger
3. The injury occurs due to forced hyperextension of an actively flexed digit,
often in collision sports that involve tackling when a finger catches on an
opponent's clothing.


Pts may hold the affected finger in extension relative to the other digits when
the hand is at rest.
**Key PE finding = the inability to flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP)
joint.**

, 4. Tx = Surgical repair for a ruptured FDP tendon, w/a worsening prognosis
when tx is delayed.


Although pts with jersey finger often require extended hand rehabilitation
after surgery, a referral to occupational therapy prior to expedited surgical
repair would delay the definitive treatment and likely result in a worse
outcome.


Injecting a corticosteroid into a ruptured FDP tendon sheath would not only
cause a delay in presentation to a hand surgeon, but also by potentially
increasing the perioperative risk of infection and/or poor tissue healing
caused by the local corticosteroid.


Corticosteroid injection into the flexor tendon sheath often benefits pts with
stenosing tenosynovitis of the flexor tendon AKA trigger finger.


Temporary immobilization in partial flexion followed by buddy taping = TOC
for certain injuries to the proximal interphalangeal volar plate but not for FDP
tendon injuries.


5. mallet finger = an extensor tendon avulsion at the DIP joint so you have
forced flexion of an extended DIP joint "pt can't actively extend the distal
phalanx"
Full-time splint/immobilization of the DIP J in extension for 6-8 weeks →
TOC for mallet finger
RESET the clock if pt takes splint off within this time period
mallet finger = an extensor tendon avulsion at the DIP joint

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Subido en
25 de febrero de 2026
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239
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