Ati Pn Exit Exam

ATI PN EXIT EXAM 1. is the process of evaluating human resource needs and then recruiting, selecting, developing, motivating, evaluating, compensating, and scheduling employees to achieve organizational goals. A. Staffing B. Performance evaluation and response C. Human resource management D. Job analysis 2. The ultimate resource of a firm is its: A. business plan. B. marketing mix. C. capital budget. D. employees. 3. One of the key functions of human resource management is: A. departmentalizing. B. recruiting. C. budgeting. D. auditing. 4. Today, human resource management has become so important that in many firms it has become: A. a function performed by managers in all areas of the organization. B. the sole responsibility of the firm's legal staff. C. a function handled only by specialists in the human resource department. D. a function handled only by the firm's top management. 5. workers have a higher skill level than their current job requires. A. Structurally unemployed B. Frictionally unemployed C. Contingent D. Underemployed 6. The changes in the American business system that have had the most dramatic impact on the workings of the free enterprise system are the changes in: A. the labor force. B. technology. C. financial regulations. D. consumer behavior. 7. In coming years, high tech growth areas such as computers, biotechnology, and robots are likely to experience a: A. surplus of labor. B. significant decline in market demand, leading to a stagnant labor market. C. shortage of skilled labor. D. stable equilibrium in the labor market. 8. Which of the following statements best describes the current view of the role of human resource management within a firm? A. human resource management is largely a clerical function that involves keeping records, processing payroll, and making sure that federal regulations are met B. human resource management has become so complex that only highly trained human resource specialists should make human resource decisions C. human resource management functions have become so important that in many firms all managers now perform them D. changes in technology have largely done away with the need for a separate human resource department 9. Which of the following is a challenge that is facing the human resource managers of today? A. too many unemployed scientists and computer engineers B. an increasing number of Gen Yers in the workforce C. a shift in employee attitudes toward work D. an increased demand for uniformity in benefits offered to employees 10. Which of the following statements about human resource management opportunities and challenges is most accurate? A. the age composition of the labor force is becoming younger B. workers are becoming less loyal to their firms, resulting in higher turnover C. workers are now demanding that more of their compensation be in wages and salaries and less in fringe benefits D. the number of workers who have received training in high tech fields far exceeds the number of job openings in these areas 11. Which of the following statements about human resource management opportunities and challenges is most accurate? A. Shifts in the economy have led to a huge pool of skilled and unskilled workers from declining industries that are either unemployed or are underemployed. B. Workers now would rather have more income rather than more leisure. Therefore, many employees now want to work more than 40 hours per week. C. So many people have sought training in high tech areas such as robotics and computers that there is likely to be a huge surplus of labor in high tech industries. D. Workers now desire more stability and predictability in their careers, so they now give their employers more loyalty and expect more loyalty from their employers in return. 12. When Carl Remmick lost his job as a highly skilled craftsman at a metal working shop, he searched for a good job for several months before finally accepting a position as a maintenance worker at a local community college. He is happy to have a job, but frustrated by the fact that he had to settle for a job that did not take full advantage of his skills. Carl is a(n): A. structurally unemployed worker. B. semi-employed worker. C. underemployed worker. D. quasi-employed worker. 13. Frank Lehman is a human resource manager at a major corporation. If Frank's company is like most firms today, which of the following statements about Frank's job is likely to be the most accurate? A. Most of Frank's time will be devoted to clerical duties such as processing payroll checks and keeping employee files updated. B. Frank's job will be simpler in the future than it was in the past, because the percentage of new workers entering the labor force who are poorly educated and unprepared for work is slowly but steadily declining. C. Government laws and regulations concerning hiring, worker safety, pay, and unionization will make Frank's work complex and challenging. D. Frank and his fellow human resource managers will be given complete responsibility for performing all human resource functions within the organization. 14. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964: A. gives all citizens over the age of 18 the right to vote regardless of race, religion, sex, or creed. B. prohibits firms from using employment testing as a means of selecting employees and determining which employees should be promoted. C. requires all firms with over 100 employees to have an affirmative action plan. D. prohibits discrimination based on race, religion, sex, creed, or national origin in matters such as hiring, firing, training, and compensation. 15. The was created by the Civil Rights Act of 1964, and has since become a formidable regulatory force in the administration of human resource management. A. National Labor Relations Board B. AFL-CIO C. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission D. Affirmative Action Transition Commission 16. Probably the most controversial program enforced by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission concerns: A. mandatory retirement. B. affirmative action. C. equal pay reporting. D. green card requirements for illegal aliens. 17. The Civil Rights Act of 1991: A. declared affirmative action plans unconstitutional. B. requires any firm with over 600 employees to file an annual report with the Department of Labor identifying the steps it has taken to eliminate discriminatory practices. C. allows victims of discrimination to seek punitive damages. D. is the first law to declare reverse discrimination illegal. 18. The protects individuals over the age of 40 from discrimination based on age with respect to issues such as hiring, promotions, job benefits, and assignments. A. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 B. Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1998 C. Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 D. Employee Rights and Responsibilities Act of 1983 19. Employers must verify that employment candidates are eligible to work in the U.S. as mandated by: A. Manpower Development and Training Act B. Civil Rights Act of 1991 C. Immigration Reform and Control Act D. Occupational Safety and Health Act 20. The Family and Medical Leave Act: A. provides paid leave for women who choose to stay home with newborn infants. B. provides unpaid leave of up to 12 weeks for males or females for the birth or adoption of infants, or in the case where it is necessary to care for an immediate family member who may be ill. C. provides unpaid leave of up to 6 weeks for couples (male or female) who have a new baby. D. was recently eliminated by the Supreme Court due to an employment shortage. 21. An important U.S. government organization charged with setting human resource management guidelines is: A. the EEOC (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission). B. the OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration). C. the WPA (Work Progress Administration). D. the MPDA (Manpower Development Administration). 22. According to U.S. business law, accommodation means: A. treating all employees fairly. B. making certain that if one employee gets medical leave during a fiscal year, that all other employees get an equal amount of leave during the year. C. careful consideration before firing someone and hiring two younger persons to replace him/her. D. providing services for employees according to their special needs. 23. Recently, businesses have experienced debate over , the practice of discriminating against a dominant or majority group of persons. This situation occurs when businesses must adhere to employment laws that were designed to correct previous discrimination against minority groups. A. affirmative control B. affirmative action C. forward discrimination D. reverse discrimination 24. The Equal Employment Opportunity Act gave the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission the authority to: A. prevent firms from firing workers based on union affiliation. B. issue guidelines for employer conduct in administering equal employment opportunity programs. C. set salary schedules for protected groups. D. require firms to pay women and minority workers more than white males for the same work. 25. If your company is selling its products or services to the U.S. government, you should study Human Resource law that pertains to: A. the Better Business Bureau in your local area of operation. B. the limits that the EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) places on the pollutants you can emit in your foreign factories. C. the total number of employees you can hire. D. nondiscrimination and affirmative action laws when doing business with the federal government. 26. Which of the following statements about how current HR law views disabilities is accurate? A. The law varies depending upon how the employee acquired the disability. B. Disabilities include diseases such as epilepsy, cancer, and diabetes. C. Disabilities refer to physical but not mental disorders. D. Any disorder that does not require the employee to adapt the work environment to accommodate the employee. 27. One of the most important responsibilities for professionals in the human resources field is: A. understanding the ethical perspective of each employee. B. filing employee medical claims. C. to always “right past wrongs.” D. staying current with employment-related legislation. 28. In the Legal Briefcase box titled, “The Million Woman Suit Against Walmart,” women sued Walmart because of: A. Theft in the giant retailer’s parking lots. B. Hiring practices that include pay inequality and unfair promotion opportunities. C. Hiring practices that include age discrimination and back pay worth $1 million. D. Hiring practices that permit men to wear khaki shorts and polo shirts, but force women to wear long business casual pants and long-sleeve shirts. 29. Ben, a 44-year middle manager at a well-known advertising firm, just lost his job. The company downsized due to a significant loss of clients during the last recession. Although Ben’s work was considered exemplary in many ways, and his staff had won awards with their creative work, the company decided to let Ben go instead of another middle manager who was also a minority. In a business setting, we call this occurrence . A. reverse discrimination B. forward discrimination C. affirmative action D. affirmative control 30. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of the impact the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA) has had on businesses? A. ADA has had no real impact, since most businesses have always been sensitive to the needs of disabled workers. B. Most firms have found that the structural changes needed to comply with ADA requirements have been very difficult and expensive to implement. C. Most firms are finding that the cultural changes required by ADA are more difficult to implement than the structural changes. D. Businesses have found that even with the changes required by ADA, disabled workers are simply not capable of handling most types of jobs. 31. Minnie A. Dent is completing her thirtieth year as a bus driver. Her company recently told her that she would be required to retire within the next two years because she had reached the age limit for mandatory retirement. Minnie wants to fight this ruling based on a claim of age discrimination. Which of the following statements about this case is most accurate: According to the: A. Employment Rights and Responsibilities Act, Minnie has every right to keep her job as long as she has not been convicted of a moving traffic violation while performing her job. B. Affirmative Action Enforcement Act, Minnie has no right to keep her job, because she is not one of the groups that qualify for special protection. C. Fair Labor Standards Act, Minnie may be able to keep her job, but the company can require her to pass an annual vision and hearing exam as a condition of continued employment. D. Age Discrimination in Employment Act, Minnie can be required to retire at a certain age, because she is in an occupation where evidence exists that ability to perform the job diminishes significantly with age. 32. Laura Benitez was hired as a management trainee by Simulex Corporation through a special program designed to “right past wrongs” by giving females and minorities greater opportunities for employment and advancement. The program is enforced by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. Laura was hired through a(n) program. A. discrimination alleviation B. cultural diversity C. positive response D. affirmative action 33. During her annual review, Rhonda admitted to her supervisor that she is more productive in a quieter environment. The openness of her office setting and the recent increase in staff that came to her for training made it difficult for Rhonda to process as many insurance claims in one day as she had accomplished in the past. The supervisor agreed to move Rhonda’s desk to the back of the office, and create a barrier with plants. The supervisor would take a more active role in training new employees, so they would not be coming to Rhonda with questions. In HR, we refer to this action as creating . A. accommodations B. barriers to entry C. job enlargement D. consideration 34. In 2008, Congress passed the Americans with Disabilities Amendments Act. What was the scope of the changes? A. This law placed added emphasis on the hiring of employees with “visible” disabilities. B. This law decreased the fine for businesses that do not employ disabled persons but followed through with a tax break for businesses who hire disabled citizens. C. The amendment widened the scope of what types of things are covered under the disabilities umbrella. D. In light of so many soldiers coming back from the war, the amendment re-focused disabilities to include only physical disabilities. 35. As new parents, Sean and Lindsey applied for family medical leave to care for their new infant son. According to U.S. law, Sean and Lindsey: A. are not paid during the 12-week period that each elects to take. B. are each paid as a half-time employee during the 12-week leave period. C. must each take the full amount of family medical leave time. D. must both be employed in order to qualify for any family medical leave time. 36. The first step in the human resources planning process is to: A. prepare a forecast of human resource needs. B. assess future labor demand. C. prepare job specifications for each position within the organization. D. prepare a human resource inventory. 37. The last step of the human resource planning system is to: A. publish a human resource inventory listing the names, ages, job titles, skills, and other pertinent information for all employees in the organization. B. develop an affirmative action statement to explain how the company will meet federal government guidelines on hiring and promotions. C. hold a general meeting to explain the impact of the plan to employees. D. establish a strategic plan for recruiting, selecting, training, appraising and scheduling the labor force. 38. A(n) is prepared as part of the human resource planning process, and indicates the characteristics and qualifications of the organization's labor force, thus helping the firm determine whether its employees are technically up-to-date and adequately trained. A. job analysis B. performance appraisal C. human resource inventory D. organization chart 39. A is a two-part process. One part explains what an employee would actually do at various jobs. A. job analysis B. performance appraisal C. job assessment D. job title review 40. A job analysis results in two written statements. They are: A. the human resource inventories and the affirmative action statement. B. the labor supply assessment and the labor demand assessment. C. the job description and the job specification. D. the job title review and the performance appraisal. 41. A is a statement that identifies the minimum qualifications required of a worker in order to perform a specific job. A. job description B. performance criteria review C. human resource inventory D. job specification 42. A job is a statement that identifies the objectives of a job, the type of work to be done, the responsibilities and duties that are associated with the job, the working conditions, and the relationship of the job to other functions. A. specification B. description C. evaluation D. analysis 43. After preparing a job analysis, the next step in the human resource planning process is to: A. develop a human resource inventory. B. assess future human resource demand. C. develop a human resources budget. D. establish a strategic plan. 44. The , which is developed from the previous four steps of the human resource planning process, addresses how the firm will accomplish a wide array of human resource functions such as recruiting, selecting, training and developing, appraising, compensating, and scheduling its employees. A. strategic plan B. tactical plan C. job specification D. Gantt chart 45. A human resource inventory is designed to reveal whether: A. all workers are paid a fair wage. B. the firm has enough land and capital to use with its labor. C. the firm’s labor force is technically up-to-date and well trained. D. worker morale is high or low. 46. As part of the HR planning process, the manager begins by assessing the current labor situation at his/her company. Essentially, this means: A. preparing job analyses. B. preparing job descriptions. C. preparing job specifications. D. taking an inventory of current employees and their capabilities. 47. As Connor scanned the employment opportunities on the website of a well-known online recruiting company, he speculated that he might not qualify for some of the jobs. Connor was concerned that his educational credentials and skills might not be compatible with the for many of today’s available jobs. A. job analyses B. job description C. job specifications D. job data base 48. Which of the following is an essential element of a job description? A. the minimum educational qualifications workers must have to fill the position B. working conditions and responsibilities C. the skills required to hold the position D. the age of the person that should hold the job 49. Which of the following statements identifies a key difference between a job description and a job specification? A. A job description is concerned with the short-run objectives of a job, but a job specification is concerned with the job's long-run objectives. B. A job description is based on a human resource inventory, while a job specification is the result of a performance appraisal. C. A job description is a statement about the job, while a job specification is a statement about the person who does the job. D. A job description is a brief summary of what a job involves, while a job specification is a detailed and technically complete statement of what a job involves. 50. When creating a job description, the HR manager may include: A. the minimum qualifications for the position B. the number of unpaid leave days the employee can take while at this position C. the specific responsibilities of the job D. a prediction of the number of similar positions that the company will need during the next two to five years 51. The overall purpose of the five step human resource planning process is to: A. protect the company from lawsuits from employees who claim discrimination. B. develop a workforce that is better educated than the workforce of competitor firms. C. eliminate needless job specifications. D. determine the number and types of employees needed by the firm. 52. Steve is gathering information about the names, ages, education, specialized skills, and capabilities of all of his firm's employees. The information Steve is acquiring suggests he is working on a: A. performance evaluation. B. human resource inventory. C. job description. D. Gantt chart. 53. Mario’s business was growing at a steady rate, but he knew he could do better! In order to capture more business, he would have to hire a few more sales professionals to sell into new markets. As he pondered his staffing needs, his sister who worked in HR informed him that he needed to do a job analysis before hiring. Which of the following would be a logical part of a job analysis for a sales position? A. Asking the current sales reps to create a log of their daily and weekly activities B. Asking the HR specialist to create an online application for the position(s) C. Training new recruits D. Determining how many sales reps other companies typically have on staff 54. Hillary is a human resource manager with Golden Years Elder Care Services. The company is considering offering some new services, and she wants to know how many current employees have certain types of skills and training to adequately perform the new services. A document that would help Hillary answer this question is the firm's: A. strategic plan. B. human resource inventory. C. organization chart. D. social audit. 55. Kandew Electronics requires all employees who work as research specialists in its electrical engineering department to have a minimum of a bachelor’s degree in electrical engineering (BSEE). This educational requirement would most likely be stated in the job for this position. A. analysis B. description C. designation D. specification 56. Ben Eisner is a HR manager at Claymont Communications. Which of the following tasks would Ben perform as a part of the human resource planning process? A. forecast future human resource requirements for his company B. appraise the performance of individual workers at his company C. establish the budget for the human resource department D. interview potential workers 57. Markus believes that due to changing technology the minimum skill level that his company is requiring for computer intensive jobs should be increased to include knowledge and experience in higher level programming applications. These new requirements would be reflected in for various jobs at his company. A. the job description B. the job specification C. the human resource inventory D. the job application 58. Ben is a project manager for a large construction company. Each day his job requires him to prepare detailed reports of the progress of current projects assigned to him. Since this responsibility is something that Ben does on a regular basis, the HR professional for his company would list it as part of the for Ben's project management position. A. job description B. job specification C. human resource inventory D. job application 59. By doing a quick, one-minute search, an HR specialist determined who in her company knew programming language C++. The specialist used the company's database to retrieve the information, however, this information should also be part of the HR planning process, as found in . A. specific job descriptions B. the future labor supply assessment C. the human resource inventory D. the company training portfolio 60. is the set of activities for obtaining the right number of people at the right time in order to select those who best meet the needs of the organization. A. Pre-selection B. Recruitment C. Networking D. Preemptive hiring 61. CareerBuilder and the Monster are examples of: A. web browsers. B. career interest surveys. C. Internet services firms can use to recruit employees. D. magazines that list job opportunities by skill requirements and geographic location. 62. Promotions and transfers are sources available to human resource managers in their recruiting efforts. A. internal B. external C. passive D. redundant 63. Help wanted ads, public and private employment agencies, and college placement bureaus are all sources that human resource managers can use in the recruiting efforts. A. secondary B. passive C. back-up D. external 64. According to the Spotlight on Small Business box in Chapter 11, which of the following strategies can be used to attract qualified employees to work for a small business? A. test-drive an employee B. post job openings in the local supermarket C. hire permanent employees with the promise of health insurance as a benefit D. offer an initial high starting salary 65. Which of the following strategies is used by a human resource manager whose goal is to fill an open position from within the company? A. advertise the opportunity for a promotion to current employees B. seek the assistance of a public employment agencies C. send the job opening to M D. utilize the services of a private employment agency 66. Which of the following is an external recruitment source? A. college placement bureaus B. promotion of a current employee to a new position C. transferring an employee in from a different office D. recommendations of employees 67. Which of the following reasons makes the recruiting job more challenging? A. The current emphasis on scientific management requires very specific job specification. B. Some organizations have policies that demand promotions from within that limits the pool of candidates. C. Reverse discrimination is essential to be sure that the workforce is balanced. D. There are far too many qualified candidates for each position, increasing the required paperwork. 68. It is sometimes advantageous to hire from within because it . A. eliminates the need to meet affirmative action regulations B. ensures that the best qualified person gets the job C. is less costly, and helps maintain employee morale D. allows the firm to effectively use the "employment at will" strategy 69. Which of the following statements about recruiting is most accurate? A. It is important for a firm to recruit and hire people who are not only skilled but also fit in with the firm's culture and leadership style. B. Recruiting internally will almost always result in better qualified applicants than recruiting externally. C. Small firms generally have a strong advantage when it comes to recruiting. D. One advantage of using external sources when recruiting is that this approach tends to result in higher morale among the firm's existing employees. 70. According to the material in the Spotlight on Small Business box in Chapter 11, which of the following statements about recruiting workers for a small business is the most accurate? A. Small businesses generally find it easier to recruit qualified workers than do large firms. B. Specialized sites on the Internet provide an effective and relatively inexpensive way for small businesses to recruit workers. C. Small businesses should place one person in charge of selecting new hires and limit the total number of people involved in the process to no more than 3. D. Small businesses should avoid hiring their own customers, since doing so is likely to cause a conflict of interest. 71. Sally is a human resource manager with Weldun Cooking Supplies who needs to recruit sales professionals to fill several positions within her company. Sally is likely to rely on external recruiting sources if she: A. wants to eliminate the need to meet affirmative action regulations. B. believes that Weldun's current employees do not have the qualifications necessary to successfully fill the positions. C. places a great deal of importance on maintaining high morale for current workers. D. needs to keep the cost of her recruiting efforts to a minimum. 72. As a human resources professional for a large company, David is involved with the process. His goal is to find the right number of qualified people at the right time. He will screen a qualified pool of candidates and send these individuals forward to others in the firm who will make the final selection decision. A. recruiting B. human resource allocating C. organizing D. job orienteering 73. Andrew took a job with a company that strives to market several new consumer products each year. Prior to this position, he worked in a research lab at a university where he studied nanotechnology. He accepted the new position because the salary was significantly above what he previously made. Within a month's time at the new job, his manager began to have reservations about bringing him on board. Andrew seemed to prefer to work independently of others, and when he did interact with his new colleagues, he passed along subtle reminders of his extensive and superior academic credentials. From a recruitment standpoint, this situation serves as an indication of: A. the benefits of shaking things up a little at work. B. the challenges of trying to convince long-term employees that they need to retrain and continue their education. C. the benefit of external recruitment over internal recruitment, even though in the short-run, it may be the more costly approach for the company. D. the importance of finding talent that also fits well with the corporate culture. 74. When determining the human resources needs for a well-known engineering firm, the HR director realized that the company lacked a critical mass of engineers under the age of 30. The company could not afford to get caught short in this competitive business climate. An important recruitment strategy for the HR director’s department was to start attending college fairs as well as considering hiring interns. We define his recruitment efforts as developing relationships with . A. external sources B. internal sources C. median sources D. civilian sources 75. Charlie is the director for a small non-profit company that provides jobs for disabled Americans. One of his most time consuming responsibilities is finding companies that are willing to hire his company to perform tasks such as bulk mailings and other small jobs that his employees can do in a reasonable amount of time. He needs to recruit an outside sales representative who can dedicate time to meeting with other firms and selling the services of the non-profit operation. Under the circumstances that Charlie's non-profit is similar to a small business with a small amount of funds dedicated toward the sales position, which of the following strategies may be a suitable approach to finding a good sales person? A. Lure candidates with the promise of a promotion, but with no intention of carrying through. B. Find a qualified volunteer - you can do this easier in a bad economy. C. Partner with the local community college and test drive students who may want to intern with you. D. Take-out large ads in the local newspaper. 76. When managing your human resources, is the process of deciding who should be hired, under legal guidelines, to serve the best interests of the individual and the organization. A. interviewing B. applicant analysis C. performance appraisal D. selection 77. The first step in the selection process is: A. obtaining complete application forms. B. placing a help wanted ad. C. the initial interview. D. aptitude testing. 78. During the employee selection process, the screening interview is often conducted by: A. the current workers in the applicant’s department. B. a member of the human resources department staff. C. a selection committee consisting of managers from all departments within the organization. D. the company’s affirmative action officer. 79. One way firms have made the application process more efficient and effective is by: A. concentrating on internal sources of recruitment so that detailed information is already available. B. including more questions on the application form about family background and other characteristics that are not job-related. C. using an artificial intelligence program such as Workforce Acquisition™ to quickly assess qualifications and help the manager decide whether to request an interview with the applicant. D. offering small monetary rewards to existing employees who recommend new people that are ultimately made a job offer. 80. One of the main complaints made by critics of employment tests is that these tests: A. fail to take the interests and personalities of the test takers into account. B. cannot measure basic competencies. C. may discriminate against certain groups. D. take so long to conduct and evaluate that they slow down the selection process. 81. A is a check of a potential employee's work record, academic record, credit history, and recommendations. A. personality profile B. background investigation C. fidelity appraisal D. character review 82. As an important step in the human resource selection process, which of the following will expedite the process of conducting background investigations and promises to get suitable results? A. Hiring services such as LexisNexis to conduct criminal checks and driving records. B. Dedicating one human resource expert to making personal calls and doing all the background checks. C. Minimalizing the types of questions the company asks at this juncture. D. If there is a need to skip one of the selection process steps, most companies have found that this one can be eliminated. 83. According to the American with Disabilities Act, which of the following is not an appropriate screening tool? A. job related knowledge tests B. personality tests C. background investigations D. medical exams 84. workers do not have the expectation of regular, full-time employment. A. Contingent B. Apprenticed C. Indentured D. Underemployed 85. Part-time workers, temporary workers, and seasonal workers are defined by the HR department as . A. Contingent B. Intermediate C. Deliberate D. Incompatible 86. The selection process may include a(n) , where employment is only guaranteed for a specified period of time, until either a permanent offer is extended or the employee is discharged. A. intern period B. probationary period C. contingent period D. action pending period 87. Employment testing: A. was declared illegal by the EEOC in 1989, because it was often used to discriminate against women and minorities. B. is legal, but is a very poor predictor of worker performance. C. should be directly related to the job. D. should focus on the most basic and general skills rather than on skills directly related to the job. 88. Jolie is a human resource manager who is currently involved in selecting employees. Which of the following activities is Jolie most likely to be working on in her present assignment? A. performing a job analysis B. writing a help wanted ad C. conducting an orientation program D. completing a background investigation 89. Pre-employment physical examinations are: A. an excellent way to screen out employees. B. legal in some states, but only if given to everyone applying for the position. C. illegal under current employment legislation in all 50 states. D. legal in all states, but seldom used. 90. Once the job description and job specifications were written for a new marketing assistant position in his department, Lance called his HR specialist to proceed with the next step in the process of making a successful hire. After providing a timeframe for qualified persons to apply for the job, the next step in the selection process is best described as: A. Conducting background investigations. B. Obtaining results from physical exams. C. Conducting initial and follow-up interviews. D. Establishing trial and probationary periods. 91. Which of the following statements about contingent workers is most accurate? A. More than 75 percent of contingent workers are employed in office-clerical work. B. The number of contingent workers in the U.S. has steadily declined over the past decade. C. U.S. labor laws require firms to offer contingent employees the same wages and benefits as other employees performing similar work. D. Companies will rely on contingent workers in an uncertain economy. 92. Which of the following is a valid statement about contingent workers? A. Contingent workers are seldom skilled professionals. B. By law, employers must provide contingent workers the same salary and benefits as permanent employees. C. An increasing number of companies are hiring skilled professionals such as accountants as part of their contingent workforce. D. By law, companies cannot hire contingent workers as part of the management team. 93. What is an advantage of hiring contingent workers? A. These people are primarily over 45 years of age. They are more dependable. B. When a company’s work is very stable and steady, it is best to use contingent workers. C. When the tasks are very narrow in scope and specialized, it is best to use contingent workers. D. It is good strategy if the economic climate is uncertain. 94. Betty Roosevelt is a human resource manager with Avondale Industries. Her current assignment is to revise and update Avondale's employment testing procedures. Betty should: A. design tests that are directly related to an applicant's ability to perform the job. B. write tests sufficiently difficult that only a small fraction of qualified workers can pass them. C. design tests that measure general aptitudes rather than ability to do the job. D. inform her superiors that such tests are now illegal. 95. Crocker Enterprises conducts thorough background investigations of its prospective employees. The purpose of such investigations is to: A. meet federal reporting guidelines that requires up-to-date work history for each candidate. B. identify those applicants that are most likely to succeed. C. implement the "employment at will" doctrine. D. discover whether the employee has ever worked for a competitor. 96. 333. (p. 296) Mallard’s Department Store typically sells over a third of all its merchandise in the last two months of the year. Management has found that it must hire workers during this period of increased business to supplement its permanent employees. A. nontenured B. apprentice C. contingent D. journeymen 97. Which of the following workers would be the best example of a contingent worker? A. an assembly line worker who belongs to a union and has 17 years of seniority B. an accountant hired to help during the busy tax season C. an elementary school teacher who just received tenure D. an electrical engineer who frequently travels out of the country to the various manufacturing facilities owned and operated by his firm 98. Danielle relies on summer earnings to fund her next year at the university. When she tried to get her old high school summer job back at local Cool Rags Clothier, she learned that the manager no longer hires college students during the summer months. Which of the following strategies do you recommend that Danielle pursue? A. Contact temporary staffing companies. B. Realize that Cool Rags always needs more sales associates in the summer, and stay in contact with the management just in case. C. Look for a permanent position, and quit as it gets closer to the time when you will return to the university. D. Seek the services of a resume consultant, and pay to access a variety of employment tests so that you are prepared when the next job opportunity arises. 99. In just a few short weeks, Jake would arrive back in the states from his semester abroad. He was already in a temp agency’s database from the previous summer, when he spent 8 weeks working for an accounting firm. Jake will again try to hire on as a during the summer months. The company that hired him last summer typically hires several college students each year, mainly because they have good computer skills, and the company does not need to offer college students benefits. A. contingent worker B. intermediate worker C. primary worker D. apprentice 100. The purpose of is to increase an employee's ability to perform productively. A. training and development B. employment tests C. contingency planning D. job enrichment 101. Internet-based training courses are sometimes also called: A. contingency training. B. synchronized training. C. distance learning. D. vestibule training. 102. The first step in establishing training and development programs is to: A. establish appropriate simulation parameters. B. assess the needs of the organization and the skills of the employees. C. conduct preemployment tests. D. start designing programs. 103. introduces new employees to the organization, their fellow workers, their supervisors, and to the policies, practices, and objectives of the firm. A. Vestibule training B. Employee initiation C. Employee orientation D. Job specification 104. In a(n) an inexperienced worker learns by working alongside an experienced employee to master the skills and procedures of a craft. A. orientation period B. simulation period C. indentureship program D. apprenticeship program 105. A worker who successfully completes an apprenticeship program earns the title: A. master craftsman. B. journeyman. C. senior artisan. D. probationary craftsman. 106. is the easiest kind of training to implement, when the job requires simple tasks and/or repetitive. A. Vestibule training B. Job simulation C. On-the-job training D. An employee boot camp 107. Shadowing is another term used to refer to . A. job rotation B. vestibule training C. role playing D. on-the-job training 108. Computer and robotics training is sometimes performed in a nearby classroom type setting. We refer to near-the-job-training as . A. vestibule training B. orienteering C. apprenticeship training D. mentoring 109. is a type of training that duplicates the exact combination of conditions that occur on the job. A. Modular training B. Job simulation C. “Dress rehearsal” training D. Performance feedback 110. Off-the-job training: A. is further development that occurs at the workplace, but after scheduled work hours. B. focuses only on the skills needed to perform the job. C. may include higher education. D. is training that all employees should take-on, on their own, in order to stay competitive in their career field. 111. is the process of training and educating employees to become good managers and then developing their managerial skills over time. A. Management development B. Vestibule training C. Pre-mentoring D. Self-actualization training 112. Corporate managers who supervise, coach, and guide lower-level employees and serve as their organizational sponsors are called: A. networkers. B. role models. C. mentors. D. corporate guides. 113. is the process of establishing and maintaining contacts with key managers in one's own organization and in other organizations, and using those contacts to establish strong relationships that serve as informal development systems. A. Training and development B. Social integration C. Orienteering D. Networking 114. A management training program that gives managers assignments in a variety of departments in order to expose them to different functions within the organization is called: A. job enlargement. B. vestibule training. C. job rotation. D. an apprenticeship program. 115. Selected employees who work as assistants to higher-level managers and participate in managerial functions are given such titles as: A. second in command B. benefactor C. underwriter in process D. understudy or undersecretary 116. Which of the following statements describes the relationship between employee training and employee development? A. They are just two names for the same thing. B. Training is short-term skills oriented while development is long-term career oriented. C. Development is provided by the company and is designed to meet the specific needs of the organization, whereas training focuses on more general skills and normally is provided by schools, colleges and institutions other than the employer. D. Training focuses on conceptual skills while development seeks to improve technical skills. 117. According to information in Chapter 11, which of the following is not one of the three steps HR managers use as part of training and development? A. Assessing the types of training needed by your firm. B. Designing the training activities, including selecting the type(s) of training activities that will be pursued. C. Predicting the success of each new employee/trainee prior to training. D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the training after it is accomplished. 118. A major purpose of employee orientation programs is to: A. initiate new employees to the organization, their fellow employees, and their immediate supervisors. B. give experienced employees a chance to learn new skills. C. test new employees to determine where they should be assigned. D. help workers who have been laid off to find new jobs. 119. Job rotation helps lower-level managers prepare for higher-level positions by: A. letting them assume upper management positions for a limited time period. B. exposing them to different functions within the organization, thus giving them the broad perspective needed by top managers. C. helping them hone their highly specialized technical skills. D. giving them the opportunity to learn about every aspect of work performed in their department by spending a day doing the job of each person within the department. 120. Women often have more trouble finding mentors than men because: A. women are less aware of the way to look for a mentor. B. most successful women who could serve as mentors are so committed to family responsibilities that they do not have time to mentor other women. C. most older managers who could serve as mentors are male. D. clubs and organizations where most mentoring takes place either exclude women or make it difficult for them join. 121. With the advent of more sophisticated technology, employers who operate locally and globally and want all employees to receive the same training may opt for . A. apprenticeship programs B. mentorship programs C. job rotation programs D. online training programs 122. Which of the following statements about networking is the most accurate? A. White males are much more aware of the importance of networking than women and minorities. B. Although African-American and Hispanic managers are becoming aware of the importance of networking, there are no organizations available to help them make networking connections. C. Women have more difficulty forming networks than men because they can be barred from male only clubs and social organizations where much of the networking occurs. D. Students can begin building network connections in college, even before they take on a full time job. 123. As companies continue to develop women and minorities for management positions, they: A. increase the available talent pool of skilled employees. B. decrease chances for men to compete for professional positions. C. increase the morale of all employees. D. decrease the birthrate. 124. It’s good strategy to develop women and minorities for management positions because: A. it's a sure thing that the U.S. government will continue to pass laws that penalize companies even more for passing up women and minorities when it comes to promotion. B. women and minorities in management positions attract other women and minorities as customers and provide these groups with better service. C. it’s less expensive to train these diverse groups. They do not demand as much in terms of travel and training time. D. it is considered immoral to pass-up women and minority groups seeking jobs. 125. Chris is a member of the carpenters’ union who recently achieved the classification of journeyman. This means that Chris: A. is a contingent worker. B. passed a written exam, but is still working to learn the basic skills needed to be a carpenter. C. has successfully completed his apprenticeship program. D. is an apprentice and still on the journey of becoming a certified professional carpenter. 126. When Zoe began her Ph.D. program at Vanderbilt University, she was immediately assigned to a female who would serve as a coach and guide to shorten the learning curve and help Zoe meet the right people who could enhance her career. Her program also required , where she would spend four to six weeks in different labs, gaining experience and exposure to a variety of research in her field of study. A. mentor; off-the-job training B. journeyman; network C. understudy; vestibule training D. mentor; job rotation 127. Backstreet Books, an eclectic bookstore on a large college campus is owned by a large bookstore chain. Corporate HR knows that sexual harassment in the workplace is a serious issue. In order to provide consistency in its effort to train employees about sexual harassment, HR management created . Employees have a flexible time period when they can log-on and receive exactly the same training as employees in all of the company owned and managed bookstores. A. online training B. off-the-job training C. vestibule training D. simulation training 128. Bob says he has achieved his “dream job”. As an engineer for a major defense systems company, he is responsible for using sophisticated airplane and weaponry equipment that creates the exact conditions that a professional may experience if he/she uses the equipment in a real-life situation. He spends several hours each day performing . A. vestibule training exercises B. apprenticeship training exercises C. distance learning training exercises D. simulation training exercises 129. At Washington Seat Belt Industries, new workers are immediately assigned to jobs. They learn by doing the actual work and by watching longer-term employees. This company uses a policy of: A. vertical assimilation. B. on-the-job training. C. operational apprenticeships. D. vestibule training. 130. Julie Daniels recently became a member of the Plumbers Union. She has been told she will work with John Weimeister, a skilled and experienced plumber, for at least three years in order to learn all of the skills and techniques of her craft. This type of training is referred to as: A. skill replication. B. applied supervision. C. apprenticeship training. D. vestibule training. 131. Before American Road Builders, Inc., permits its new employees to operate the heavy equipment it uses to build roads, it sends them to a nearby classroom where they learn the safe and proper way to work with all of the tools and equipment they will use when they perform their jobs. American Road Builders is using a training technique known as: A. vestibule training. B. offline training. C. job replication. D. modular training. 132. Greg, a control room engineer at Tri State Power, Inc.'s nuclear power plant regularly practices handling emergency situations in a computerized mockup that duplicates the sights, sounds, and experiences of a real control room under emergency conditions. TriState uses to train its engineers. A. time intensive training B. job replication C. vestibule training D. job simulation 133. Jake accepted a management trainee position at Opelika Resorts, a real estate development company. Corporate management believes Jake has potential to move into a top management position within the organization. They have begun assigning Jake to a different department every few months so he can obtain the broad perspective needed by top managers. This company is using to develop Jake's management skills. A. job rotation B. multitasking C. understudying D. cross-functional management 134. Julie Jahn recently began working in an entry-level management position. She has already shown great promise, so the company has decided to groom her for an upper level position. Christine Scheid, one of the more senior women managers in the company, has agreed to help Julie by introducing her to the right people, and by providing her with the guidance and advice she needs to be successful within the firm. Christine is acting as Julie's: A. mentor. B. assimilation assistant. C. transfer agent. D. network captain. 135. If you aspire to become a sous chef (the second in command in a large restaurant kitchen), you will pursue several types of training and development. Your will include learning how to perform as a line chef, as you work your way through pastry, grill, pantry, and sauté. The only way you will learn the variations in the line jobs is to experience them! As a(n) , you will work alongside another sous chef for a few years in order to learn how to juggle all the middle management type of activities expected of this professional. Your training will be extensive, as you go to Culinary School, attend a community college, and/or take management classes to help you learn to minimize conflict in the kitchen as well as improve the productivity of those you manage. A. apprenticeship; journeyman; online B. apprenticeship; simulator; off-the-job C. job rotation; apprentice; off-the-job D. on-the-job training; journeyman; vestibule 136. U.S. President Obama nominated New York Judge Sonia Sotamayor to the Supreme Court, to fill the position vacated by Justice Sutter. At the hearings that preceded the vote by the Senate, there was extensive discussion about Judge Sotamayor’s past speeches where she alluded to a sensitivity toward minority problems and situations due to the fact that she is a Hispanic minority and a woman. The concern by many senators is that the law should be applied equally among all groups in the U.S.; in fact, some were worried about reverse discrimination. Others favored the fact that her background would bring a different perspective to the court. Although there are differences between an appointment to the Supreme Court and appointing employees to management positions, there are also similarities in these actions. High profile positions and appointments serve as examples. From a business perspective, why might such an action be a good thing? A. Creating a diverse supreme court is never a good idea. It will certainly lend itself to more laws similar to affirmative action and other hiring issues. B. Businesses always follow the lead of politicians and political appointments. Companies now have a “heads-up” that their competitors will start campaigns to promote minorities to top positions. C. Creating a team of diverse individuals working for your business will help you make decisions based on a variety of perspectives, and ultimately to attract and retain a diverse group of customers. D. It’s unethical and illegal to pass-up a minority candidate that is equally qualified. The senators had no choice but to confirm this nomination, and they are warning businesses that they must do the same, or face future repercussions. 137. Tyler’s university invited several companies to campus for an internship trade show. Upon speaking with the representative from a Texas accounting firm, Tyler was presented with a brochure describing the kinds of responsibilities the company’s interns assume; the training they receive; the pay and travel expense reimbursement; and potential opportunities for future employment. Referring to the information provided in the Making Ethical Decisions box titled, “Are Unpaid Interns Too Interred?” how would you rate this opportunity? A. A good opportunity because the company is upfront about job duties, pay, and opportunities. B. Either average or below average. According to the Making Ethical Decisions box, this would be perceived as a “gofer” position. C. An average or above average opportunity because although it pays a salary, it does not pay for the cost of the college internship credit hours. D. An average opportunity because it does not pay the intern benefits, as well as a salary. 138. Referring to the Making Ethical Decisions box titled, “Are Unpaid Interns Too Interred?” the passage reflects on: A. The strategy of hiring unpaid interns, but offering them benefits instead of a pay check. B. Whether it is unethical for companies to pay interns because it deters another person from having a continuing job. C. How it is a current dilemma that very few internships are set up to provide valuable job experience for the intern. D. How to evaluate an internship. Does it provide good work experience? Is it a dead-end job, or a future opportunity? 139. The is an evaluation of the performance level of employees against established standards to make decisions about promotions, compensation, additional training, or firing. A. job analysis B. performance appraisal C. MBO assessment D. objective analysis 140. The first step in the performance appraisal process is to: A. perform a human resource inventory. B. establish performance standards. C. analyze the jobs to see what tasks must be performed. D. meet with employees and discuss the overall objectives of the firm. 141. The last step in performance appraisal is to: A. talk to the employee being appraised. B. evaluate the employee's performance. C. take any corrective action that the appraisal indicates is necessary. D. use the results to make decisions about compensation, promotions, and additional training. 142. A newer form of performance appraisal is called the because it encourages feedback from all around the employee including those who report to him/her. A. 360-degree review B. roundabout assessment C. environmental review D. multilevel assessment 143. The purpose of a performance appraisal is to: A. protect the firm from lawsuits by disgruntled employees. B. improve employee performance. C. obtain information for the firm's financial performance that must be provided in the annual report to stockholders. D. give managers the information they need to determine the firm's strengths and weaknesses relative to its most serious competitors. 144. The information contained in performance appraisals helps managers: A. write job descriptions. B. compute the firm’s overall performance in terms of a rate of return on investment. C. evaluate job applicants. D. make decisions about promotions, compensation, training, and firing. 145. Unlike a traditional performance appraisal, a 360-degree review: A. is performed by experts from outside the organization. B. provides feedback from all around the employee. C. uses only objective measures of performance. D. compares the performance of each worker to every other worker. 146. Which of the following statements about performance appraisals is the most accurate? A. The most difficult step of a performance appraisal is almost always the actual evaluation of the employee's performance. B. Performance standards do not have to be measurable in order to be effective. C. The discussion of the results of a performance evaluation with an employee should allow the employee an opportunity to make suggestions about how to improve on current procedures. D. Most employees have a good understanding of the standards they are expected to meet, even if their managers do not explicitly communicate these standards. 147. A department manager evaluated the performance of her subordinates as part of a performance appraisal process. If she follows the six-step appraisal process, the next step is: A. meet with employees to discuss the results. B. write up a performance review report and submit it to top management. C. adjust the standards based on how well the employees did. D. make decisions about training, promotions, and pay raises. 148. Managers at Wrise & Schein want to make sure their decisions about compensation, promotions and firings are based on sound information that meet legal requirements. One way to achieve this objective would be to: A. outsource all such decisions to an outside expert. B. establish an effective performance appraisal system. C. make sure that these decisions are not influenced by the employee's immediate supervisor. D. base all pay, promotion, and firing decisions on the Hay system. 149. Jorge Martinez hates to do performance appraisals of his subordinates because he always struggles when he has to evaluate their performance. In order to make the actual performance evaluations a better experience for all, Jorge should: A. base his evaluation on a written test. B. use a democratic approach and let the employees evaluate each other. C. set performance standards that are reasonable, understandable, and measurable, then clearly communicate these standards to his subordinates. D. use the principle of motion economy to break down each subordinate's job into a series of steps that can be easily evaluated and compared to ideal performance standards. 150. Managers at the Allerton Bank get a performance appraisal one time each year. The bank uses a relatively new evaluation process that provides feedback about performance not only from superiors but also from subordinates and other managers at the same level. This type of evaluation is known as a(n): A. organization-wide appraisal. B. 360-degree review. C. circular analysis. D. multilevel assessment. 151. As a project manager for a large construction company, Tyler decided to make the performance appraisal process as painless as possible for his work crew. He spent a considerable amount of time creating performance standards he felt were reasonable, and after six months time, he scheduled individual appointments with each worker to discuss strengths and weaknesses and areas that needed improvement according to the standards he privately set. Some employees were sent to vestibule training, and one even got a promotion with additional compensation. What did Tyler fail to do correctly? A. Provide a pleasant environment for the appraisal such as a restaurant setting. B. Dismiss at least 10% of the work crew. C. Copy the HR department on all the results, within 24 hours of each appraisal. D. Communicate the performance standards to the employees so they know what is expected. 152. For many types of service organizations such as hospitals, banks and airlines, the primary cost of operations is: A. establishing and maintaining a presence on the Internet. B. insurance and legal expenses. C. coping with obsolescence that results from the rapid pace of technological change. D. compensation of labor. 153. Workers who are paid a receive a fixed compensation weekly, biweekly, or monthly. A. commission B. salary C. piece rate D. royalty 154. Salespeople often are paid a based on a percentage of their sales. A. commission B. salary C. royalty D. piece rate 155. Blue-collar and clerical workers who punch a time clock typically are paid a(n): A. commission. B. salary. C. hourly wage. D. piecework rate. 156. The system is a pay system that is based on job tiers, with each tier having a strict pay range. A. Steiner B. Gantt C. Hay D. Gilbreath 157. The two most common compensation methods for teams are: A. cash bonuses and cashless bonuses. B. skill-based pay and gain-sharing. C. piecework pay and commissions. D. salaries and capital gains. 158. Although the skills learned do not always translate into profits for the company, pay rewards the growth of both the individual and team participation. A. skill-based B. gain-sharing C. commission D. stock option 159. A common way of compensating teams is a system, in which bonuses are based on improvements over a previous performance baseline. A. commission B. stock option C. gain-sharing D. skill-based 160. Sick-leave pay, vacation pay, pension plans, and health plans that provide additional compensation to employees are called: A. fringe benefits. B. off-schedule salary. C. bonus sharing. D. nonmonetary salaries. 161. Today, fringe benefits account for approximately percent of total payroll costs. A. 6 B. 18 C. 24 D. 30 162. Many firms now offer their employees benefits, such as on-site haircuts and free breakfasts, which help employees maintain a balance between work and family life. A. real-time B.