PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM FOR SCI 225 EXAM / SCI 225 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY ACTUAL
EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE ACCURATE EXAM AND A NEW UPDATED STUDY GUIDE
APPROVED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) |GUARANTEED PASS A+ (BRAND NEW!)
A 65-year-old patient presents with crushing chest pain radiating to the
left arm. Which condition is most likely?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. correct answer: myocardial infarction
C. Pneumothorax
D. Gastroesophageal reflux
Rationale: Classic presentation of myocardial infarction includes chest
pain radiating to the left arm, often associated with diaphoresis and
shortness of breath.
Which type of shock is characterized by widespread vasodilation and
decreased systemic vascular resistance?
A. Cardiogenic
B. Hypovolemic
C. correct answer: distributive
D. Obstructive
Rationale: Distributive shock (including septic, anaphylactic, and
neurogenic) is due to vasodilation leading to hypotension despite normal
or increased cardiac output.
,A patient with liver failure develops confusion and asterisks. Which
complication is most likely?
A. Hepatorenal syndrome
B. Ascites
C. correct answer: hepatic encephalopathy
D. Portal hypertension
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by accumulation of
neurotoxins like ammonia due to impaired liver function, leading to
neurological symptoms.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with chronic
kidney disease?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. correct answer: hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Impaired renal excretion in chronic kidney disease leads to
potassium retention, causing hyperkalemia.
A 30-year-old patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and spoon-shaped
nails. Laboratory tests reveal microcytic anemia. The most likely cause
is:
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
,B. correct answer: iron deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Hemolysis
Rationale: Iron deficiency anemia presents with microcytosis, fatigue,
pallor, and nail changes (koilonychias).
Which of the following is the primary mechanism in type 1 diabetes
mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance
B. Excess glucagon secretion
C. correct answer: autoimmune destruction of beta cells
D. Obesity-induced insulin resistance
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is caused by autoimmune destruction of
pancreatic beta cells leading to absolute insulin deficiency.
Which condition is most likely if a patient has deep, rapid breathing
(Kussmaul respirations)?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. correct answer: metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
, Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are compensatory hyperventilation in
metabolic acidosis to blow off CO₂.
A patient present with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, and
imaging shows free air under the diaphragm. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Cholecystitis
B. correct answer: perforated peptic ulcer
C. Appendicitis
D. Pancreatitis
Rationale: Free air under the diaphragm on imaging suggests
gastrointestinal perforation, commonly from a peptic ulcer.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for water reabsorption in the
kidney?
A. Aldosterone
B. correct answer: antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C. Renin
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
Rationale: ADH increases water reabsorption in the distal nephron,
concentrating urine and maintaining fluid balance.
EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE ACCURATE EXAM AND A NEW UPDATED STUDY GUIDE
APPROVED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) |GUARANTEED PASS A+ (BRAND NEW!)
A 65-year-old patient presents with crushing chest pain radiating to the
left arm. Which condition is most likely?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. correct answer: myocardial infarction
C. Pneumothorax
D. Gastroesophageal reflux
Rationale: Classic presentation of myocardial infarction includes chest
pain radiating to the left arm, often associated with diaphoresis and
shortness of breath.
Which type of shock is characterized by widespread vasodilation and
decreased systemic vascular resistance?
A. Cardiogenic
B. Hypovolemic
C. correct answer: distributive
D. Obstructive
Rationale: Distributive shock (including septic, anaphylactic, and
neurogenic) is due to vasodilation leading to hypotension despite normal
or increased cardiac output.
,A patient with liver failure develops confusion and asterisks. Which
complication is most likely?
A. Hepatorenal syndrome
B. Ascites
C. correct answer: hepatic encephalopathy
D. Portal hypertension
Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by accumulation of
neurotoxins like ammonia due to impaired liver function, leading to
neurological symptoms.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with chronic
kidney disease?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. correct answer: hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Impaired renal excretion in chronic kidney disease leads to
potassium retention, causing hyperkalemia.
A 30-year-old patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and spoon-shaped
nails. Laboratory tests reveal microcytic anemia. The most likely cause
is:
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
,B. correct answer: iron deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Hemolysis
Rationale: Iron deficiency anemia presents with microcytosis, fatigue,
pallor, and nail changes (koilonychias).
Which of the following is the primary mechanism in type 1 diabetes
mellitus?
A. Insulin resistance
B. Excess glucagon secretion
C. correct answer: autoimmune destruction of beta cells
D. Obesity-induced insulin resistance
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is caused by autoimmune destruction of
pancreatic beta cells leading to absolute insulin deficiency.
Which condition is most likely if a patient has deep, rapid breathing
(Kussmaul respirations)?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. correct answer: metabolic acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
, Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are compensatory hyperventilation in
metabolic acidosis to blow off CO₂.
A patient present with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, and
imaging shows free air under the diaphragm. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Cholecystitis
B. correct answer: perforated peptic ulcer
C. Appendicitis
D. Pancreatitis
Rationale: Free air under the diaphragm on imaging suggests
gastrointestinal perforation, commonly from a peptic ulcer.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for water reabsorption in the
kidney?
A. Aldosterone
B. correct answer: antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C. Renin
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
Rationale: ADH increases water reabsorption in the distal nephron,
concentrating urine and maintaining fluid balance.
