CMSRN CERTIFIED MEDICAL-SURGICAL
REGISTERED NURSE 2025 SAMPLE
QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS
A 30-year old patient has been diagnosed with advanced ovarian
cancer. The patient says, "This is all my fault." Which of Kubler-
Ross's five stages of grief is the patient probably experiencing?
A.Denial
B.Anger
C.Depression
D.Acceptance - correct answer- B. The patient is
experiencing the stage of anger. People grieve individually and
may not go through all stages, but most go through at least 2
stages. Kubler-Ross's 5 stages of grief include:
Denial: Refusal to believe, confused, stunned, detached.
Anger: Directed inward (self-blame) or outward.
Bargaining: If - then thinking. ("If I go to church, then I will
heal.")
Depression: Sad, withdrawn.
,Acceptance: Resolution.
A 50-year-old male with a diagnosis of leukemia is responding
poorly to treatment. He is tearful and trying
to express his feelings, but he is having diffi culty. The nurse
should fi rst:
A. tell him that she will leave for now but she will be back.
B. offer to call pastoral care.
C. ask if he would like her to sit with him while he collects his
thoughts.
D. tell him that she can understand how he is feeling. - correct
answer- C. ask if he would like her to sit with him while he
collects his thoughts.
Rationale: The patient needs to feel that people are concerned
with his situation. Option A
is incorrect because leaving the patient doesn't show acceptance
of his feelings. Option B is incorrect because offering to call
pastoral care may be helpful for some patients but should be
done after the nurse has spent time with the patient. Option D is
incorrect because telling the patient that she understands how
he's feeling is inappropriate because it doesn't help him express
his feelings.
,A 55-year-old black male is found to have a blood pressure of
150/90 mm Hg during a work site health
screening. What should the nurse do?
A. Consider this to be a normal finding for his age and race.
B. Recommend he have his blood pressure rechecked in 1 year.
C. Recommend he have his blood pressure rechecked within 2
weeks.
D. Recommend he go to the emergency department for further
evaluation. - correct answer- C. Recommend he have his
blood pressure rechecked within 2 weeks.
Rationale: A BP of 150/90 mm Hg should be rechecked within 2
weeks according to
current recommendations. If confirmed, assessment and
treatment should be initiated by the practitioner.
Option A is incorrect because although hypertension is more
prevalent among blacks, a BP of 150/90 mm Hg isn't considered
normal. Option B is incorrect because a person with a BP
of 150/90 mm Hg shouldn't wait as long as 1 year to have it
rechecked.
Option D is incorrect because he doesn't need to be treated on
an emergency basis, but he should have his BP monitored.
, A 60-year-old male patient is suspected of having coronary
artery disease. Which noninvasive diagnostic
method would the nurse expect to be ordered to evaluate
cardiac changes?
A. Cardiac biopsy
B. Cardiac catheterization
C. MRI
D. Pericardiocentesis - correct answer- C. MRI
Rationale: MRI is a noninvasive procedure that aids in the
diagnosis and detection of thoracic
aortic aneurysm and evaluation of coronary artery disease,
pericardial disease, and cardiac masses.
Cardiac biopsy (Option A), cardiac catheterization (Option B),
and pericardiocentesis (Option D) are invasive
techniques used to evaluate cardiac changes.
A 66-year-old patient has marked dyspnea at rest, is thin, and
uses accessory muscles to breathe. He is
tachypneic, with a prolonged expiratory phase. He has no cough.
He leans forward with his arms braced on his
REGISTERED NURSE 2025 SAMPLE
QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS
A 30-year old patient has been diagnosed with advanced ovarian
cancer. The patient says, "This is all my fault." Which of Kubler-
Ross's five stages of grief is the patient probably experiencing?
A.Denial
B.Anger
C.Depression
D.Acceptance - correct answer- B. The patient is
experiencing the stage of anger. People grieve individually and
may not go through all stages, but most go through at least 2
stages. Kubler-Ross's 5 stages of grief include:
Denial: Refusal to believe, confused, stunned, detached.
Anger: Directed inward (self-blame) or outward.
Bargaining: If - then thinking. ("If I go to church, then I will
heal.")
Depression: Sad, withdrawn.
,Acceptance: Resolution.
A 50-year-old male with a diagnosis of leukemia is responding
poorly to treatment. He is tearful and trying
to express his feelings, but he is having diffi culty. The nurse
should fi rst:
A. tell him that she will leave for now but she will be back.
B. offer to call pastoral care.
C. ask if he would like her to sit with him while he collects his
thoughts.
D. tell him that she can understand how he is feeling. - correct
answer- C. ask if he would like her to sit with him while he
collects his thoughts.
Rationale: The patient needs to feel that people are concerned
with his situation. Option A
is incorrect because leaving the patient doesn't show acceptance
of his feelings. Option B is incorrect because offering to call
pastoral care may be helpful for some patients but should be
done after the nurse has spent time with the patient. Option D is
incorrect because telling the patient that she understands how
he's feeling is inappropriate because it doesn't help him express
his feelings.
,A 55-year-old black male is found to have a blood pressure of
150/90 mm Hg during a work site health
screening. What should the nurse do?
A. Consider this to be a normal finding for his age and race.
B. Recommend he have his blood pressure rechecked in 1 year.
C. Recommend he have his blood pressure rechecked within 2
weeks.
D. Recommend he go to the emergency department for further
evaluation. - correct answer- C. Recommend he have his
blood pressure rechecked within 2 weeks.
Rationale: A BP of 150/90 mm Hg should be rechecked within 2
weeks according to
current recommendations. If confirmed, assessment and
treatment should be initiated by the practitioner.
Option A is incorrect because although hypertension is more
prevalent among blacks, a BP of 150/90 mm Hg isn't considered
normal. Option B is incorrect because a person with a BP
of 150/90 mm Hg shouldn't wait as long as 1 year to have it
rechecked.
Option D is incorrect because he doesn't need to be treated on
an emergency basis, but he should have his BP monitored.
, A 60-year-old male patient is suspected of having coronary
artery disease. Which noninvasive diagnostic
method would the nurse expect to be ordered to evaluate
cardiac changes?
A. Cardiac biopsy
B. Cardiac catheterization
C. MRI
D. Pericardiocentesis - correct answer- C. MRI
Rationale: MRI is a noninvasive procedure that aids in the
diagnosis and detection of thoracic
aortic aneurysm and evaluation of coronary artery disease,
pericardial disease, and cardiac masses.
Cardiac biopsy (Option A), cardiac catheterization (Option B),
and pericardiocentesis (Option D) are invasive
techniques used to evaluate cardiac changes.
A 66-year-old patient has marked dyspnea at rest, is thin, and
uses accessory muscles to breathe. He is
tachypneic, with a prolonged expiratory phase. He has no cough.
He leans forward with his arms braced on his
