AIEHS Certified Chief Environmental
Engineering Officer CCEEO Exam
**Question 1.** Which of the following best describes the role of stoichiometry in designing a
wet scrubber for SO₂ removal?
A) Determines the required residence time for gas‑liquid contact.
B) Calculates the amount of alkaline reagent needed to neutralize the acid gas.
C) Predicts the droplet size distribution in the scrubber.
D) Estimates the pressure drop across the scrubber.
Answer: B
Explanation: Stoichiometry provides the molar ratio between SO₂ and the neutralizing reagent
(e.g., Ca(OH)₂), allowing engineers to size the reagent feed accurately.
**Question 2.** In aerosol physics, the “settling velocity” of a particle is primarily a function of:
A) Particle charge and electric field strength.
B) Particle density, diameter, and air viscosity.
C) Ambient temperature and solar radiation.
D) Gas flow velocity and turbulence intensity.
Answer: B
Explanation: Settling velocity follows Stokes’ law, which depends on particle density, size, and
the viscosity of the surrounding fluid.
**Question 3.** Which Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) phase involves defining system boundaries
and functional units?
A) Goal and scope definition.
B) Inventory analysis.
C) Impact assessment.
D) Interpretation.
Answer: A
, AIEHS Certified Chief Environmental
Engineering Officer CCEEO Exam
Explanation: The goal and scope definition stage sets the purpose, functional unit, and system
boundaries for the LCA.
**Question 4.** In mass‑balance calculations for a wastewater treatment plant, the term
“concentration of pollutant in the effluent” is considered a:
A) Input parameter.
B) Output parameter.
C) Internal recycle stream.
D) Process loss.
Answer: B
Explanation: Effluent concentration is the quality of the plant’s output and is used to assess
treatment performance.
**Question 5.** Which GIS tool is most appropriate for delineating a watershed contributing to
a proposed storm‑water retention basin?
A) Network analyst.
B) Spatial analyst – flow direction and accumulation.
C) 3D Analyst – terrain modeling.
D) Geocoding.
Answer: B
Explanation: Flow direction and accumulation tools compute drainage patterns and watershed
boundaries.
**Question 6.** LEED v4.1 credits for “Water‑Efficient Landscaping” require a reduction in
outdoor water use of at least:
A) 10 %
B) 20 %
, AIEHS Certified Chief Environmental
Engineering Officer CCEEO Exam
C) 30 %
D) 40 %
Answer: C
Explanation: The credit mandates a minimum 30 % reduction compared to the baseline defined
by the ASHRAE standard.
**Question 7.** Resilience engineering for climate adaptation most directly addresses which of
the following risks?
A) Equipment fatigue due to vibration.
B) Increased frequency of extreme precipitation events.
C) Obsolescence of control software.
D) Market fluctuations in raw material costs.
Answer: B
Explanation: Climate‑change resilience focuses on infrastructure’s ability to withstand extreme
weather, such as heavy rain.
**Question 8.** In the concept of urban metabolism, “material throughput” refers to:
A) Energy consumption per capita.
B) Total mass of resources entering and leaving the urban system.
C) Number of vehicles on city streets.
D) Amount of waste generated per household.
Answer: B
Explanation: Material throughput quantifies the flow of raw materials and products through an
urban area.
**Question 9.** Which component of a baghouse primarily determines its collection efficiency
for particles larger than 10 µm?
, AIEHS Certified Chief Environmental
Engineering Officer CCEEO Exam
A) Bag material porosity.
B) Air-to-cloth ratio.
C) Pulse‑jet cleaning frequency.
D) Pre‑separator cyclone.
Answer: D
Explanation: Cyclones remove coarse particles (>10 µm) before the gas reaches the fabric filter,
enhancing overall efficiency.
**Question 10.** An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) achieves high removal efficiency for
sub‑micron particles because:
A) It relies on inertial impaction.
B) It uses high‑velocity turbulence.
C) It charges particles and collects them on oppositely charged plates.
D) It employs a wet scrubbing section.
Answer: C
Explanation: ESPs impart charge to particles and attract them electrostatically to collector
plates, effective for fine particles.
**Question 11.** In a wet flue‑gas desulfurization (FGD) system, the primary chemical form of
sulfur after absorption is:
A) Sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄).
B) Calcium sulfite (CaSO₃).
C) Sodium bisulfate (NaHSO₄).
D) Magnesium sulfate (MgSO₄).
Answer: B
Explanation: SO₂ reacts with limestone slurry to form calcium sulfite, which can be further
oxidized to gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O).
Engineering Officer CCEEO Exam
**Question 1.** Which of the following best describes the role of stoichiometry in designing a
wet scrubber for SO₂ removal?
A) Determines the required residence time for gas‑liquid contact.
B) Calculates the amount of alkaline reagent needed to neutralize the acid gas.
C) Predicts the droplet size distribution in the scrubber.
D) Estimates the pressure drop across the scrubber.
Answer: B
Explanation: Stoichiometry provides the molar ratio between SO₂ and the neutralizing reagent
(e.g., Ca(OH)₂), allowing engineers to size the reagent feed accurately.
**Question 2.** In aerosol physics, the “settling velocity” of a particle is primarily a function of:
A) Particle charge and electric field strength.
B) Particle density, diameter, and air viscosity.
C) Ambient temperature and solar radiation.
D) Gas flow velocity and turbulence intensity.
Answer: B
Explanation: Settling velocity follows Stokes’ law, which depends on particle density, size, and
the viscosity of the surrounding fluid.
**Question 3.** Which Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) phase involves defining system boundaries
and functional units?
A) Goal and scope definition.
B) Inventory analysis.
C) Impact assessment.
D) Interpretation.
Answer: A
, AIEHS Certified Chief Environmental
Engineering Officer CCEEO Exam
Explanation: The goal and scope definition stage sets the purpose, functional unit, and system
boundaries for the LCA.
**Question 4.** In mass‑balance calculations for a wastewater treatment plant, the term
“concentration of pollutant in the effluent” is considered a:
A) Input parameter.
B) Output parameter.
C) Internal recycle stream.
D) Process loss.
Answer: B
Explanation: Effluent concentration is the quality of the plant’s output and is used to assess
treatment performance.
**Question 5.** Which GIS tool is most appropriate for delineating a watershed contributing to
a proposed storm‑water retention basin?
A) Network analyst.
B) Spatial analyst – flow direction and accumulation.
C) 3D Analyst – terrain modeling.
D) Geocoding.
Answer: B
Explanation: Flow direction and accumulation tools compute drainage patterns and watershed
boundaries.
**Question 6.** LEED v4.1 credits for “Water‑Efficient Landscaping” require a reduction in
outdoor water use of at least:
A) 10 %
B) 20 %
, AIEHS Certified Chief Environmental
Engineering Officer CCEEO Exam
C) 30 %
D) 40 %
Answer: C
Explanation: The credit mandates a minimum 30 % reduction compared to the baseline defined
by the ASHRAE standard.
**Question 7.** Resilience engineering for climate adaptation most directly addresses which of
the following risks?
A) Equipment fatigue due to vibration.
B) Increased frequency of extreme precipitation events.
C) Obsolescence of control software.
D) Market fluctuations in raw material costs.
Answer: B
Explanation: Climate‑change resilience focuses on infrastructure’s ability to withstand extreme
weather, such as heavy rain.
**Question 8.** In the concept of urban metabolism, “material throughput” refers to:
A) Energy consumption per capita.
B) Total mass of resources entering and leaving the urban system.
C) Number of vehicles on city streets.
D) Amount of waste generated per household.
Answer: B
Explanation: Material throughput quantifies the flow of raw materials and products through an
urban area.
**Question 9.** Which component of a baghouse primarily determines its collection efficiency
for particles larger than 10 µm?
, AIEHS Certified Chief Environmental
Engineering Officer CCEEO Exam
A) Bag material porosity.
B) Air-to-cloth ratio.
C) Pulse‑jet cleaning frequency.
D) Pre‑separator cyclone.
Answer: D
Explanation: Cyclones remove coarse particles (>10 µm) before the gas reaches the fabric filter,
enhancing overall efficiency.
**Question 10.** An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) achieves high removal efficiency for
sub‑micron particles because:
A) It relies on inertial impaction.
B) It uses high‑velocity turbulence.
C) It charges particles and collects them on oppositely charged plates.
D) It employs a wet scrubbing section.
Answer: C
Explanation: ESPs impart charge to particles and attract them electrostatically to collector
plates, effective for fine particles.
**Question 11.** In a wet flue‑gas desulfurization (FGD) system, the primary chemical form of
sulfur after absorption is:
A) Sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄).
B) Calcium sulfite (CaSO₃).
C) Sodium bisulfate (NaHSO₄).
D) Magnesium sulfate (MgSO₄).
Answer: B
Explanation: SO₂ reacts with limestone slurry to form calcium sulfite, which can be further
oxidized to gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O).
