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PMHNP
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EXAMNURSE
PRACTICE.pdf
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ANCC PMHNP–
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ANCC
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PMHNP EXAM PRACTICE.pdf
PSYCHIATRIC NURSE PRACTITIONER – ANCC
PMHNP EXAMPRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2025|2026 Q&A | INSTANTDOWNLOAD PDF
1. A 28-year-old patient presents with recurrent episodes of elevated mood,
decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and impulsive spending.
Symptoms last for 5 days without major impairment. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
• A. Bipolar I disorder
• B. Bipolar II disorder
• C. Cyclothymic disorder
• D. Schizoaffective disorder
Answer: B. Bipolar II disorder
Rationale: Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes (≥4 days, less severe than
mania) and major depressive episodes. Bipolar I requires full manic
episodes.
2. A client reports hearing voices commenting on their actions. This symptom
is classified as:
• A. Illusion
• B. Delusion
• C. Hallucination
• D. Obsession
Answer: C. Hallucination
Rationale: Auditory hallucinations are perceptions without external stimuli,
common in schizophrenia.
PSYCHIATRIC
PagePSYCHIATRIC
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NURSE PRACTITIONER
– ANCC –
PMHNP
ANCC
EXAM
PMHNP
PRACTICE.pdfaccurate
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, stuvia-2026//2027: PSYCHIATRIC
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NURSE
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PRACTITIONER
keyPSYCHIATRIC
solutions 2026/2027PSYCHIATRIC
– ANCC
NURSE
PMHNP
PRACTITIONER
EXAMNURSE
PRACTICE.pdf
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PRACTITIONER
ANCC PMHNP–
EXAM
ANCC
PRACTICE
PMHNP EXAM PRACTICE.pdf
Psychopharmacology
3. Which antidepressant carries the highest risk of inducing seizures at high
doses?
• A. Sertraline
• B. Bupropion
• C. Fluoxetine
• D. Escitalopram
Answer: B. Bupropion
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold, especially in patients with
eating disorders or seizure history.
4. Which atypical antipsychotic is most associated with agranulocytosis?
• A. Olanzapine
• B. Risperidone
• C. Clozapine
• D. Quetiapine
Answer: C. Clozapine
Rationale: Clozapine requires regular CBC monitoring due to risk of
agranulocytosis.
Therapy & Interventions
5. Which psychotherapy is most effective for borderline personality disorder?
• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
• B. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Supportive therapy
Answer: B. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
PSYCHIATRIC
PagePSYCHIATRIC
2 ofNURSE
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NURSE PRACTITIONER
– ANCC –
PMHNP
ANCC
EXAM
PMHNP
PRACTICE.pdfaccurate
EXAM PRACTICEFrequently
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Aboutexam
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, stuvia-2026//2027: PSYCHIATRIC
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NURSE
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PRACTITIONER
keyPSYCHIATRIC
solutions 2026/2027PSYCHIATRIC
– ANCC
NURSE
PMHNP
PRACTITIONER
EXAMNURSE
PRACTICE.pdf
–
PRACTITIONER
ANCC PMHNP–
EXAM
ANCC
PRACTICE
PMHNP EXAM PRACTICE.pdf
Rationale: DBT is evidence-based and targets emotional regulation, distress
tolerance, and interpersonal effectiveness.
6. A child with ADHD would benefit most from which first-line treatment?
• A. SSRIs
• B. Stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamines)
• C. Benzodiazepines
• D. Mood stabilizers
Answer: B. Stimulants
Rationale: Stimulants are first-line for ADHD, with atomoxetine or
guanfacine as alternatives.
Ethics & Professional Role
7. A PMHNP refuses to share a patient’s psychiatric record with their
employer without consent. This follows which ethical principle?
• A. Justice
• B. Fidelity
• C. Autonomy
• D. Confidentiality
Answer: D. Confidentiality
Rationale: Protecting patient privacy and records is central to
confidentiality.
8. When a PMHNP practices independently under their license without
physician oversight, this is known as:
• A. Dependent practice
• B. Collaborative practice
PSYCHIATRIC
PagePSYCHIATRIC
3 ofNURSE
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NURSE PRACTITIONER
– ANCC –
PMHNP
ANCC
EXAM
PMHNP
PRACTICE.pdfaccurate
EXAM PRACTICEFrequently
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, stuvia-2026//2027: PSYCHIATRIC
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NURSE
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PRACTITIONER
keyPSYCHIATRIC
solutions 2026/2027PSYCHIATRIC
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NURSE
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PRACTITIONER
EXAMNURSE
PRACTICE.pdf
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PRACTITIONER
ANCC PMHNP–
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ANCC
PRACTICE
PMHNP EXAM PRACTICE.pdf
• C. Full practice authority
• D. Restricted practice
Answer: C. Full practice authority
Rationale: Full practice authority allows NPs to assess, diagnose, and
prescribe independently.
Complex Case
9. A 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia on risperidone develops muscle
rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic instability, and altered mental status.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
• A. Serotonin syndrome
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
• C. Anticholinergic toxicity
• D. Malignant hyperthermia
Answer: B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
Rationale: NMS is a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics, managed
with supportive care, dantrolene, or bromocriptine.
10.A depressed patient reports no improvement after 8 weeks on sertraline.
What is the next best step?
• A. Discontinue treatment
• B. Double the dose immediately
• C. Switch to another antidepressant or augment
• D. Add a benzodiazepine
Answer: C. Switch to another antidepressant or augment
Rationale: If no response after adequate trial, switching class or
augmentation (e.g., with atypical antipsychotic) is recommended.
PSYCHIATRIC
PagePSYCHIATRIC
4 ofNURSE
35 PRACTITIONER
NURSE PRACTITIONER
– ANCC –
PMHNP
ANCC
EXAM
PMHNP
PRACTICE.pdfaccurate
EXAM PRACTICEFrequently
exam answer
Askedsets
Questions
subject-wise
Aboutexam
Examquestions
Practice Questions
and solutions
downloadable
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NURSE
answer
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PRACTITIONER
keyPSYCHIATRIC
solutions 2026/2027PSYCHIATRIC
– ANCC
NURSE
PMHNP
PRACTITIONER
EXAMNURSE
PRACTICE.pdf
–
PRACTITIONER
ANCC PMHNP–
EXAM
ANCC
PRACTICE
PMHNP EXAM PRACTICE.pdf
PSYCHIATRIC NURSE PRACTITIONER – ANCC
PMHNP EXAMPRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES
2025|2026 Q&A | INSTANTDOWNLOAD PDF
1. A 28-year-old patient presents with recurrent episodes of elevated mood,
decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, and impulsive spending.
Symptoms last for 5 days without major impairment. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
• A. Bipolar I disorder
• B. Bipolar II disorder
• C. Cyclothymic disorder
• D. Schizoaffective disorder
Answer: B. Bipolar II disorder
Rationale: Bipolar II involves hypomanic episodes (≥4 days, less severe than
mania) and major depressive episodes. Bipolar I requires full manic
episodes.
2. A client reports hearing voices commenting on their actions. This symptom
is classified as:
• A. Illusion
• B. Delusion
• C. Hallucination
• D. Obsession
Answer: C. Hallucination
Rationale: Auditory hallucinations are perceptions without external stimuli,
common in schizophrenia.
PSYCHIATRIC
PagePSYCHIATRIC
1 ofNURSE
35 PRACTITIONER
NURSE PRACTITIONER
– ANCC –
PMHNP
ANCC
EXAM
PMHNP
PRACTICE.pdfaccurate
EXAM PRACTICEFrequently
exam answer
Askedsets
Questions
subject-wise
Aboutexam
Examquestions
Practice Questions
and solutions
, stuvia-2026//2027: PSYCHIATRIC
downloadable
verified
NURSE
answer
exam
PRACTITIONER
keyPSYCHIATRIC
solutions 2026/2027PSYCHIATRIC
– ANCC
NURSE
PMHNP
PRACTITIONER
EXAMNURSE
PRACTICE.pdf
–
PRACTITIONER
ANCC PMHNP–
EXAM
ANCC
PRACTICE
PMHNP EXAM PRACTICE.pdf
Psychopharmacology
3. Which antidepressant carries the highest risk of inducing seizures at high
doses?
• A. Sertraline
• B. Bupropion
• C. Fluoxetine
• D. Escitalopram
Answer: B. Bupropion
Rationale: Bupropion lowers seizure threshold, especially in patients with
eating disorders or seizure history.
4. Which atypical antipsychotic is most associated with agranulocytosis?
• A. Olanzapine
• B. Risperidone
• C. Clozapine
• D. Quetiapine
Answer: C. Clozapine
Rationale: Clozapine requires regular CBC monitoring due to risk of
agranulocytosis.
Therapy & Interventions
5. Which psychotherapy is most effective for borderline personality disorder?
• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
• B. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Supportive therapy
Answer: B. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
PSYCHIATRIC
PagePSYCHIATRIC
2 ofNURSE
35 PRACTITIONER
NURSE PRACTITIONER
– ANCC –
PMHNP
ANCC
EXAM
PMHNP
PRACTICE.pdfaccurate
EXAM PRACTICEFrequently
exam answer
Askedsets
Questions
subject-wise
Aboutexam
Examquestions
Practice Questions
and solutions
, stuvia-2026//2027: PSYCHIATRIC
downloadable
verified
NURSE
answer
exam
PRACTITIONER
keyPSYCHIATRIC
solutions 2026/2027PSYCHIATRIC
– ANCC
NURSE
PMHNP
PRACTITIONER
EXAMNURSE
PRACTICE.pdf
–
PRACTITIONER
ANCC PMHNP–
EXAM
ANCC
PRACTICE
PMHNP EXAM PRACTICE.pdf
Rationale: DBT is evidence-based and targets emotional regulation, distress
tolerance, and interpersonal effectiveness.
6. A child with ADHD would benefit most from which first-line treatment?
• A. SSRIs
• B. Stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamines)
• C. Benzodiazepines
• D. Mood stabilizers
Answer: B. Stimulants
Rationale: Stimulants are first-line for ADHD, with atomoxetine or
guanfacine as alternatives.
Ethics & Professional Role
7. A PMHNP refuses to share a patient’s psychiatric record with their
employer without consent. This follows which ethical principle?
• A. Justice
• B. Fidelity
• C. Autonomy
• D. Confidentiality
Answer: D. Confidentiality
Rationale: Protecting patient privacy and records is central to
confidentiality.
8. When a PMHNP practices independently under their license without
physician oversight, this is known as:
• A. Dependent practice
• B. Collaborative practice
PSYCHIATRIC
PagePSYCHIATRIC
3 ofNURSE
35 PRACTITIONER
NURSE PRACTITIONER
– ANCC –
PMHNP
ANCC
EXAM
PMHNP
PRACTICE.pdfaccurate
EXAM PRACTICEFrequently
exam answer
Askedsets
Questions
subject-wise
Aboutexam
Examquestions
Practice Questions
and solutions
, stuvia-2026//2027: PSYCHIATRIC
downloadable
verified
NURSE
answer
exam
PRACTITIONER
keyPSYCHIATRIC
solutions 2026/2027PSYCHIATRIC
– ANCC
NURSE
PMHNP
PRACTITIONER
EXAMNURSE
PRACTICE.pdf
–
PRACTITIONER
ANCC PMHNP–
EXAM
ANCC
PRACTICE
PMHNP EXAM PRACTICE.pdf
• C. Full practice authority
• D. Restricted practice
Answer: C. Full practice authority
Rationale: Full practice authority allows NPs to assess, diagnose, and
prescribe independently.
Complex Case
9. A 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia on risperidone develops muscle
rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic instability, and altered mental status.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
• A. Serotonin syndrome
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
• C. Anticholinergic toxicity
• D. Malignant hyperthermia
Answer: B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
Rationale: NMS is a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics, managed
with supportive care, dantrolene, or bromocriptine.
10.A depressed patient reports no improvement after 8 weeks on sertraline.
What is the next best step?
• A. Discontinue treatment
• B. Double the dose immediately
• C. Switch to another antidepressant or augment
• D. Add a benzodiazepine
Answer: C. Switch to another antidepressant or augment
Rationale: If no response after adequate trial, switching class or
augmentation (e.g., with atypical antipsychotic) is recommended.
PSYCHIATRIC
PagePSYCHIATRIC
4 ofNURSE
35 PRACTITIONER
NURSE PRACTITIONER
– ANCC –
PMHNP
ANCC
EXAM
PMHNP
PRACTICE.pdfaccurate
EXAM PRACTICEFrequently
exam answer
Askedsets
Questions
subject-wise
Aboutexam
Examquestions
Practice Questions
and solutions
