NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 8 Final Exam
Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Questions with Verified
Answers | 100% Correct | Pass Guaranteed
SECTION 1: Cellular Foundations & Genetic Disorders (15 Questions)
Q1: A 45-year-old with chronic alcohol use develops hepatomegaly. Liver biopsy reveals
enlarged hepatocytes with increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum. This cellular
adaptation is:
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic alcohol exposure → induces cytochrome P450 enzymes →
proliferation of smooth ER to metabolize toxins → hyperplasia (increase in cell number).
This is compensatory hyperplasia, distinct from hypertrophy (cell size increase).
Explains why substance users need higher drug doses (enzyme induction). Atrophy (A)
= decreased size. Hypertrophy (B) = increased cell size. Metaplasia (D) = cell type
change.
Q2: Which genetic disorder demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance with
complete penetrance?
A. Cystic fibrosis
,B. Sickle cell disease
C. Huntington disease
D. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Huntington disease = trinucleotide repeat expansion, autosomal dominant
with complete penetrance. Each child of affected parent has 50% chance. Cystic
fibrosis (A) and PKU (D) = autosomal recessive. Sickle cell (B) = autosomal recessive.
Q3: A tumor suppressor gene mutation leading to loss of cell cycle control is most
characteristic of:
A. Retinoblastoma (Rb gene)
B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
C. Burkitt lymphoma
D. Multiple myeloma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rb gene = classic tumor suppressor. "Two-hit hypothesis": both alleles must
be inactivated → loss of cell cycle checkpoint control. CML (B) involves BCR-ABL
oncogene. Burkitt (C) = c-MYC oncogene. Myeloma (D) = plasma cell malignancy.
Q4: The cellular mechanism of apoptosis involves:
A. Cellular swelling and membrane rupture
B. Activation of caspases and programmed cell death
C. ATP depletion and necrosis
, D. Lysosomal enzyme leakage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis = programmed cell death via caspase cascade → DNA
fragmentation, cell shrinkage, membrane blebbing. Unlike necrosis (A, C, D) which
involves inflammation and membrane rupture. Critical in development and cancer
prevention.
Q5: In sickle cell disease, the primary pathophysiological trigger is:
A. Deoxygenation-induced hemoglobin polymerization
B. Iron overload
C. Autoimmune hemolysis
D. Bone marrow aplasia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pathophysiological sequence: HbS mutation → deoxygenation → HbS
polymerization → RBC sickling → vaso-occlusion and hemolysis. This is the primary
mechanism explaining pain crises and organ damage. Iron overload (B) is secondary to
transfusions.
Q6: A patient with xeroderma pigmentosum has increased skin cancer risk due to:
A. Defective DNA nucleotide excision repair
B. Telomerase dysfunction
C. BRCA1 mutation
D. p53 overexpression
Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Questions with Verified
Answers | 100% Correct | Pass Guaranteed
SECTION 1: Cellular Foundations & Genetic Disorders (15 Questions)
Q1: A 45-year-old with chronic alcohol use develops hepatomegaly. Liver biopsy reveals
enlarged hepatocytes with increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum. This cellular
adaptation is:
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia
D. Metaplasia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic alcohol exposure → induces cytochrome P450 enzymes →
proliferation of smooth ER to metabolize toxins → hyperplasia (increase in cell number).
This is compensatory hyperplasia, distinct from hypertrophy (cell size increase).
Explains why substance users need higher drug doses (enzyme induction). Atrophy (A)
= decreased size. Hypertrophy (B) = increased cell size. Metaplasia (D) = cell type
change.
Q2: Which genetic disorder demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance with
complete penetrance?
A. Cystic fibrosis
,B. Sickle cell disease
C. Huntington disease
D. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Huntington disease = trinucleotide repeat expansion, autosomal dominant
with complete penetrance. Each child of affected parent has 50% chance. Cystic
fibrosis (A) and PKU (D) = autosomal recessive. Sickle cell (B) = autosomal recessive.
Q3: A tumor suppressor gene mutation leading to loss of cell cycle control is most
characteristic of:
A. Retinoblastoma (Rb gene)
B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
C. Burkitt lymphoma
D. Multiple myeloma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rb gene = classic tumor suppressor. "Two-hit hypothesis": both alleles must
be inactivated → loss of cell cycle checkpoint control. CML (B) involves BCR-ABL
oncogene. Burkitt (C) = c-MYC oncogene. Myeloma (D) = plasma cell malignancy.
Q4: The cellular mechanism of apoptosis involves:
A. Cellular swelling and membrane rupture
B. Activation of caspases and programmed cell death
C. ATP depletion and necrosis
, D. Lysosomal enzyme leakage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis = programmed cell death via caspase cascade → DNA
fragmentation, cell shrinkage, membrane blebbing. Unlike necrosis (A, C, D) which
involves inflammation and membrane rupture. Critical in development and cancer
prevention.
Q5: In sickle cell disease, the primary pathophysiological trigger is:
A. Deoxygenation-induced hemoglobin polymerization
B. Iron overload
C. Autoimmune hemolysis
D. Bone marrow aplasia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pathophysiological sequence: HbS mutation → deoxygenation → HbS
polymerization → RBC sickling → vaso-occlusion and hemolysis. This is the primary
mechanism explaining pain crises and organ damage. Iron overload (B) is secondary to
transfusions.
Q6: A patient with xeroderma pigmentosum has increased skin cancer risk due to:
A. Defective DNA nucleotide excision repair
B. Telomerase dysfunction
C. BRCA1 mutation
D. p53 overexpression
