Final Review Pathophysiology--Latest

FINAL REVIEW PATHOPHYSIOLOGY Questions about BMI, Obesity 1-Obesity is defined as a body mass index (BMI) greater than what measurement? d. 30 2-Cystic fibrosis is characterized by which symptom? Excessive mucus production 
 3-Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle? Obesity. 4-Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity by affecting what? Regulation of appetite 
 5-The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are: c. Obesity and positive family history
 6-A major characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus is that there is: b. An autoimmune cause factor 7- Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by: b. Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells
 8- Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk? d. Modifiable 9- A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder? d. Cushing disease 10- Which symptom is characteristic of bulimia nervosa?
 a. Recurrent episodes of binge eating with fears of not being able to stop eating. 11- Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
 a. Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
 Pulmonary Disease 12- A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
 a. Right heart failure 13- Besides dyspnea, what is the most common characteristic associated with pulmonary disease? cough

 14- Kussmaul respirations as a respiratory pattern may be associated with which characteristic(s)? d. Slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause 15- Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a volume of air? b. Obstructive 16-During cell injury caused by hypoxia, an increase in the osmotic pressure occurs within the cell because: c. Sodium chloride enters the cell.
 17- The cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia. b. ATP is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell.
 18-What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia? c. Hypoxia
 19- What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement?
 b. To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration
 20- A prolonged capillary refill time in children is consistent with the development of what type of shock? b. Septic 21- Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity? b. III 22- Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to: a. Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation
 SKIN 23-Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?
 b. Bacteria and fungi 24-Where are Langerhans cells found?
 a. Skin 25-Which cells of the dermis release histamine and play a role in the hypersensitivity reactions of the skin? c. Mast cells 26-What is the first change in the skin that indicates a pressure ulcer? b. Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
 27- What medical term is used to identify an inflammatory disorder of the skin that is often considered synonymous with dermatitis and characterized by pruritus with lesions that have an indistinct border?
 a. Eczema 28-Which immunoglobulin is found in skin biopsy with immunofluorescent observation of people with discoid lupus erythematosus? 
d. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) 29- Which skin lesion is mediated by the immunoglobulin E (IgE)–stimulated release of histamine, bradykinin, or kallikrein from mast cells?
 c. Urticaria
 30- The staff member of a crowed day care center is a source for which bacterial infection? c. Impetigo 31-. Skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust, are the hallmark clinical manifestation of which skin disorder? 
d. Bullous impetigo 32-In allergic contact dermatitis, which cells possess the antigens and present them to T cells? a. Langerhans cells 
 33-Lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous characterize which type of psoriasis? a. Plaque 
 34-Which medications may exacerbate existing psoriasis? (Select all that apply.) c. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) d. Beta blockers
 e. Lithium 35-Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?
 a. Pediculosis Hypersensitivity chapter 9 36-.Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an):
 c. Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease 37- A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called: b. Anaphylaxis 38-The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? 
a. IgE 39-Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? b. IgE 40-During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? c. Eosinophils

 41-During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? c. Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors 
 42- During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action? 
a. Histamine bound to H2
 43-What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions? d. Antibodies bind to the 44-How are target cells destroyed in a type II hypersensitivity reaction? d. Natural killer cells 
 45-Graves disease (hyperthyroidism) is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction? a. Modulation 46-Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following? 
 b. Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the 
immune complexes being deposited in the tissues 
 47-A type IV hypersensitivity reaction causes which result? c. Lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets 
 48-In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of: c. Complement activation 49-Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to: a. Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation
 Chapter 29 50-What change is observed in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I hypersensitivity) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions? 
c. Eosinophilia
 51- In infectious mononucleosis (IM), what does the Monospot test detect? b. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) 52-Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma? c. IgE
 53-Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)?
 a. IgA HEART 54-Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why? a. The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood. 55-Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures? c. Left ventricle 56-What is the process that ensures mitral and tricuspid valve closure after the ventricles are filled with blood? b. Increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the valves to close. 57-Regarding the heart’s valves, what is a function of the papillary muscles? b. These muscles prevent backward expulsion of the atrioventricular valve. 58-During the cardiac cycle, why do the aortic and pulmonic valves close after the ventricles relax? d. Blood fills the cusps of the valves and causes the edges to merge, closing the valves. 59-Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel? b. Pulmonary veins 60-. The significance of the atrial kick is that it affects the contraction of the: c. Left atria, which increases the blood volume into the ventricle. 61-Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which structures? a. Left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum. 62-Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which area? d. Left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle 63-The coronary sinus empties into which cardiac structure? a. Right atrium 64-During the cardiac cycle, which structure directly delivers action potential to the ventricular myocardium? c. Purkinje fibers 65-What causes depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell to occur? B. Rapid movement of sodium into the cell 66-Within a physiologic range, what does an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) result in? a. Increase in force of contraction. 67-Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood? b. Aorta 68-Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder? c. Pulmonary edema 69-What physical sign is the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel? d. Murmur heard on auscultation 70-Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension? c. Angiotensin II 71-Which statement best describes Raynaud disease? c. Vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers and, less commonly, of the toes 72-Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process? b. Occlusion 73-What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply? b. Ischemia 74-The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor b. Hypertension 75-Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein? a. Diabetes mellitus 76-How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)? a. By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction 77-A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe: d. Acute pericarditis 78-A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy? b. Hypertrophic 79-Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation? c. Rheumatic fever 80-Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease? a. Mitral valve prolapse 81-What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) c. Left heart failure 82-A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance? a. Right heart failure 83-What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling? c. Myocardial ischemia 84-What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm? a. Pressure on surrounding organs 85-Where can coarctation of the aorta (COA) be located? c. Between the origin of the aortic arch and the bifurcation of the aorta in the lower abdomen HIV 86-Which body system is the largest site for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in infants and children? 
a. Central nervous system 87-Which statement is a characteristic of HIV? 
b. HIV is a retrovirus.
 88-What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?
 d. It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA. 89- After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months? b. 6 to 14 90-Which cells are primary targets for HIV?
 b. CD4+ Th cells, macrophages, and natural killer cells 91- What area in the body may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs? a. Central nervous system 92-AIDS produces a striking decrease in the number of which cells? c. CD4+ Th cells 93-HIV antibodies appear within how many weeks after infection through blood products? b. 4 to 7 94-Which secretion transmits HIV? (Select all that apply.) a. Semen d. Breast milk 95-Which statement is true regarding the development of HIV symptoms? (Select all that apply.) c. T cells levels, particularly those of memory T cells, progressively decrease. d. Untreated infected individuals may remain asymptomatic for up to10 years. e. Secondary lymphoid organs experience damage and resulting malfunction. 96-Complications of AIDS include: (Select all that apply.) a. Kaposi sarcoma
 c. Cytomegalovirus retinitis d. Herpes simplex infection 97-What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
 c. Toxoplasmosis
 98-What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) c. Left heart failure 99-AIDS produces a striking decrease in the number of which cells? c. CD4+ Th cells 100-What is the normal intracranial pressure (in mm Hg)?
 a. 5 to 15 101-The body compensates for a rise in intracranial pressure by first displacing the: a. Cerebrospinal fluid 102-Stage 1 intracranial hypertension is caused by the: b. Displacement of cerebrospinal fluid followed by compression of the cerebral 
venous system 103-Which cerebral vascular hemorrhage causes meningeal irritation, photophobia, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs? 
b. Subarachnoid 104-The function of arachnoid villi is to:
 d. Absorb cerebrospinal fluid into the cerebral venous sinuses 105-Where is the cerebrospinal fluid produced? b. Choroid plexuses 106-Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain? c. Prefrontal lobe 107-The region responsible for the motor aspects of speech is located in the: 
b. Broca area in the frontal lobe 108-Where in the CNS does a person’s learned pain response occur? a. Cerebral cortex 109-The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain? 
d. Hypothalamus 110-Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s: d. Basal ganglia 111-Where is the major cardiovascular center in the central nervous system? c. Brainstem
 112-What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states? c. Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
 113-Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders associated with schizophrenia?
 c. Temporal lobe
 114-Hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders occur with alterations to which part of the brain? a. Temporal lobe 115-Maintenance of a constant internal environment and the implementation of behavioral patterns are main functions of which area of the brain? 
d. Hypothalamus 116-The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of which colliculi? b. Superior 117-Considering the pathophysiologic characteristics of primary amenorrhea, what anatomic structure is involved in compartment II? a. Ovary 118-Considering the pathophysiologic characteristics of primary amenorrhea, what anatomic structure is involved in compartment IV? 
b. Hypothalamus 119-. Which condition is considered a clinical cause of amenorrhea?
 d. Failure to ovulate 120-Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteoporosis are each caused by a: c. Prolactinoma
 121- In the 95% of those with delayed puberty, the problem is caused by which condition? 
d. Physiologic hormonal delays 122-What is the first sign of puberty in boys? c. Enlargement of the testes 
 123- Which type of precocious puberty causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex? 
a. Mixed 124-Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty? b. Leptin 125-Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection? c. Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. 126-What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty? b. It becomes thicker 127-When does the male body begin to produce sperm? c. At puberty

 128-Which hormone promotes the development of testosterone in both males and females? b. Prolactin 129-What is the first sign of puberty in girls? a. Breast enlargement
 130-Considering iron replacement therapy prescribed for iron deficiency anemia, who is likely to require long-term daily maintenance dosage?
 a. A woman who has not yet experienced menopause
 131-Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia? 
c. Anemia of chronic disease
 132. In adults, hematopoiesis takes place in which bone marrow cavities? (Select all that apply.) a. Skull b. Shoulders c. Sternum
 e. Pelvis 133-In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? 
c. Bone marrow
 134-Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure?
 b. Spleen 135-An allogenic bone marrow transplantation remains the preferred method for treating which anemia? b. Aplastic 136-Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia?
 c. Anemia of chronic disease
 137-Insulin is used to treat hyperkalemia because it: 
c. Transports potassium from the blood to the cell along with glucose.
 138-Causes of hyperkalemia include: c. Renal failure and Addison disease
 In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential? a. Hypopolarization 139-The existence of hyperkalemia is likely to result in which changes to a person’s electrocardiogram?
 b. Peaked T waves 140-The electrolyte imbalance hypokalemia exhibits which clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.) a. Paralytic ileus
 b. Sinus bradycardia
 c. Atrioventricular block 141-The right lymphatic duct drains into which structure?
 c. Right subclavian vein 142-Which structure is not associated with any lymphatic vessels? c. Acinus
 143-The pathophysiologic process of edema is related to which mechanism? d. Lymphatic obstruction 
 144-Where does the tracheal bifurcation occur?
c. Carina
 Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge? c. Bronchus
 145-Aspiration is most likely to occur in the right mainstem bronchus because it: a. Extends vertically from the trachea.
 146-When an individual aspirates food particles, where would the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds?
 b. Right lung 147-What is the primary cause of peptic ulcers? c. Helicobacter pylori 148-What is the most common cause of uncomplicated urinary tract infections? d. E coli 149-During an anticipatory response to stress, the reaction from the limbic system is stimulated by the: Paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus 150-Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where? c. Limbic system
 151-What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states? c. Limbic system and prefrontal cortex 152-What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain? Limbic system 153-Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis? Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing 
viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens 
 154- Cystic fibrosis is caused by which process?
 a. Autosomal recessive inheritance 155-What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)? Deficit of IL-3 and an excess of IL-14, IL-24, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF) 156-With which medical diagnosis is meconium ileus often associated?
 c. Cystic fibrosis 
 157-Cystic fibrosis is characterized by which symptom?
 b. Elevated blood glucose levels 158-Which medication compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis? b. Pancreatic enzymes 159-What causes a person with cystic fibrosis to experience an exocrine pancreatic insufficiency? a. Pancreatic ducts are obstructed with mucus. 160-What is the cause of faulty digestion of fats in those diagnosed with cystic fibrosis? c. Deficiency of pancreatic enzymes 161-What is the cause of faulty digestion of fats in those diagnosed with cystic fibrosis? c. Deficiency of pancreatic enzymes 162-Cystic fibrosis is caused by what type of gene?
 d. Autosomal recessive 
 163-Which statement is false regarding the contributing factors of duodenal ulcers?
 b. Gastric emptying is slowed, causing greater exposure of the mucosa to acid.
 164-What is a cause of chronic antral gastritis?
 a. Helicobacter pylori bacteria 165-What is the primary cause of peptic ulcers? c. Helicobacter pylori 166-Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteoporosis are each caused by a: c. Prolactinoma
 167-A bone density of 645 mg/cm2 would support which diagnosis? Osteoporosis 168-Be the time osteoporosis is visible on an x-ray examination, up to what percent of the bone has been lost a. 30% 169-What is the most common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis? Bone deformity Which statement about folic acid is false?
 a. Folic acid absorption is dependent on the enzyme folacin.
 170-Children with phenylketonuria (PKU) are unable to synthesize: a. Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine
 171-Graves disease develops from a(n):
 c. Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
 172-Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
 a. High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins 173-The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in individuals with Graves disease is usually: Low 174-Palpation of the neck of a person diagnosed with Graves disease would detect a thyroid that is: Diffusely enlarged 
 175-Graves disease (hyperthyroidism) is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction? a. Modulation 175-Graves disease is a result of:
 c. Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites 176-Graves disease is an autoimmune disease that results in which maternal antibody? Affecting the receptor for TSH, causing neonatal hyperthyroidism 
 177-What term is used to identify a condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis? d. Phimosis 178-What term is used to identify a fibrotic condition that causes lateral curvature of the penis during erection, which is associated with a local vasculitis-like inflammatory reaction and decreased tissue oxygenation? d. Peyronie disease 179. Which nutrients are necessary for the synthesis of DNA and the maturation of erythrocytes? c. Cobalamin (vitamin B12) and folate
 180-Deficiencies in folate and vitamin B12 alter the synthesis of which of the following? DNA 181-Most of a cell’s genetic information, including RNA and DNA, is contained in the: c. Nucleolus
 182-What is the sequence of steps in the development of a digestive enzyme by the pancreas cells from the initial transcription to the release from the cell? a.The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the 
ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a secretory vesicle to the cell 
membrane. 
 183-During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized? b. S
 184-Which is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
 c. DNA aberrations. 185. Inserting bone marrow cells into an individual who produces abnormal erythrocytes is an example of what type of therapy?
 a. Somatic cell 186-DNA replication requires the enzyme DNA polymerase to: a.Travel along the single DNA strand, adding the correct nucleotide to the new strand 
 187. Transcription is best defined as a process by which:
 c. RNA is synthesized from a DNA template.
 188-A malfunction in DNA methylation can lead to: c. Cancer
 
 189-The difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications is: c. Epigenetic modifications can be reversed. 
 190-Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease? Systemic lupus erythematosus
 191-Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia? b. Pernicious 192- The underlying disorder of which anemia is a result of the defective secretion of the intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12? b. Pernicious. 193-After a person has a subtotal gastrectomy for chronic gastritis, which type of anemia will result? d. Pernicious 
 194-What causes the atrophy of gastric mucosal cells that result in pernicious anemia? c. Vitamin B12 malabsorption
 195-Which type of anemia occurs as a result of thalassemia? a. Microcytic, hypochromic 196-What is the fundamental defect that results in beta-thalassemia major? b. A severe uncoupling of α- and β-chain synthesis occurs. 197-The alpha- and beta-thalassemias are considered what types of inherited disorder? a. Autosomal recessive 198-During childhood, when is dietary iron deficiency commonly diagnosed? b. Between 6 months and 2 years 199-What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)?
 b. Chronic blood loss 200-What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children? b. Iron deficiency 201-In children, the risk factors for hepatitis B virus (HBV) are primarily associated with: c. Transfusion therapy for hemophilia 201-Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor? c. IX
 202- Hemophilia A is considered to be what type of inherited disorder? c. X-linked recessive. 203-Which disease is an autosomal dominant inherited hemorrhagic disease? b. von Willebrand disease
 204-Which type of hemophilia affects only men?
 a. Hemophilia A 205-Which hemophilia occurs equally in both men and women?
 c. Hemophilia C 206-The loss of the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) during ischemia causes cells to: c. Swell because of the influx of sodium chloride (NaCl). 207-What organs are affected by the type of necrosis that results from either severe ischemia or chemical injury? (Select all that apply.) c. Kidneys e. Heart 208-When is the scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) most vulnerable to injury? b. Between 10 and 14 days 209-An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
 c. Myocardial infarction (MI) 210-What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
 b. ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) 211-How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)? a. By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction
 212-What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling? c. Myocardial ischemia
 213-What is the trigger for angina pectoris? d. Myocardial ischemia 214-Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which structures?
 a. Left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum. 215-Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which area? d. Left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle 216-What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
 a. Deep venous thrombosis 217-Which condition is capable of producing alveolar dead space? b. Pulmonary emboli 218-When renin is released, it is capable of which action? d. Formation of angiotensin I 
 219-How does progressive nephrons injury affect angiotensin II activity? b. It is elevated.
 220-Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced?
 d. Renin 221-Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when circulating blood volume is reduced?
 d. Renin 222-Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension? c. Angiotensin II
 223-In the mouth and stomach, salivary α-amylase initiates the digestion of which nutrients? b. Carbohydrates. 224-Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates? b. Amylase 225-Which structure synthesizes clotting factors and the vitamin K necessary for hemostasis? d. Liver 226-What theory is used to describe the cause of endometriosis? b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity 
and remains responsive to hormones. 
 227-What are the common clinical manifestations of endometriosis? (Select all that apply.) b. Infertility
 e. Dysmenorrhea 228-The pathophysiologic process of edema is related to which mechanism? d. Lymphatic obstruction 229-Which structure is not associated with any lymphatic vessels?
 c. Acinus 230-What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?
 b. Joint capsule 231-Breath sounds normally heard over the trachea are called a. Bronchial 232-Breath sound normally auscultated over most of the lung fields are called a.Vesicular