❖EMT Refresher Continuing Education (CE) Examination
Preparation (2026 Edition) — Emergency Medical Technician
Skills, Patient Assessment, Airway & Ventilation, Trauma &
Medical Emergencies, CPR, EMS Protocols & Regulatory
Compliance with Verified Practice Questions
Question 1:
What is the primary purpose of the ABCs in patient assessment?
• A) To evaluate airway, breathing, and circulation
• B) To determine level of consciousness
• C) To assess vital signs and blood glucose levels
• D) To identify potential traumatic injuries
Correct Option: A) To evaluate airway, breathing, and circulation
Rationale: The ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) are crucial for determining the
immediate life threats to a patient. Ensuring these functions are adequate is essential in
emergency medicine.
Question 2:
Which of the following conditions would be classified as a medical emergency?
• A) A sprained ankle
• B) Severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis)
• C) Low back pain
• D) Mild headache
Correct Option: B) Severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis)
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate
intervention, while the other conditions, although painful, are not immediately life-
threatening.
Question 3:
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
• A) 15:2
• B) 30:2
• C) 50:1
, • D) 2:1
Correct Option: B) 30:2
Rationale: The current guideline for adult CPR is to provide chest compressions at a
ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths to ensure maximum blood flow and oxygenation.
Question 4:
In which position should a patient with respiratory distress typically be placed?
• A) Supine
• B) Prone
• C) Fowlers
• D) Lying flat
Correct Option: C) Fowlers
Rationale: The Fowlers position, where the patient is seated upright, enhances
respiratory effort and facilitates easier breathing.
Question 5:
What is the appropriate action for an EMT when encountering a patient with a
suspected spinal injury?
• A) Move the patient to a comfortable position
• B) Begin CPR immediately
• C) Stabilize the neck and spine
• D) Apply a cervical collar only if needed
Correct Option: C) Stabilize the neck and spine
Rationale: Stabilizing the neck and spine is crucial in preventing further injury to the
spinal cord during assessment and transport.
Question 6:
What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in adults?
• A) Respiratory failure
• B) Drowning
• C) Myocardial infarction
• D) Trauma
,Correct Option: C) Myocardial infarction
Rationale: Myocardial infarction (heart attack) is the leading cause of cardiac arrest in
adults, often due to ischemic heart disease.
Question 7:
Which vital sign is usually the first indication of an underlying issue?
• A) Blood pressure
• B) Heart rate
• C) Respiratory rate
• D) Temperature
Correct Option: C) Respiratory rate
Rationale: Changes in respiratory rate can indicate a variety of medical conditions and
often present before other vital signs change.
Question 8:
What type of patient would benefit from the use of oxygen therapy?
• A) A patient with a fractured arm
• B) A patient with a high fever
• C) A patient with asthma having difficulty breathing
• D) A patient recovering from surgery
Correct Option: C) A patient with asthma having difficulty breathing
Rationale: Oxygen therapy is crucial for patients experiencing respiratory distress or
hypoxia, such as those with asthma attacks.
Question 9:
What does the term 'hypoperfusion' refer to?
• A) Increased blood volume
• B) Decreased blood circulation to organs
• C) High blood pressure
• D) Normal blood circulation
, Correct Option: B) Decreased blood circulation to organs
Rationale: Hypoperfusion indicates inadequate blood flow to tissues and organs, which
can lead to shock and organ failure.
Question 10:
Which of the following is a sign of anaphylactic shock?
• A) Sweating
• B) Cyanosis
• C) Swelling of the face and throat
• D) Low blood sugar
Correct Option: C) Swelling of the face and throat
Rationale: Anaphylactic shock often presents with angioedema (swelling) as a critical
symptom requiring immediate medical intervention.
Question 11:
What is the correct procedure for using an automated external defibrillator (AED)?
• A) Apply pads only after CPR is completed
• B) Ensure the area is clear of personnel before analyzing
• C) Shock the patient immediately every time
• D) Turn the AED on only after 3 minutes of CPR
Correct Option: B) Ensure the area is clear of personnel before analyzing
Rationale: Ensuring the area is clear is essential for accurate analysis, preventing risks
of shocks to rescuers.
Question 12:
Which of the following medications is typically administered for chest pain
suspected to be cardiac in origin?
• A) Nitroglycerin
• B) Aspirin
• C) Oxygen
• D) All of the above
Preparation (2026 Edition) — Emergency Medical Technician
Skills, Patient Assessment, Airway & Ventilation, Trauma &
Medical Emergencies, CPR, EMS Protocols & Regulatory
Compliance with Verified Practice Questions
Question 1:
What is the primary purpose of the ABCs in patient assessment?
• A) To evaluate airway, breathing, and circulation
• B) To determine level of consciousness
• C) To assess vital signs and blood glucose levels
• D) To identify potential traumatic injuries
Correct Option: A) To evaluate airway, breathing, and circulation
Rationale: The ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) are crucial for determining the
immediate life threats to a patient. Ensuring these functions are adequate is essential in
emergency medicine.
Question 2:
Which of the following conditions would be classified as a medical emergency?
• A) A sprained ankle
• B) Severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis)
• C) Low back pain
• D) Mild headache
Correct Option: B) Severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis)
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate
intervention, while the other conditions, although painful, are not immediately life-
threatening.
Question 3:
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
• A) 15:2
• B) 30:2
• C) 50:1
, • D) 2:1
Correct Option: B) 30:2
Rationale: The current guideline for adult CPR is to provide chest compressions at a
ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths to ensure maximum blood flow and oxygenation.
Question 4:
In which position should a patient with respiratory distress typically be placed?
• A) Supine
• B) Prone
• C) Fowlers
• D) Lying flat
Correct Option: C) Fowlers
Rationale: The Fowlers position, where the patient is seated upright, enhances
respiratory effort and facilitates easier breathing.
Question 5:
What is the appropriate action for an EMT when encountering a patient with a
suspected spinal injury?
• A) Move the patient to a comfortable position
• B) Begin CPR immediately
• C) Stabilize the neck and spine
• D) Apply a cervical collar only if needed
Correct Option: C) Stabilize the neck and spine
Rationale: Stabilizing the neck and spine is crucial in preventing further injury to the
spinal cord during assessment and transport.
Question 6:
What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in adults?
• A) Respiratory failure
• B) Drowning
• C) Myocardial infarction
• D) Trauma
,Correct Option: C) Myocardial infarction
Rationale: Myocardial infarction (heart attack) is the leading cause of cardiac arrest in
adults, often due to ischemic heart disease.
Question 7:
Which vital sign is usually the first indication of an underlying issue?
• A) Blood pressure
• B) Heart rate
• C) Respiratory rate
• D) Temperature
Correct Option: C) Respiratory rate
Rationale: Changes in respiratory rate can indicate a variety of medical conditions and
often present before other vital signs change.
Question 8:
What type of patient would benefit from the use of oxygen therapy?
• A) A patient with a fractured arm
• B) A patient with a high fever
• C) A patient with asthma having difficulty breathing
• D) A patient recovering from surgery
Correct Option: C) A patient with asthma having difficulty breathing
Rationale: Oxygen therapy is crucial for patients experiencing respiratory distress or
hypoxia, such as those with asthma attacks.
Question 9:
What does the term 'hypoperfusion' refer to?
• A) Increased blood volume
• B) Decreased blood circulation to organs
• C) High blood pressure
• D) Normal blood circulation
, Correct Option: B) Decreased blood circulation to organs
Rationale: Hypoperfusion indicates inadequate blood flow to tissues and organs, which
can lead to shock and organ failure.
Question 10:
Which of the following is a sign of anaphylactic shock?
• A) Sweating
• B) Cyanosis
• C) Swelling of the face and throat
• D) Low blood sugar
Correct Option: C) Swelling of the face and throat
Rationale: Anaphylactic shock often presents with angioedema (swelling) as a critical
symptom requiring immediate medical intervention.
Question 11:
What is the correct procedure for using an automated external defibrillator (AED)?
• A) Apply pads only after CPR is completed
• B) Ensure the area is clear of personnel before analyzing
• C) Shock the patient immediately every time
• D) Turn the AED on only after 3 minutes of CPR
Correct Option: B) Ensure the area is clear of personnel before analyzing
Rationale: Ensuring the area is clear is essential for accurate analysis, preventing risks
of shocks to rescuers.
Question 12:
Which of the following medications is typically administered for chest pain
suspected to be cardiac in origin?
• A) Nitroglycerin
• B) Aspirin
• C) Oxygen
• D) All of the above
