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NGN HESI RN Critical Care Exam V2 (2026/2027) Verified Actual Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers & Expert Rationales Graded A+ – Latest Version

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This document contains NGN-style exam questions with verified correct answers and expert rationales for the HESI RN Critical Care Exam V2, aligned with the 2026–2027 testing version. The questions reflect the Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) format used on the Critical Care HESI, including case studies, clinical judgment items, prioritization, multiple-response, and application-based questions. Content aligns with critical care nursing concepts commonly assessed, such as hemodynamic monitoring, ventilator management, shock, sepsis, cardiac emergencies, neurological conditions, pharmacology, and patient safety in high-acuity settings.

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NGN HESI RN Critical Care Exam V2
(2026/2027) Verified Actual Exam
Questions with 100% Correct Answers
& Expert Rationales Graded A+ –
Latest Version

Q1 A client is admitted to the ICU with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The nurse
notes the PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio is 140. How should the nurse classify the severity of ARDS?

Answer: Severe ARDS

Rationale: The Berlin Definition classifies ARDS severity as:

Mild: 200–300 mmHg

Moderate: 100–200 mmHg

Severe: ≤100 mmHg A PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio of 140 indicates severe ARDS.



Q2 A client with septic shock is receiving norepinephrine. The nurse notes the client’s mean
arterial pressure (MAP) is 55 mmHg despite a norepinephrine dose of 0.5 mcg/kg/min. What is
the nurse’s priority action?

Answer: Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Rationale: Persistent hypotension (MAP <65 mmHg) despite adequate norepinephrine indicates
refractory septic shock. The provider should be notified for consideration of adding vasopressin
or other therapies (Surviving Sepsis Campaign 2021 guidelines, still current in 2026).



Q3 A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L after 4
hours of insulin and fluid therapy. What is the nurse’s priority action?

, Answer: Administer potassium replacement as prescribed

Rationale: Insulin therapy drives potassium into cells, causing hypokalemia even if initial levels
were normal/high. Potassium replacement is critical to prevent arrhythmias.



Q4 A client with acute pancreatitis develops sudden shortness of breath and hypotension. The
nurse suspects:

Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

Rationale: ARDS is a common pulmonary complication of severe acute pancreatitis due to
systemic inflammation and capillary leak.



Q5 The nurse is caring for a client with a pulmonary artery catheter. Which hemodynamic
parameter indicates cardiogenic shock?

Answer: Elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) and low cardiac index

Rationale: Cardiogenic shock is characterized by pump failure: high filling pressures (PAWP
>18 mmHg) and low cardiac output (cardiac index <2.2 L/min/m²).



Q6 A client is receiving mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) at
12 cm H₂O. The nurse notes decreased breath sounds and hypotension. What is the priority
action?

Answer: Decrease PEEP

Rationale: High PEEP can cause tension pneumothorax or decreased venous return →
hypotension. Immediate reduction of PEEP is indicated while preparing for chest tube insertion
if pneumothorax is suspected.



Q7 A client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 28 mmHg.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

Answer: Mannitol

Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce ICP in TBI when ICP >20–25 mmHg
and cerebral perfusion pressure is adequate.

Información del documento

Subido en
10 de enero de 2026
Número de páginas
5
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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