5. HRCI- SPHR Employee Relations and Engagement 75 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT

5. HRCI- SPHR Employee Relations and Engagement 75 Questions with Verified Answers Which of the following should you recommend as a last step when building an ADR process for your employer? A. Establish formal complaint procedures. B. Engage an ombudsman to help resolve disputes. C. Allow disciplinary appeals to be assigned to a peer review panel. D. Train supervisors to utilize open-door techniques for employee feedback. - CORRECT ANSWER C. There are many tools HR may use to build an effective alternative dispute resolution (ADR) process. A peer review panel may be an effective way to fairly hear the grievances of employees, reducing the likelihood of lawsuits. The production manager has filed a complaint with you, the HR director. He is upset that he was recently disciplined for failing to turn in his credit card receipts and that his company credit card was consequently suspended. He thinks the consequences were too extreme. This is the best example of which of the following? A. Distributive justice B. Procedural justice C. Discrimination D. Lack of equity - CORRECT ANSWER A. Distributive justice addresses employees' perceptions of fairness in the distribution of outcomes. In this case, the production manager does not believe that the punishment is appropriate for the offense. Employee contractual rights may be which of the following? A. Implied in an employee handbook or policies B. Entered into only by a senior executive C. Terminated by either the employee or employer at any time, and for any reason D. Entered into by a formal, written agreement - CORRECT ANSWER A. Contractual rights granted to employees can be entered into formally in writing using tools such as employment contracts, separation agreements, and collective bargaining agreements. However, courts have ruled that employee contractual rights may also be implied in employee handbooks and policies that create an expectation of continued employment or termination only for cause. A separation agreement is a type of which of the following? A. Risk management tool B. Employment contract C. Executive retention tool D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. A separation agreement is a type of employment contract that spells out the terms and conditions related to employee or executive termination or separation. More often than not, it includes some type of severance pay and, by signing the employee, exchanges the right to sue the employer for a grievance. While monitoring employee email is currently a legal practice, which of the following risk management steps should an employer take prior to doing so? A. Monitor work-related emails but not personal emails received on company computers. B. Monitor emails only if there are productivity concerns. C. Write clear policies that are reviewed by a labor attorney prior to implementation. D. Obtain signed releases from employees. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Federal and state laws regarding workplace privacy concerns can vary significantly. For this reason, HR should write clear policies that have been reviewed by the company attorney prior to engaging in any workplace monitoring efforts. In the middle of contract negotiations, the union representatives in the room request a time-out to confer together. They are using which negotiation technique? A. Stalling B. Brainstorming C. Caucusing D. Both A and B - CORRECT ANSWER C. The practice of caucusing by union representatives can be used for several reasons. This includes when there may be a disagreement between the union members that needs to be resolved outside of the presence of the employer negotiator. It is also an effective tool to control the pace of negotiations or to take a break if emotions begin to run high at the bargaining table. Which of the following can be accomplished with a robust employee attendance strategy? A. Reduced workers' compensation claims B. Increased productivity C. Improved retention D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. Senior HR professionals must build effective attendance strategies that meet the needs of both the employer and the employee. Efforts such as tracking attendance, understanding the cause of absenteeism, and quantifying the costs of absenteeism can help HR build response plans to the underlying reasons for attendance issues in the workplace. Which of the following is most important for a company evaluating employee experiences? A. Consistency B. Averages C. Trends D. Historic comparisons - CORRECT ANSWER A. When it comes to the evaluation of employee experiences at work, HR should look for consistency across all employee demographics. Employees should not be having different experiences in an organization with effective performance and behavioral standards. Positive employee relations strategies must first and foremost focus on which of the following? A. The bottom line B. The relationship between management and supervisors C. The people D. The customer - CORRECT ANSWER C. Positive employee relations strategies are organizational efforts that focus first on the people. This focus allows for greater engagement and trust, which in turn fosters productivity and customer service quality. Which of the following statements is true regarding employers that prohibit employees from all video recording and photography? A. It can be an effective way to protect employee privacy. B. It is reasonable in environments where trade secrets must be protected. C. It may be a violation of the National Labor Relations Act. D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. The National Labor Relations Board has ruled that prohibiting all video recordings or photography at work may violate an employee's right to engage in protected concerted activity. For example, a reasonable employee may construe that taking a picture of a wage schedule on a bulletin board is prohibited. The company for which you are HR director is having trouble with discourteous behavior, lack of management trust, and employees who were disconencted from the company's mission. Which of the following intervention strategies should you recommend? A. Diversity and harassment prevention initiatives B. Organizational culture initiatives C. An initiative to train managers and supervisors D. An employee survey to identify needs - CORRECT ANSWER B. A combination of issues such as the ones described illuminates the need for a company culture that is driven by company strategy that includes creation and support of a positive, inclusive company culture. This includes defining the proper way for both managers and employees to behave. Of the following steps, which should happen first when establishing an affirmative defense against a charge of sexual harassment? A. Write a policy. B. Prohibit retaliation. C. Prompt investigations. D. Train managers and supervisors. - CORRECT ANSWER A. The first step toward establishing an affirmative defense against a charge of sexual harassment is to write a zero tolerance policy for unlawful behaviors. Which of the following is a senior-level, strategic initiative in the area of employee and labor relations? A. Embedding corporate culture initiatives into HR systems B. Participating in the collective bargaining process C. Coordinating harassment prevention training for supervisors D. Conducting employee job satisfaction surveys - CORRECT ANSWER A. Strategic HR in the area of employee and labor relations are broad—not narrow—in scope. Embedding corporate culture initiatives into all HR systems requires a top-level view along with the marshaling and management of the resources necessary to execute. When should an employer give an arbitration agreement to an employee? A. At the time of hire B. Prior to a grievance being filed C. When the policy is developed D. Both A and C - CORRECT ANSWER D. An arbitration agreement is an effective tool employers may use to help resolve grievances outside of the justice system. For an agreement to be enforceable, current employees must receive (and return a signed copy of) the agreement when the policy is developed and at the time of hire for new employees. What is the European equivalent to American labor unions? A. Local governments B. Work councils C. National commissions D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER B. Works councils are most often found in European countries. They function like trade unions in that they are designed to represent the rights of workers through collective action and agreements (such as work agreements or covenants). During collective bargaining, the union is demanding that the safety shoe allowance for employees be increased by $10 per year. Of the following strategies, which would be the most effective if the company disagrees? A. Industry comparisons on the price of safety shoes B. Employee testimonials as to why safety shoes are not important C. Company financials D. Statistics showing that only 12 percent of the employees buy new safety shoes every year - CORRECT ANSWER D. HR must be prepared with data to counterbalance demands from the union that the company does not want to meet. Using in-house, real-time information can help persuade a union that their demands are unreasonable or unnecessary. Which of the following prenegotiation activities is the most helpful for HR when preparing for collective bargaining? A. Building a good relationship with the union representative B. Reviewing financials with the executive team to identify the available budget for employee demands C. Conducting an HR survey to identify what employees want D. Preparing with a labor attorney for all possible challenges - CORRECT ANSWER A. Ultimately, the collective bargaining process is supposed to improve the working environment or benefits of the employees. For this reason, HR should seek to build a positive relationship with the union representative to ensure the collective bargaining process achieves what it needs to achieve without acrimony from either side. Which of the following policies is often crafted by employers to avoid union organizing activity? A. Time-off policies B. Policies describing mandated leave laws C. Policy prohibiting political activity D. Policies addressing employee code of conduct - CORRECT ANSWER C. Policies that prohibit political activity at work are often designed to be part of a larger union avoidance strategy. The National Labor Relations Board prohibits overly broad policies, so HR must be sure that this and other types of policies do not unintentionally violate the law. Under which condition must an employer report to the Department of Labor regarding union avoidance consultation? A. If a consultant directly interacts with the employees in a potential bargaining unit B. If a consultant advises the employer but does not interact with employees C. If a consultant drafts persuader documents for supervisors D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. The Department of Labor (DOL) states in its "persuader" rule that employers and labor consultants/lawyers must report to the DOL the scope and cost of their union avoidance efforts. Which of the following is an employer unfair labor practice? A. Telling employees the company will move if they seek to organize a union B. Writing a no solicitation policy for the employee handbook C. Refusing a union request to have a recruiting event on site during company hours D. Educating supervisors on why many unions are corrupt - CORRECT ANSWER A. Employers are not permitted during a union campaign to threaten employees to persuade them to not vote for a union. What are some steps management can take to avoid union activity from beginning? A. Clearly explain the rationale behind changes. B. Remind employees of the company's competitive compensation and benefits programs. C. Treat all employees with courtesy and respect. D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. Happy employees rarely unionize, so adopting and promoting a culture of transparency and respect can go a long way toward preventing union activity from starting. This includes clearly explaining how decisions to make changes are made, reminding employees of how competitive the company is, and treating all employees with courtesy and respect. Which of the following is most likely a sign that union-organizing activity is occurring at your place of work? A. Increased complaints from employees on company social media sites B. The sudden emergence of an employee or group spokesperson C. Nonmanagement, after-hours get-togethers D. Employees complaining about new benefits offerings - CORRECT ANSWER B. Many union-organizing campaigns begin long before the employer knows they are underway. One organizing tactic is the placement of "salts"—new hires whose intention is to organize employees who often begin to speak out on behalf of a group or groups. Which of the following is the most likely reason employees may agree to a union-organizing campaign? A. Rapid change causing employees to feel insecure B. Unethical behaviors of the employer C. Encouragement by family members who may belong to a union D. Social media campaigns by the union - CORRECT ANSWER A. Rapid changes, especially those such as layoffs or work furloughs, cause many employees to fear for their job security. Employers and supervisors who fail to effectively manage these changes often find themselves facing a union-organizing campaign. Which of the following conditions has contributed to an increase in union-organizing efforts? A. The reduction of employee rights under conservative administrations B. The lack of response to petitions to increase the federal minimum wage C. The increased targeting of nonmanufacturing employers by the unions D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER C. While overall union membership has been considered to be on the decline for the last several years, union-organizing efforts are actually increasing. This is primarily the result of unions targeting non-manufacturing employers, specifically those in service industries. During the collective bargaining process, the union demands that all members receive an additional paid holiday. Which strategy is most effective for HR to use during negotiations? A. Resolve this issue before moving on to the next. B. Survey employees to see whether that is what they really value. C. Table the discussion until you have seen all union demands. D. Immediately agree, since this issue has a relatively minor impact on company financials. - CORRECT ANSWER C. While there are many ways to negotiate on specific issues, negotiation experts recommend waiting to see the full list of demands before committing the company. In this example, while agreeing to one additional paid holiday seems innocuous, the union may also plan to ask for double-time pay for all company holidays. In that context, the true cost of agreement is higher. A manager has been asked to use a forced distribution appraisal tool and must allocate her employees according to a predetermined scale. She complains that all of her employees' performance is satisfactory—none are above average, and none are below average. Which of the following is most likely occurring? A. Bias B. The error of averages C. The manager is not paying close enough attention to employee performance. D. The error of central tendency - CORRECT ANSWER D. The central tendency error occurs when managers rate all employees as average. Using the same scenario as in the previous question, how should HR respond? A. Work with the manager to complete the performance reviews, asking relevant questions for accuracy. B. Train the manager on how to effectively collect and deliver constructive feedback. C. Train the manager on the types of rater bias and how to avoid them. D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. Management coaching is often the responsibility of human resources, especially when the performance is related to an HR function. Some managers rate all employees as average because they are fearful of conflict, so training her on how to offer constructive feedback will develop her management skills. Teaching her about the types of rater bias will help her avoid the errors in the future. Helping her complete the appraisal will improve the odds of getting them delivered to the employees in a timely manner while ensuring that the feedback is meaningful. One performance management struggle of a major electronics parts manufacturer is the ability to make abstract concepts, such as culture and initiative, measurable. Which HR solution should you recommend to their leaders? A. To be legally defensible, they should measure only what is quantifiable. B. They should work with line supervisors to clarify the abstract concepts and then design specific tools for measurement. C. They should use 360-degree feedback to collect information on all performance - CORRECT ANSWER B. It is possible to make intangible performance measures such as cultural behaviors and strategic initiatives measurable. An effective solution requires both clarity and specificity, so HR should work with all involved to have a solid understanding of what success factors in these areas look like. From there, tools and training for raters can be established. What is the final step in a performance measurement system? A. Feedback B. Pay increases C. Quarterly reviews D. Promotion - CORRECT ANSWER A. A performance measurement system begins by developing performance metrics and ends by giving employees feedback. The company you work for is struggling to develop cohesive teams that are focused on organizational results as opposed to individual results. Which of the following performance measurement components is most likely contributing to the problem? A. The company leaders may not have a clear vision of successful performance outputs. B. The company culture is too competitive. C. The company has too many disparate business units. D. The company's performance appraisals are highly individualized. - CORRECT ANSWER D. One of the major challenges for organizations is that their performance appraisals focus more on individual behaviors that are quantifiable, as opposed to business or cultural behaviors that are less tangible. If employees are measured only on their individual behaviors, they are more likely to focus their development efforts in that area, often at the expense of organizational cohesiveness. Which of the following should be the starting point for a talent management cycle? A. Establishing performance benchmarks B. Creating skills training for current performance C. Tying employee pay levels to performance D. Writing meaningful performance appraisal templates - CORRECT ANSWER A. While the talent cycle must align to the employee life cycle, the performance management activities begin with an accurate review of performance measurements. From these benchmarks, other talent management activities may be built. Which of the following types of feedback is more likely to be expected of members on an executive team? A. Regular peer to peer B. Weekly meetings with the CEO C. Annual 360 degree D. Quarterly from the executive team facilitator - CORRECT ANSWER A. Executive teams are designed to drive organizational effectiveness through group effort. Consequently, transparent, lateral feedback that is given as needed is a benchmark of this management structure. What is the primary purpose of a union security agreement? A. To protect employees' right to organize B. To create a perpetuation contract C. To ensure the union remains funded D. To protect union members from security risks - CORRECT ANSWER C. Union security agreements are clauses in a collective bargaining agreement. They require that employees make payments to the union to remain employed. While these agreements cannot require employees to join the union, they can compel the employees to exist as dues-paying non-members. Note that the 2018 Janus ruling no longer allows this for public unions. The collective bargaining process at the casino for which you are HR is coming up. You have been asked to prepare data related to increasing the allowance for employee footwear. Which of the following should you bring to aid in the negotiation? A. Total number of employees and how many employees bought new shoes in the last year B. Total number of union members, current price of approved footwear, and number of employees who used the allowance during the last contract period C. Total number of u - CORRECT ANSWER B. HR often plays the role of providing relevant data for the collective bargaining process. In this case, knowing the total number of current union members will help you estimate on the high end what that benefit would cost. This is accomplished by using current shoe pricing and projected purchases in the new contract period. An employee at your company posted a disparaging message on her personal Facebook page related to unlawful immigrants. Many of her co-workers—who were Facebook friends—saw the message and were offended because they had family members whose immigration status was in question. For the rest of the week, the co-workers stopped talking to the employee, were avoiding her at lunch, and tensions were running high. Eventually, an employee complained to HR. How should HR respond? A. Meet with the invo - CORRECT ANSWER A. Any situation that occurs as the result of a working relationship has the potential to cause issues for employers. Additionally, employers are extremely limited on regulating any type of social media behaviors of their employees. For these reasons, HR should address the work-related behaviors that were the result of the situation and remind them of professional workplace standards. As the HR director for a large media outlet, you have been asked to participate in the collective bargaining process. The union members have just rejected a tentative settlement that cut member wages by 10 percent. You were instructed to respond with a new proposal that cut wages even further, by 23 percent, and to notify the union that unless accepted, the company would have to start the process of selling or shutting down the business. This is an example of what type of management bargaining s - CORRECT ANSWER C. Ultra-concession bargaining is a strategy used most often by management to pressure unions into making concessions they otherwise may not have made. This is often accomplished using aggressive techniques such as rescinding what was originally negotiated and threatening shut-down or sale. Giving union leaders a decision-making voice and access to company financials are characteristics of what type of union-management relationship? A. Concession B. Conventional C. Conciliatory D. Cooperative - CORRECT ANSWER D. Union-management cooperatives, or co-ops, are growing in popularity. This is because unions and employers recognize that the acrimony reflected in history does not serve employee needs. Granting decision-making authority and access to company financial records builds trust and increases the likelihood that the business will survive in a difficult economy. What is the primary advantage for employers when it comes to negotiating lump-sum pay increases during the collective bargaining process? A. It limits the compounding effect of labor agreements over time. B. It helps manage the cost of labor during the contract period. C. It can include traditional cost of living increases. D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. A lump-sum pay increase occurs when employers pay a single, annual bonus in lieu of an hourly pay raise. Because this payment is not added to base pay, it helps mitigate increases to overtime and pension plans. Union contracts often build upon each other, so maintaining a lower hourly rate can also chill the effect of compounding over several contract years. And finally, a lump-sum payment can be negotiated to account for any cost-of-living increase expectations on the part of employees. Which of the following wage cost-cutting strategies during collective bargaining would be most effective for a large retailer that depends on entry-level and low-skilled workers? A. Lump-sum payments B. Two-tier pay systems C. Cost-of-living increases D. Wage freezes - CORRECT ANSWER B. Two-tier pay systems are characterized by new hires being paid less for the same/similar jobs than incumbents. In retailing, where turnover is traditionally high, most workers will soon be in a lower tier, having the effect of cutting wages overall. Which of the following types of benefit negotiation strategies during the collective bargaining process is most likely to help a company appear more financially secure to investors? A. Successfully negotiating a voluntary employee benefit agreement B. Deferring employee wage increases until the next contract negotiation C. Entering into health insurance captive accounts D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER A. Voluntary employee benefit agreements and associations (VEBA) transfer the obligation of providing retiree health benefits from the employer to the union. This decreases the company's liabilities on the company balance sheet. What is the primary advantage to union members of making the union—rather than the employer—responsible for their health benefits once they retire? A. Their benefits are guaranteed upon retirement. B. They receive equivalent or better benefits upon retirement. C. Their benefits are better protected. D. Their retiree benefits will be less costly. - CORRECT ANSWER C. When a union takes on the responsibility for retiree benefits through a VEBA, they become part of separate financials from the employer. This keeps the benefits protected from creditors should the company declare bankruptcy or from being viewed as negotiable under future contracts. What is an employer seeking to negotiate if they ask a union to expand job classifications so employees can work outside of their normal job scope? A. Benefits B. Work rules C. Cost shifting D. Security clauses - CORRECT ANSWER B. There are several areas up for negotiation, and they include work rules. Employers seek to renegotiate work rules to improve productivity and/or reduce cost. This may include redesigning jobs, using performance-rather than seniority-based systems, and/or being allowed to use contract workers when necessary. With the recent NLRB rule changes allowing for an expedited election process, which of the following union avoidance strategies should HR consider? A. Begin to screen applicants to determine whether they are pro-union. B. Embed policies in the handbook that prohibit social media posts about work. C. Hire a professional union avoidance firm immediately when notified of an election. D. Build and maintain perpetual avoidance strategies. - CORRECT ANSWER D. The National Labor Relations Board in 2015 granted unions the right to hold expedited elections. This change severely diminished the ability of employers to respond once a union campaign is underway. For this reason, HR must help their employers build and maintain perpetual avoidance strategies such as positive employee relations, open-door policies, in-house grievance procedures, and transparent communications. The retail restaurant chain for which you have just been hired has a social media policy that prohibits employees from making "disparaging, false, misleading, harassing, or discriminatory statements about or relating to the employer and other parties." This is the best example of which of the following? A. An unlawful policy B. Creating an affirmative defense against a claim of harassment C. A code of conduct statement D. A discriminatory policy - CORRECT ANSWER A. The National Labor Relations Board has made it clear that employee statements about work and working conditions are a "protected concerted activity." In this example, the NLRB found this policy to be over-broad when Chipotle Restaurant fired an employee for negative tweets and other behaviors regarding low wages. Which of the following intrinsic motivational constructs is made up of meaning, competence, self-determination, and impact? A. Psychological empowerment B. Self-actualization C. Personal competencies D. Emotional intelligence - CORRECT ANSWER A. Psychological empowerment is a motivational construct that may be used by employers to understand and, therefore, improve job satisfaction. Specifically, meaning indicates person-to-job fit (values-based), competence is an individual's belief in their abilities and skills, self-determination is related to autonomy, and impact is the degree to which an employee has influence and control over job outcomes. High degrees of employee job satisfaction are most positively correlated with which of the following job attitudes? A. Conscientousness B. Organizational commitment C. Positivity D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER B. Employee engagement, job satisfaction, and organizational commitment are the three main types of job attitudes. Organizational commitment is the degree to which an employee is attached to an organization and is influenced by the degree of overall job satisfaction. "A relatively enduring state of mind referring to the simultaneous investment of personal energies in the experience or performance of work" is the definition of which of the following employee conditions? A. Job satisfaction B. Organizational commitment C. Employee engagement D. Job involvement - CORRECT ANSWER C. There has been some confusion, and thus misapplication, of the definition of employee engagement. What is understood to be true, however, is that having high levels of employee engagement increases employee job satisfaction and thus their performance. Employee engagement differs from other job attitudes in that it refers to the investment of multiple resources (psychological, emotional, physical, etc.) into the work tasks, as opposed to in the company as a whole. While observing employees doing their work as part of the job analysis process, you noticed that productivity increased. When you stopped observing the employees, productivity went back down to normal levels. This is the best example of which of the following? A. The Hawthorne effect B. Job inflation C. Employee fear of getting in trouble D. McClelland's need theory - CORRECT ANSWER A. Many experts agree that the study of organizational behavior started with the Hawthorne studies. From these studies, the phenomenon called the Hawthorne effect emerged, which noted that paying attention to employee behaviors and needs will result in improved productivity and more positive job attitudes. A manager wants to reward Lisa, one of his graphic designers, who is highly conscientious, easy to work with, and able to work independently on complex design projects. Which of the following is the best example of an extrinsic reward that would support Lisa's intrinsic sense of motivation? A. Giving her a pay increase B. Setting limits on how often Lisa should be responding to after-hours emails C. Granting her more time to work on creative projects D. Changing her schedule so she can better wo - CORRECT ANSWER C. Too often, managers and employers assume that the only way to increase employee motivation is to increase their pay. In many cases, organizations may use extrinsic rewards (other than money) in service of intrinsic motivators. Intrinsic motivators are tasks employees enjoy completing because they find them interesting and satisfying. In this example, a graphic designer may find it rewarding to work on more open-ended, creative projects as opposed to the more systematic tasks that are the "necessary evils" of these types of roles. Which of the following conditions is likely to occur as the result of the high-profile sexual harassment cases in the news? A. An increase in the number of harassment claims filed B. Changes to how non-disclosure agreements are used by employers C. A review of internal practices to reduce favoritism D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. The implications from the high-profile harassment claims in the news and the resulting #metoo movement are many. The expectation is that there will be an increase in complaints of harassment, both to internal sources and to external agencies. Companies will need to look at their use of nondisclosure agreements—and subsequent payments—to ensure they are not violating employee rights. Employers will also need to take steps to reduce claims of favoritism in the workplace, such as those that may arise if supervisors are allowed to manage or otherwise make decisions about employment benefits of someone they have a romantic interest in. The CFO at the large media services agency for which you work has been accused of sexual harassment. After the investigation, the accuser signed a confidentiality agreement and was paid a six-figure settlement. Which of the following statements is true? A. The confidentiality agreement was unlawful. B. The company may not deduct the settlement fees on their corporate taxes. C. The CFO should be fired. D. The company will be obligated to keep the accuser employed. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Beginning in 2018, companies are restricted on the types of settlement claims they may deduct from their corporate taxes. Section 162(q) of the act disallows "i) any settlement or payment related to sexual harassment or sexual abuse, if the settlement or payment is subject to a nondisclosure agreement; or (ii) attorneys' fees related to the settlement or payment" to be used as a tax deduction. Which of the following are representative of the types of diversity that must be managed within an organization? A. Employee attitudes B. Age C. Personality characteristics D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. The term diversity refers to individual differences among employees. There are two types of diversity—surface level and deep level. Surface level includes the observable traits such as age, gender, and ethnicity. Deep level includes employee job attitudes, values, personality traits, and beliefs. Which of the following elements are addressed by developments in the study of organizational neuroscience? A. Change management B. Unconscious bias C. Diversity and inclusion D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. There are several biological factors that are being studied in the field of organizational behavior. In addition to the study of genetics is the study of organizational neuroscience. Advancements in this field have implications for the work application of creating sustainable change, awareness, and thus mitigation of unconscious bias and how to work with a diverse group of people and across cultures. Which of the following employees would be the best choice to serve as the head of a company's diversity council? A. The CEO B. The HR director C. The VP of operations D. The operations manager - CORRECT ANSWER C. Diversity councils are formed to help embed diversity initiatives throughout the company operations. They accomplish this by having a diverse group of individuals meet and work on diversity-related initiatives and solve problems. It is imperative for the head of the council to have a solid understanding of business operations while also having enough authority to be credible and enough authority to approve initiatives. For these reasons, the VP of operations is the best choice. Which of the following are elements of an effective performance management system? A. Performance appraisals B. Goal-setting C. Coaching D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. An effective system for managing employee performance reaches beyond the operational task of performance appraisal. While performance feedback is important, so also are the developmentally focused activities of goal-setting and coaching. You recently received a complaint about the quality manager from one of his direct reports that he was behaving unprofessionally. This was out of character for the quality manager, as he normally is easy to work with, so you hesitated to open a formal investigation. A week later, you receive another, related complaint that made you realize you had to intervene. In looking at his file, it had been more than a year since his last performance appraisal, so you decided to start there. Which of the f - CORRECT ANSWER A. Multisource feedback, also known as 360-degree feedback and upward appraisals, involves multiple raters at various levels within the organization. They are useful tools to get a clear picture of how an employee is performing while at the same time reducing rater bias and involving subordinates in the feedback process. Which of the following is a form of performance feedback bias that is most often present when reviewing telecommuting employee performance? A. Cognitive B. Face time C. Horn effect D. Negative emphasis - CORRECT ANSWER B. Face time is a term coined to describe the physical presence of an employee at a job site. Dynamic face time occurs with in-person interactions, such as meeting attendance, whereas passive face time occurs through simple observation, such as seeing a person working at her desk. Studies have shown that face time can influence how co-workers and managers perceive an employee. Thus, unintentional bias can occur when a telecommuting employee's commitment or dependability is questioned because of a lack of face time. "Takes shortcuts around established procedures" and "Never deviates from established procedures" are two examples from what type of performance rating scale? A. Comparison B. Checklist C. Narrative D. Behaviorally anchored - CORRECT ANSWER D. Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) are characterized by degrees of employee performance expressed as behavioral descriptions. Using the example from question 58, the behavioral examples on the scale are called what? A. Key performance indicators B. Critical incidents C. Standard work audits D. Behavioral statements - CORRECT ANSWER B. Critical incidents are behavioral descriptions of important behaviors for job performance. In developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale, writers must develop critical incidents at high, medium, and low effectiveness. A new supervisory position has opened up at the grocery chain where you work. Senior leaders asked you to review the most recent performance appraisals to help identify which employee should be promoted. Upon doing so, you noted that the majority of the eligible employees all had been lumped together in the top of the scale distribution. This is an example of what type of rating scale error? A. Halo effect B. Forced distribution C. Horn effect D. Range restriction - CORRECT ANSWER D. Range restriction occurs when only a small part of a rating scale is used when giving performance appraisals. Employee morale can be affected when this occurs; employees who believe they are top performers will feel as though their contributions aren't distinguished from those of the more lackluster performers in the department. For an employer who wants to be able to use performance feedback to make promotion decisions—such as the one in question 60—which of the following rating tools would be most effective? A. BARS B. Forced distribution C. Checklists D. Likert scales - CORRECT ANSWER B. Forced distribution requires that raters place a percentage of their employees in each category of high, medium, and low. Similar to grading on a curve, supervisors categorize all employees using a predetermined formula, such as 20 percent high, 10 percent low, and 70 percent in the middle. With regard to job burnout, employers should seek to help employees use their stress to enhance performance, up to a maximum point. This is an example of employers helping employees do what? A. Synthesize stress B. Eliminate stress C. Optimize stress D. Reduce stress - CORRECT ANSWER C. Stress is a form of system arousal that can help employees focus attention on certain tasks, but only up to a point, or optimal level. Once that level has been reached, employee performance becomes more randomized and, as a result, declines. Employers can help increase awareness of this by education and training initiatives while also providing challenging work and environments that reward learning. Stress at work is related to which of the following job outcomes? A. Absenteeism B. Higher use of health insurance C. Negative job attitudes D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. Too much stress—both personal and professional—has a negative influence on all job attitudes and performance. Negative outcomes may include turnover, withdrawal behaviors (such as absenteeism), lower levels of organizational commitment, illness, use of sick time, health care benefits, and workplace accidents. With some studies noting that more than 60 percent of Americans say that managing stress is important but only 35 percent think they are doing a good job at it, this is a significant area where HR can contribute. What is the most important benefit of a return-to-work (RTW) program? A. They reduce the overall cost of a workplace injury. B. RTW programs can be built to serve employees with work-related and non- work-related injuries or illness. C. RTW programs reduce the risk of a lawsuit. D. RTW programs eliminate the need for modified duty. - CORRECT ANSWER B. There are many benefits to return-to-work (RTW) programs, but one of the greatest benefits is that a well-crafted RTW program can serve those who have been injured at work and those who have a non-work-related injury or illness. RTWs can help offset the financial impact of an employee reliant upon state disability programs and help employers keep talented employees at work. Conducting workplace threat assessments is what type of strategic HR activity? A. Planning B. Response C. Business continuity D. Education - CORRECT ANSWER A. Response planning is a critical element in any type of employer risk management practice. Proper planning includes conducting assessments, identifying resources, building response plans, and then training the workforce on each plan. Unexpected loss of key employees, pandemics, and disaster recovery are threats that share the need for which of the following types of plans? A. Strategic plans B. Risk management plans C. Business continuity plans D. Health and safety plans - CORRECT ANSWER C. There are many types of crises a company may be called upon to respond to. This includes workforce planning issues such as the loss of critical personnel, a pandemic event such as the swine flu, and recovering/responding to both natural and manmade disasters. All three have a component of the continuation of business so that all stakeholders are protected. The communication tower industry has a high incidence of workplace fatalities. The employers joined together and established two goals: to reduce workplace fatalities by 25 percent and to reduce workplace accidents by 4 percent. These employers are most likely engaged in which risk management strategy? A. Engaging in an OSHA partnership B. Negotiating a collective bargaining agreement C. Complying with a works council agreement D. Completing a risk assessment - CORRECT ANSWER A. To be approved to participate in an OSHA co-op or partnership, employers must set goals related to reducing workplace hazards. In this case, tower owners in Nebraska worked with OSHA to get approval to participate in a partnership program designed to make the workplace safer for all employees in the industry. Irregular or unnatural body movements at work is the focus of what type of risk management activity? A. Addressing workplace diseases B. Complying with OSHA's general duty clause C. Ergonomics training D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. The science of ergonomics involves studying the way the physical work environment stresses various body parts. Poor ergonomic design or behaviors can result in musculoskeletal diseases. While there is no specific OSHA standard that addresses how to prevent these types of injuries in the workplace, employers are obligated to do so under the general duty standard. The Department of Labor reports that victims of intimate partner violence (IPV) lose nearly 8 million days of paid work per year in the United States, resulting in more than $1 billion in lost productivity for employers. As a result, many employers are implementing policies that include information related to domestic violence. Which of the following elements should be included in an IPV policy? A. Protection and restraining order process B. Security concerns C. Leave availability related to dea - CORRECT ANSWER D. Because of the unique needs and nature of IPV in the workplace, a domestic violence policy should be written separately from other policies (such as workplace violence). An IPV policy should include language that addresses how a restraining or other protective order will be handled, how a security or potential security threat will be addressed, and what type of leave may be available to employees who are victims of domestic violence. Which of the following should be a first step in preventing abusive conduct and harassing behaviors at work? A. Take all claims of bullying or harassment seriously. B. Train employees on how to report bullying behaviors. C. Embed workplace civility initiatives into the culture. D. Establish an anti-harassment policy. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Many forms of bullying and harassment are the result of the escalation of workplace incivility such as rudeness or disrespect. While the other elements speak to compliance with unlawful harassment laws, workplace civility initiatives are embedded within the culture. This approach serves as a first line of defense against micro behaviors escalating into violent or unlawful bullying or harassing events. The telecommunications company you work for recently spun off its wireless division. Your CEO asked you to commission a study that compares the remaining top talent with major competitors in the same market. This is an example of which talent management technique? A. Behavioral benchmarking B. Equity research C. Comparative appraisals D. Gap analysis - CORRECT ANSWER A. Behavioral benchmarking is a talent management technique used to identify gaps in leadership competencies. This is often used in response to major changes in the workplace that may require OD interventions at the leadership level or a refocus of organizational resources to fill gaps. Talent management approaches have evolved beyond the single performance appraisal into a more holistic experience that draws from multiple disciplines. Best practices, 360-degree feedback, and leadership self-awareness are all examples of which of the following such disciplines? A. HR, business, strategy B. Industry, academics, associations C. Business, HR, psychology D. Psychology, organizational behavior, coaching - CORRECT ANSWER C. Talent management programs and processes are being designed using applied theories from the domains of business (industry best practices), human resources (360-degree feedback), and psychology (self-awareness tools such as personality profiling and emotional intelligence). Complete the following sentence: Talent management systems are unsustainable when there is a lack of _____________ planning. A. Top level B. Strategic C. Action D. Workforce - CORRECT ANSWER C. One of the main inhibitors to talent management system sustainability is the lack of action planning for follow-up. Too often, employers utilize their resources designing and implementing a system and not enough resources maintaining and evaluating the program. Before executive compensation can be both defined and measured, there are several factors that must be considered. Which of the following measures would most likely be included in a company's equity philosophy when designing an executive performance evaluation system? A. Measures of diversity B. Measures of compensation C. Measures of business strategy D. Measures of culture - CORRECT ANSWER B. A company's compensation philosophy and the resulting system for measuring and rewarding executives would have to consider internal and external equity factors. Examples of these factors include ratio of CEO pay to individual contributor pay and labor market rates. Which of the following statements are true regarding the requirements for executive performance appraisals? A. The NYSE requires that CEO performance be evaluated. B. NASDAQ does not require CEO performance evaluations. C. The SEC only requires that the criteria for executive compensation be clearly outlined. D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. For publicly traded companies, it is important to understand the requirements for CEO and NEO performance evaluations. Because there is lack of consistency regarding this issue, many companies choose to design systems for executive performance appraisals as part of best practices in corporate governance.