MNG3701 Case Studies Q&A
MNG3701 Case Study Q&A:
Recommended strategic approach to doing business in SA
Explanation of the importance of ethical business and suggestions on how Apple could promote good business ethics
Distinguishing between the types of business level strategies and evaluating the types pursued
Identifying alternative strategic options be used.
Overall approach: global strategic approach
Explain the importance of ethical business and give examples of what Apple could do to promote it.
Overall approach: global strategic approach
Importance of ethical business
Delineating business level strategies
1. Cost leadership strategy
2. Differentiation strategy
3. Focus on low-cost leadership and differentiation strategies
4. Best-cost provider strategy
Evaluating strategic choice
Identifying suitable alternatives to business level strategy
1. Strategic alliances
2. Joint ventures
3. Turnaround and exit strategies
Explanations of the shortcomings of the traditional process approach to strategic management and the new perspectives on strategic management that have emerged in response to these shortcomings, together with the use of practical examples.
Comparison between strategic, tactical and operational decisions. A discussion follows on the concept of the analysis of the industry environment.
resource-based view and a discussion on sources of resources, capabilities and core competencies.
SHORTCOMINGS OF THE TRADITIONAL PROCESS APPROACH TO STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT AND NEW PERSPECTIVES ON STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT
1. The traditional process perspective
2. Deliberate and emergent strategies
3. Strategy-as-practice perspective
STRATEGIC, TACTICAL AND OPERATIONAL DECISIONS
IMPORTANCE, BENEFITS AND RISKS OF STRATEGY
COMPETITIVE ADVANTAGE AND SUSTAINABLE COMPETITIVE ADVANTAGE
concept of competitive advantage and explain the requirements for a sustainable competitive advantage
STRUCTURE, DYNAMICS AND ATTRACTIVENESS OF AN INDUSTRY
Analyse the structure, dynamics and attractiveness of the industry
South University NSG4028 W5 Assignment 2 Final Exam
Question 1 of 52 When a nurse educator observes a client adhering to a prescribed medication regimen, the nurse educator can directly measure which behavior? (Points : 5)
Question 2 of 52 Which factor is not a probable effect of low socioeconomic status on an individual's ability to learn? (Points : 5)
Susceptibility to illness
Question 3 of 52 Following a 20 minute teaching session, the patient will be able to identify 5 sites for insulin injection with 100% accuracy. Which domain of learning is utilized in this objective? (Points : 5)
combination of domains
Question 4 of 52 According to the U.S. Census Bureau, which group is the largest and fastest-growing subculture in the United States? (Points : 5)
Asian/Pacific Islander Americans
Question 5 of 52 Which is a guideline for developing and administering the Cloze test? (Points : 5)
Systematically delete every fifth word from sentences in a passage, keeping the first and last sentence intact.
Allow the reader approximately five minutes to take the test, but allow the reader a few more minutes if needed.
Choose educational materials that previously have been familiar to the reader.
Use words of equal length to substitute for the blank spaces that the reader will see in a given paragraph.
Question 6 of 52 When teaching adults, which of the following would not be a consideration with adult learning theory? (Points : 5)
adult learners are self-directed
adult learners prefer using gaming as a learning strategy
adult learners want to apply learning immediately
the teacher is a facilitator
Question 7 of 52All of the following statements are true about motivational factors except: (Points : 5)
Factors that influence motivation can serve as incentives or obstacles to achieve desired behaviors.
The learner can be influenced by the educator, who can act as a motivational facilitator or blocker.
A motivational incentive for one learner may be a motivational obstacle for another learner.
Facilitating or blocking factors that shape motivation to learn are classified into three major categories that are mutually exclusive of one another.
Question 8 of 52 Which factor is not a probable effect of low socioeconomic status on an individual's ability to learn? (Points : 5)
Susceptibility to illness
Question 9 of 52 The ease with which written or printed work can be read is: (Points : 5)
Question 10 of 52 Which model is used in health screening programs to predict preventive health behavior? (Points : 5)
Health belief model
Health prevention model
Question 11 of 52 Which of the following assessment findings might be a clue about a patient's low literacy ability? (Points : 5)
Completing all hospital admission forms
Using the excuse of being too busy, not interested, too tired, or not feeling well enough to read instructional materials
following directions carefully
Question 12 of 52 When comparing male and female brain functioning, which ability is consistently done better by males than females and currently is thought to have a genetic origin? (Points : 5)
Question 13 of 52 Which are the primary interacting components of the health belief model? (Points : 5)
Age, sex, and race
Individual perceptions, modifying factors, and likelihood of action
Sociopsychological variables, structural variables, and cues to action
Prevention, promotion, and maintenance interventions
Question 14 of 52 While noncompliance frequently has a negative connotation, it can also be viewed as a: (Points : 5)
resilient response or defensive coping mechanism
a communication feedback loop
Question 15 of 52 Which learning theory is described by the idea to change behavior, a person's perceptions and thoughts must be changed? (Points : 5)
Question 16 of 52 Evaluation of learner performance is a more complex process in the affective domain than in the other domains of learning because in the affective domain, evaluation of learner performance (Points : 5)
is less overt, tangible, and observable.
is a multidimensional, in-depth process.
occurs informally in unstructured environments.
usually happens under formal conditions in structured settings.
Question 17 of 52 Why is the SMOG formula a particularly useful measurement tool? (Points : 5)
It is one of the most valid tests of readability.
It can be applied to printed materials containing less than thirty sentences.
It calculates the readability of printed materials from kindergarten to college level.
It assesses grade level of the reader based on 75% comprehension of the material.
Question 18 of 52 Illiteracy is generally interpreted as having reading skills at or below which grade level? (Points : 5)
Question 19 of 52 In addition to giving information, according to the principles of teaching and learning, all nurses should be prepared to (Points : 5)
assess learning needs, readiness, and styles.
determine whether the information has been received and understood.
revise the approach to teaching if the client does not comprehend the information.
All of the above.
Question 20 of 52 A staff of nurses is caring for a group of Laotian mothers and infants in an inner-city maternal/child health clinic. Nursing interventions focus on well-baby care, women's health issues, and illness prevention. The staff view all members of this client group as homogenous, with each person seen as adhering to all of the traditions, values, customs, and beliefs of the group to which they have affiliation. The nurses' views are an example of (Points : 5)
Question 21 of 52 For the following items, match the advantage of using a particular instructional method with the correct method:
(Points : 5)
1 : Demonstration/return demonstration
2 : Gaming
3 : Lecture
4 : Computer-assisted instruction
1: Innovative, active learning, requires critical thinking and problem-solving
2: Opportunity to overlearn, requires supervision, provides immediate feedback
3: Allows learner to work at own pace, subject-centered, opportunity for continuous feedback
4: Flexible, good for large groups, time efficient
Question 22 of 52 Cognitive development perspective theory is enhanced through a focus on: (Points : 5)
the learners developmental stage
the influence of culture
organizing information an making it meaningful
effective role models
Question 23 of 52 What is the primary purpose of the e-Health Code of Ethics? (Points : 5)
To provide the legal basis for removing health-related websites containing inaccurate or misleading information
To ensure that all health consumers have equal access to Internet-based resources
To serve as the standard for comparing and evaluating health-related websites
To protect consumers who are using Internet-based resources to obtain accurate healthcare information and services
Question 24 of 52 Which teaching strategy is not aimed at increasing motivation and compliance in individuals with low literacy skills? (Points : 5)
Asking open-ended questions
Question 25 of 52 Leading a group discussion requires the instructor to carry out all of the following tasks except: (Points : 5)
maintaining focus on objectives for learning.
correcting errors made by participants.
providing foundational background information.
tying together key points that are put forth by group members.
Question 26 of 52 Which method is least effective for teaching objectives in the affective domain? (Points : 5)
Question 27 of 52 How is comprehension best defined? (Points : 5)
The ease with which written or printed information can be read
The degree to which individuals understand what they have read
The ability to read numbers and accurately pronounce printed words
The ability to accurately interpret the spoken word and oral instruction
Question 28 of 52 Which of the following is a benefit of education to staff: (Points : 5)
enhances patient outcomes
decreases patient anxiety
increases autonomy in practice
increases patient satisfaction
Question 29 of 52
Which strategy will most likely result in obtaining the most accurate health information on the World Wide Web? (Points : 5)
Restrict Web searches to those sites authored by healthcare professionals.
Avoid the use of websites sponsored by vendors or others whose goal is sales.
Determine if the same information can be found on multiple websites.
Use websites that have been updated on a regular basis.
Question 30 of 52The nurse educator uses a search engine to find information about colon cancer. The search engine identifies 676 possible websites. Which is an accurate statement about Web searches that is reflected in this example? (Points : 5)
The World Wide Web is so large that most Web searches only uncover a small percentage of relevant websites.
Search engines are so powerful that most Web searches result in a complete list of relevant websites.
If the proper search commands are used, most Web searches result in a list of the majority of relevant websites.
Due to the structure of the World Wide Web, most Web searches only uncover the largest websites available on a particular topic.
Question 31 of 52 Which statement about gender differences in cognitive abilities is correct? (Points : 5)
Girls often score higher than boys on intelligence tests in middle school and high school.
Boys tend to develop verbal skills and math skills at an earlier age than girls develop these skills.
Women are better able than men in the ability to discern and later recall the location of objects in a complex, random pattern.
Men are more likely than women to attend to details and irrelevant cues in the surrounding field.
Question 32 of 52 Which of the following is another name for formative evaluation? (Points : 5)
Question 33 of 52 What is the best definition for the term motivation? (Points : 5)
The premise on which an understanding of a phenomenon is based
A submission or yielding to a predetermined goal
A psychological force that moves a person toward some kind of action
An observable behavior that can be directly measured
Question 34 of 52 What is the definition of the term acculturation? (Points : 5)
Incorporation of cultural beliefs and values into one's daily life
Adherence to the practices and custom's of one's own cultural group
A willingness to adapt or modify one's own culture as a result of contact with another culture
Transference from one cultural lifestyle to another set of cultural beliefs and values
Question 35 of 52 Written materials are advantageous primarily because: (Points : 5)
Written words are the most abstract way to convey information.
Most materials are written at an appropriate level.
They usually give immediate feedback.
They are easily obtainable through commercial sources
Question 36 of 52 Which information should the nurse educator stress when speaking to a group of staff nurses about the World Wide Web and health education? (Points : 5)
There are many health-related resources available on the World Wide Web for healthcare consumers, but for a number of reasons, few people actually use these resources.
Studies have shown that many healthcare consumers use the World Wide Web and allow the information they find to influence their healthcare decisions.
Although health-related resources on the World Wide Web could be used by healthcare consumers, most websites are designed to be used by healthcare professionals.
Healthcare consumers are eager to use the World Wide Web for health information, but few have the computer skills necessary to access the information they are seeking.
Question 37 of 52 A nurse educator working in the field of consumer informatics most likely would be involved with which project? (Points : 5)
Comparison of the types of Web pages used by men and women seeking health-related information
Survey of nurses' perceptions of a training program aimed at preparing staff to use a new information management system
Development of a form that can be delivered online for use in evaluating satisfaction with the outpatient services provided by a particular hospital
Analysis of a client's willingness to purchase medication and other health supplies via the World Wide Web
Question 38 of 52 What is the first step in planning an evaluation? (Points : 5)
Determine the scope of the evaluation.
Identify the evaluation design.
Determine the focus of the evaluation.
Justify the cost of the evaluation.
Question 39 of 52
The inclusion of significant others in providing patient education is mandated by: (Points : 5)
Healthy People 2020
state nurse practice acts
The Joint Commission
Question 40 of 52 Following a 20 minute teaching session, the patient will administer insulin into the thigh with 100% accuracy. Which domain of learning is utilized in this objective? (Points : 5)
combination of domains
Question 41 of 52 Which of the following indices is not used to measure social class? (Points : 5)
Occupation of parents
Dependence on welfare
Location of residence
Educational level of parents
Question 42 of 52 A commitment or attachment to a prescribed, predetermined regimen is described as: (Points : 5)
Question 43 of 52 Determinants of learning include all of the following except: (Points : 5)
readiness to learn
motivation to learn
Question 44 of 52 The broad purposes, benefits, and goals of the teaching-learning process are (Points : 5)
to predetermine client outcomes to accomplish the goals of care.
to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of practice.
to ensure client/family compliance with therapeutic regimens.
to increase the competence and confidence of the learner.
Question 45 of 52 When writing behavioral objectives, it is best to avoid using which verb below because it is subject to many interpretations? (Points : 5)
Question 46 of 52 Which role of the nurse educator is most consistent with teaching in the Information Age? (Points : 5)
Provider of information
Facilitator of learning
Source of expert knowledge
Question 47 of 52 A number of hospitals train or orient recently hired staff by having the new staff member work closely with an experienced staff member who serves as a role model for practicing desirable nursing skills. Which learning theory is being used in this scenario? (Points : 5)
Question 48 of 52 Which of the following would not be an effective method to assess the learning needs of nursing staff? (Points : 5)
quality assurance reports
self- science administered questionnaires
rules and regulations of practice
Question 49 of 52 Which is the primary model used in nursing that relates to health-promoting lifestyles? (Points : 5)
Health promotion model
Health belief model
Question 50 of 52 Which statement best differentiates formative evaluation from summative evaluation? (Points : 5)
Formative evaluation focuses on specific educational objectives while summative evaluation focuses on overall program goals.
Because formative evaluation occurs during the educational activity, it is more complex and resource-intensive than summative evaluation.
Formative evaluation is integral to the educational process itself, while summative evaluation measures the effects of an educational activity.
The scope of formative evaluation is limited to the results of a specific learning experience, while summative evaluation addresses the results of more long-term learning.
Question 51 of 52 Which common mistake is made when developing printed instructional materials? (Points : 5)
Using illustrations to break up large blocks of print
Using line drawings, rather than elaborate artwork, to reinforce information in a concrete manner
Including a review section at the end of the written material to reemphasize key points
Providing illustrations that convey a negative or incorrect message to help the learner acquire desired behaviour
Question 52 of 52 Three mechanisms to determine learning style include all of the following except? (Points : 5)
administration of learning style instruments
NSG 6001 Final Exam (Latest) South University (GRADED A) 2019
NSG 6001 Final Exam (Latest) South University (GRADED A) 2019
1.Question :More than half of all cardiac arrhythmias involve the atria. Student Answer:False True (This is a true statement: more than half of all cardiac arrhythmias involve the atria.) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 2.Question :What are the most common symptoms caused by tachyarrhythmias? Student Answer:Sweating Thirst Palpitations (The most common symptoms caused by tachyarrhythmias are palpitations.) Headaches Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 3.Question :For women with known CAD and diabetes, which is most appropriate to assess CAD risk? Student Answer:ETT Coronary bypass surgery Coronary catheterization ETT with imaging (ETT with imaging is most appropriate to assess CAD risk.) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 4.Question :Of the following, which is the best answer when asked for an advantage of echocardiogram exercise testing over thallium stress testing? Student Answer:Does not depend on operator experience Costs are the same Results are available more quickly (Echocardiogram exercise test results are available more quickly.) Doesn’t matter because there are no advantages Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 5.Question :Your patient has uncomplicated pyelonephritis. In deciding your recommended treatment, you consider the most common pathogenic reason for this diagnosis. What pathogen accounts for the majority of pyelonephritis? Student Answer:E. Coli (E. Coli is the pathogen that accounts for the majority of pyelonephritis.) Gardnerella Vaginalis Mycoplasma Hominis Chlamydia Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 6.Question :What purpose does the principle of fidelity serve in the provider/patient relationship? Student Answer:Ensures that providers honor their commitments to the patient (The principle of fidelity mandate assures that providers honor their commitments to the patient. ) Obligates the provider to a one-on-one relationship with the individual Ensures that patients receive whatever they want Maintains costs in the healthcare arena Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 7.Question :In CAD, after both systolic and diastolic dysfunction have occurred, the typical pattern of chest pain and related EKG changes occur. During an EKG, you should expect to see ST-segment and T-wave changes that are central to demonstration of ischemia occurring relatively late in the ischemic cascade. Is this true or false? Student Answer:True (This is a true statement. During an EKG, you should expect to see ST-segment and T-wave changes that are central to demonstration of ischemia occurring relatively late in the ischemic cascade. ) False Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 8.Question :The leads on the ECG showing ischemic changes during or immediately after an ETT can correlate roughly to the culprit artery or arteries with significant CAD. Is this true or false? Student Answer:False True (This statement is true: the leads on the ECG showing ischemic changes during or immediately after an ETT can correlate roughly to the culprit artery or arteries with significant CAD. ) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 9.Question :Skin cancer is the most common malignant neoplasm in males in the US. What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men greater than 50 years of age? Student Answer:Prostate cancer (The second leading cause of cancer deaths in men greater than 50 years of age is prostate cancer.) Lung cancer Lymphoma Lupus Points Received:0 of 5 Comments:Question 10.Question :What ECG changes can reduce the specificity of the ETT? Student Answer:Exercise induced bundle branch blocks Paced rhythm and resting bundle branch block (The ECG changes that can reduce the specificity of the ETT are paced rhythm and resting bundle branch block. ) Paced rhythm and exercise induced bundle branch blocks Low voltage up sloping of the ST-segment Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 11.Question :You have confirmed that your patient does indeed have an abdominal aortic aneurysm. In teaching your patient about symptoms to report immediately to the vascular surgeon, you instruct the patient to report which of the following? Student Answer:Newly diagnosed diabetes Back pain or flank pain (In teaching your patient about symptoms to report immediately to the vascular surgeon, you instruct the patient to report back pain or flank pain.) Visual disturbances Headaches Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 12.Question :What is one of the common causes of a Saccular Abdominal Aneurysm? Student Answer:Poor kidney functioning Age Drugs: illicit and prescribed Trauma (One of the common causes of a saccular abdominal aneurysm is trauma.) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 13.Question :The diagnostic accuracy of stress testing is decreased among women compared to men for what reasons? Student Answer:Women having thinner ventricular and septal muscles Women usually have single vessel or non-obstructive disease (The diagnostic accuracy of stress testing is decreased among women compared to men because women usually have single vessel or non-obstructive disease.) Women cannot exercise as vigorously as men Women typically have multiple vessel disease Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 14.Question :Population disease management is a term used to describe: Student Answer:High specificity disease states Low specificity diseases states Low prevalence specific diseases High prevalence specific diseases (Population disease management is a term used to describe the high prevalence of specific diseases. ) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 15.Question :You receive a report back on the suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm for your patient. It confirms your suspicion of AAA. The report describes the aneurysm as a symmetric weakness of the entire circumference of the aorta. You know that this form of aneurysm is referred to as what kind of aneurysm? Student Answer:Thoracic aneurysm Budging sac aneurysm Saccular aneurysm Fusiform aneurysm (This form of aneurysm is referred to as a fusiform aneurysm.) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 16.Question :Your practice partner just ordered an exercise echocardiography 2DE for a patient with suspected cardiovascular risk. This patient has known resting wall motion abnormalities. Why would this not be the best test to assess this patient’s cardiac risk? Student Answer:Sensitivity is increased Sensitivity is decreased (This would not be the best test to assess this patient’s cardiac risk because sensitivity is decreased. ) Specificity is increased Specificity is decreased Points Received:0 of 5 Comments:Question 17.Question :Your 60-year old male patient arrives for his appointment. He complains of general malaise and fever over the past several days with low back pain. He also states that he is getting up at night more often to urinate and never feels his bladder is completely empty. What differential diagnosis should you consider in this patient? Student Answer:Acute viral prostatitis Stomach virus Acute bacterial prostatitis (Acute bacterial prostatitis is the correct answer.) BPH only Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 18.Question :We all know that collaboration is integral to becoming a successful nurse practitioner. Among collaborations, however, only one can be considered as the most important. While each example below is important, which is the most important collaboration? The one that occurs: Student Answer:Between the nurse practitioner and their physician mentor Between two healthcare providers about a single patient Between the patient and their family Between the patient and the nurse practitioner (The collaboration that is most important is the one that occurs between the patient and the nurse practitioner. ) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 19.Question :The sensitivity of a routine ETT is effort dependent. What physiological changes occur during effort in the routine ETT? Student Answer:Rapid heart rates and coronary artery narrowing Decrease in coronary blood flow Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure Increased coronary flow and increased systolic blood pressure (The physiological changes that occur during effort in the routine ETT are increased coronary flow and increased systolic blood pressure.) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 20.Question :A 47-year old female with general complaints of fatigue and shortness of breath shows up in your clinic as a referral from another nurse practitioner. Several blood tests and chest x-rays have been completed without any diagnosis or outstanding abnormalities. You decide to order an ETT despite the fact that the recent ECG does not show any abnormalities. From the answers below, which would be the best answer to support your decision? Student Answer:You are out of other options CAD in women is under diagnosed (You make this choice because you are aware that CAD in women is under diagnosed.) To please the patient Women present with the same pattern of CAD as do males Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 21.Question :Your patient underwent an exercise stress test for CAD. There is significant elevation of the ST-segment. What do you need to know about these changes to manage your patient’s care? Student Answer:This patient needs to see someone more experienced in treatment of CAD These changes are predictive of myocardial infarction These changes have minimal predictive value for CAD (Significant elevation of the ST-segment has minimal predictive value for CAD. ) These changes predict dire outcomes Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 22.Question :When there is a consequential loss of structural integrity of the abdominal aorta, the resulting issue is what condition? Student Answer:Bloated stomach Kidney failure Bleeding ulcers Abdominal aortic aneurysm (When there is a consequential loss of structural integrity of the abdominal aorta, the resulting issue is abdominal aortic aneurysm.) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 23.Question :You see a 60-year old African American male in your clinic with a recent diagnosis of hypertension. He asks you what he should restrict in his diet, and is particularly interested in limiting his sodium intake. What amount of sodium intake would you recommend on a daily basis for this patient? Student Answer:1.5 g/day (The recommended daily intake is 1.5g per day.) No added table salt 3.0 g/day 2.3 g/day Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 24.Question :Why would inability to exercise reduce the specificity of the routine ETT? Student Answer:Produces QRS changes that cannot be interpreted Produces persistent ST-segmental changes and T-wave abnormalities (The inability to exercise reduces the specificity of the routine ETT because it produces persistent ST-segmental changes and T-wave abnormalities. ) Causes ST-segment changes and P-wave abnormalities Will not produce any changes in ECG Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 25.Question :By standard criteria, how is a positive stress test defined? Student Answer:Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 1mm (A positive stress test is defined as the development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 1mm. ) Down sloping of the ST-segment at the J point of the QRS Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 10mm Upward sloping ST-segment measured at the J point of the QRS Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 26.Question :What are the two types of bradycardia recognized by the American Heart Association? Student Answer:Relative and absolute (The two types of bradycardia recognized by the American Heart Association are relative and absolute.) Absolute and pending Refractory and non-refractory Relative and dynamic Points Received:0 of 5 Comments:Question 27.Question :You see a 75-year old female in your clinic today complaining of urinary incontinence. She is otherwise healthy based upon her last visit. She states that her mother told her this would happen someday because it happens to every woman at some age. What would you tell this patient? Student Answer:This happens to all women as they age No need to worry. This is normal. Your mother was correct. This is not an expected condition related to aging. (Urinary incontinence is not an expected condition related to aging.) This happens to men as well and most women before your age. Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 28.Question :What do you know regarding ischemia that is confined to only the posterior and or lateral segments of the left ventricle? Student Answer:ETT cannot be used for detection Difficult to detect by ETT (Ischemia that is confined to only the posterior and or lateral segments of the left ventricle is difficult to detect by ETT, but that does not mean that ETT cannot detect ischemia limited to these functional areas of the heart. ) Requires both for detection of changes by ETT Easier to detect by ETT Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 29.Question :What three conditions definitely alter the results of echocardiography in determining CAD? Student Answer:Obesity, rapid heart rate and lung disease (Obesity, rapid heart rate and lung disease definitely alter the results of echocardiography in determining CAD.) Diabetes, kidney disease and tooth decay Obesity, slow heart rates and hypertension Previous MI, hypotension and diabetes Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 30.Question :Specifically, when is an ETT considered to be negative? Student Answer:Patient has ST-segmental changes with down sloping of greater than 1 mm at 50% of age-predicted maximum heart rate Patient exercises to 85% of age predicted maximum heart rate without evidence of induced ischemia (An ETT is considered to be negative when the patient exercises to 85% of age predicted maximum heart rate without evidence of induced ischemia. ) Patient exercises to 20% maximum age-predicted heart rate without induced ischemia Patient exercises until tired without evidence of induced ischemia Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 31.Question :All patients, even is asymptomatic, require risk stratification according to the Farmingham risk score. At present, ACC/AHA guidelines, however, do not normally support stress tests for asymptomatic patients without addiitonal justification. From the list below, what could be used to justify a ETT in an asymptomatic patient? Student Answer:A smoker of 3 weeks A member of congress Sedentary and wishes to begin aggressive exercise (Many patients have underlying CAD but remain asymptomatic. Before beginning any new vigorous activities after years of sedentary lifestyle, it is recommended to obtain a ETT to rule out underlying CAD.) Developmentally challenged Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 32.Question :BPH is not a risk factor for Prostate cancer. Is this statement true or false? Student Answer:True (This is a true statement: BPH is not a risk factor for Prostate cancer.) False Points Received:0 of 5 Comments:Question 33.Question :Spread of genital herpes only occurs during the time period with active lesions. Is this statement true or false? Student Answer:False (This is a false statement: spread of genital herpes only occurs during the time period with active lesions.) True Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 34.Question :Abdominal aortic aneurysms are often asymptomatic. What percent of AAA’s are discovered in asymptomatic patients? Student Answer:40% 20% 10% 75% (75% of abdominal aortic aneurysms are discovered in asymptomatic patients.) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 35.Question :Improvements in the delivery and management of healthcare are necessary if we are to improve the overall health of this nation’s population. Which of the following are identified in your readings as strategic in the movement to improve the healthcare system? Student Answer:President and Congress Population management and healthcare practice (Population management and healthcare practice are strategic in the movement to improve the nation’s healthcare system. ) Socialized medicine and governmental controls Monetary savings and limited disruption in healthcare delivery Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 36.Question :What are the two main types of heart failure? Student Answer:Systolic and diastolic (The two main types of heart failure are systolic and diastolic.) Hopeless and severe Left sided and main End diastolic and pressure related Points Received:0 of 5 Comments:Question 37.Question :The majority of all strokes are non-ischemic. Is this statement true or false? Student Answer:False (This statement is false: the majority of all strokes are non-ischemic.) True Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 38.Question :When a murmur is first heard, it is important to determine if it is due to a pathological condition or benign. For an experienced practitioner, it is always easy to determine the cause of a murmur merely by listening to the sound. Is this statement true or false? Student Answer:True False (This statement is false: for an experienced practitioner, it is always easy to determine the cause of a murmur merely by listening to the sound) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 39.Question :Maintenance of an Isometric ST-segment during exercise is the response of? Student Answer:A normal heart (Maintenance of an Isometric ST-segment during exercise is the response of a normal heart. ) Hypo profusion An abnormal heart CAD Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 40.Question :The goal of self-management is to specifically do what? Student Answer:Engage patients in their own care (The goal of self-management is to engage patients in their own care.) Engage insurance providers in patient care Engage providers in patient care Engage government in greater involvement in patient care Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 41.Question :Your 56-year old patient presents with bradycardia with a rate of 55 and first degree AV block. The patient is hemodynamically stable and is not experiencing any syncope or chest pain. History includes previous myocardial infarction. Home medications include beta blockers, daily aspirin. Lab work is non-significant for electrolyte imbalance. You decided to treat this patient for the arrhythmia to prevent future destabilization. From the choices below, which might be the appropriate first measure to consider? Student Answer:Add digitalis to control the heart rate Consult cardiologist immediately for guidance Discontinue Beta Blocker and replace with another therapy if necessary (The appropriate first measure to consider is to discontinue the beta blocker and replace with another therapy if necessary.) Atropine injections Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 42.Question :Your patient is morbidly obese and cannot sit on a bicycle or walk a treadmill. She also has marked and severe emphysema. You need to make an assessment of the risk of significant CAD and your patient’s family says that their relative had their diagnosis based on an ultrasound echocardiography. What facts would influence your decision regarding the family request for echo assessment? Student Answer:Sensitivity would be increased because of lung disease Specificity would be increased because of obesity Sensitivity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease (Sensitivity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease.) Specificity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 43.Question :You are in the clinic with your mentor observing the Echocardiogram exercise test of a 45-year old male that has been experiencing slight chest pressure almost daily during exercise. While observing your patient, your mentor points out that the left ventricle wall is thinning and there is some hyperkinesias of the ventricular wall. From your time in the clinic, you know that this test will be considered to be what type of result? Student Answer:Negative Impossible Positive (From your time in the clinic, you know because of wall thinning and hyperkinesis that this test will be considered to be positive.) Non-readable Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 44.Question :Your patient is newly diagnosed with persistent Atria Fibrillation. You consider electrocardioversion. Before undergoing this procedure you should order the following examination to assess thrombus risk. Student Answer:X-Ray of chest Tranesophageal echocardiography (Before undergoing this procedure you should order tranesophageal echocardiography to assess thrombus risk.) Ultrasound of chest CT Scan Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 45.Question :Tachyarrhythmias cause a drop in commonly blood pressure, cardiac output, syncope, shortness of breath, and chest pain. What phenomenon most often occurs during these arrhythmias to cause these symptoms? Student Answer:Shortened diastole (The phenomenon that most often occurs during these arrhythmias to cause these symptoms is shortened diastole related to the rapid heart rate. Typically, a shortened systolye would not cause as severe symptoms.) Lengthened diastole Lengthened systole Shortened systole Points Received:0 of 5 Comments:Question 46.Question :At what age is atria fibrillation most common? Student Answer:In childhood 60 years or older (Atria fibrillation most common in persons 60 years or older.) 30 years 45 years Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 47.Question :Automaticity is a property common to all cardiac cells. Is this statement true or false? Student Answer:True (This is a true statement: automaticity is a property common to all cardiac cells.) False Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 48.Question :Your patient has a maximum age-predicted heart rate of 180. During the exercise he reaches a heart rate of 140 and then states he can no longer exercise. You see evidence of ischemic changes on the ECG. This would be predictive of what condition? Student Answer:Stroke Significant CAD (This scenario is predictive of significant CAD.) Impending death Low risk of CAD Points Received:0 of 5 Comments:Question 49.Question :You tell a patient that he has a murmur. He says he has been told this before, but wonders what causes the unique sounds of a murmur. Which of the following would be your best option? Student Answer:Turbulent flow of blood (The best answer is turbulent flow of blood.) High pressures caused from HTN There is no reason, it just happens Almost always from a sclerotic valve Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 50.Question :What is the treatment of choice for uncomplicated community-acquired cystitis? Student Answer:TMP-SMZ (TMP-SMZ is the treatment of choice for uncomplicated community-acquired cystitis.) Any antibiotic will treat this diagnosis Amoxicillin Penicillin Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 51.Question :Any patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia should be referred to a cardiologist for management. Is this statement true or false? Student Answer:False True (This statement is true: any patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia should be referred to a cardiologist for management.) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 52.Question :Encouragement of patients to take effective actions in their own healthcare refers to the concept of: Student Answer:Self-management support (Encouragement of patients to take effective actions in their own healthcare refers to the concept of self-management support. ) Interprofessional support Physician or provider-driven care Family care givers Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 53.Question :You are considering adding an adjunctive form of testing to detect wall motion abnormalities during the ETT. You select Echocardiography as the added testing. You choose this test because you know that echocardiography does what when added to a standard ETT? Student Answer:Enhances sensitivity and specificity of CAD detection (You choose this test because you know that echocardiography enhances sensitivity and specificity of CAD detection.) Enhances sensitivity while reducing specificity of CAD detection Enhances specificity while not changing sensitivity of detection for CAD You like pretty pictures of wall motion Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 54.Question :Medicaid is mandated to be provided by each state through federal codes. Each state must offer Medicaid exactly as the federal government prescribes. True or false? Student Answer:False (Medicaid is mandated to be provided by each state, however, Mediciad is not required to be delivered by any certain formula. Each state has autonomy to deliver Mediciad services under its own guidelines, provided that each state meets the federal guidelines for Medicaid coverage. ) True Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 55.Question :What sexually transmitted disease is most widespread in the USA today? Student Answer:Chlamydia (The most widespread sexually transmitted disease in the USA today is chlamydia.) Gonorrhea Syphilis HIV/AIDS Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 56.Question :Your preceptor decides to add Doppler Flow studies to the echocardiogram exercise test for a patient with a recent history of a holistic murmur best auscultated at the left steral boarder. The patient has no history of cardiac surgeries. He asks you what might be the main advantages of adding Doppler Flow for this particular patient. You know from your readings that there are several reasons to add Doppler Flow and below are listed more than one correct reason. Your best response for this specific case, however, would be that Doppler Flow studies would be of what additive value during the echocardiogram study? Student Answer:Detect and evaluate blood shunting from a septal defect (Your best response for this specific case, however, would be that Doppler Flow studies would detect and evaluate blood shunting from a septal defect.) No advantage is seen for this patient Gives better screen shots of wall abnormalities Provides assessment of prosthetic valve function Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 57.Question :Sexual partners of a patient with a diagnosed STI should always be examined and treated. Is this statement true or false? Student Answer:False True (This is a true statement: sexual partners of a patient with a diagnosed STI should always be examined and treated.
) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 58.Question :Your patient presents with tachycardia. The QRS is measured at 0.10 seconds. Which of the following tachycardias would be an appropriate conclusion based on this information alone? Student Answer:Ventricular tachycardias Premature junctional contractions (Premature Junctional Contractions would be an appropriate conclusion.) Atria fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 59.Question :A 65-year old white male arrives in your clinic with general complaints of slight abdominal discomfort. He has a known history of smoking two packs per day for 40 years and hypertension. He also has COPD and has been treated numerous times with oral steroids. You consider several optional diagnoses. Of the ones listed below, which should be included as a potential top suspect in your choice of diagnosis? Student Answer:Chronic bowel obstruction Meglacolon Appendicitis Abdominal aortic aneurysm (Abdominal aortic aneurysm should be included as a potential top suspect in your choice of diagnosis.) Points Received:5 of 5 Comments:Question 60.Question :What are the most common mechanisms to produce cardiac arrhythmias? Student Answer:Decreased automaticity, triggered activity or reentry Reentry, electrical dysfunction or activity Stress, hard work or swimming Enhanced automaticity, triggered activity or reentry (The most common mechanisms to produce cardiac arrhythmias are enhanced automaticity, triggered activity, or reentry.)
Valence Bond and Molecular Orbital Theories
I got a 1st in my first year studying chemistry at the University of Birmingham using these revision notes that I have uploaded. They include detail on orbital hybridisation, isolobality, Molecular Orbital (MO) Theory, the LCAO approach, bond order, types of non-bonding and bonding atomic orbital overlap. These summary notes also include worked examples as revision practice.
Summary of ALL lectures for the statistics final exam for WO: wetenschappelijke onderzoeksmethoden UU 2018-2019
I hereby sell a PDF version of my summary for the course Wetenschappelijke Onderzoeksmethoden (WO). This course is given at Utrecht University and the summary contains all the material for the final statistics exam that we had. When you buy this PDF, it will certainly ensure that you have a good chance of achieving a sufficient grade if the material is quite similar. Here, I assume that would be the case, but it can be happening of course that something has been added or something has been deleted, so check the parts that I discuss in the summary below and see if that matches. This summary contains all the important material from all lectures about the midterm in 2018-2019, and is therefore everything you need. Material discussed in the summary: objects, properties, variables, data, descriptive statistics, inferential statistics, samples/sample testing, population, measurement scales for variables (nominal/ordinal/interval/ratio), summarizing data (descriptive measures), distributions, frequency graphs, histograms, mean, median, mode, degree of freedom, skewness, Z-score, normal distribution, the unit normal table, sampling distributions, standard deviation and error, hypothesis testing, error type 1 and type 2, central limit theorem, one or two sided testing, t-distribution, effect size, Pearson correlation, Spearman correlation, least squares criterion, regression equation, testing types, ANOVA, f calculation and the post-hoc analysis. Above is just a part of what is discussed in the summary, there is many more but these are the headlines. Among these elements are definitions, explanations about concepts, and examples. There are also images from the lectures inserted that must ensure that it is all clearer. These are explained in turn. The material is written in English. Everything is put down nicely under headers. Definitions or other important parts are printed in bold. It is recommended to read the exercises through form the seminars and practice a lot with calculating formulas and such. Also, take a good look at the formula paper that is provided at the exam. It is necessary to understand all of this for the most part. NOTE: I am not responsible for any changes in the fabric this year that cause certain parts to be modified, or parts that have been added without my knowledge.
CCOU 201 Exam 4: Liberty University / Liberty University CCOU 201 Exam 4 (Latest) (Verified answers, Scored A)
CCOU 201 Exam 4: Liberty University / Liberty University CCOU 201 Exam 4 (Latest)
Jesus clearly states that if we forgive, we will be forgiven but if we do not forgive
• Question 2
How many types of forgiveness are identified in the text?
• Question 3
What is the best way to describe sobriety from sex addiction according to the text?
• Question 4
Sex addicts, like alcoholics and other addicts, suffer from what type of “thinking” that causes them to lose touch with who they truly are in Christ and believe they are worthless?
• Question 5
People forgive best if they are motivated to forgive altruistically in blessing other people, rather than wanting to get a blessing for themselves through physical or mental health.
• Question 6
What are referred to as “aggravating accounts” that the book says make matters worse under the topic of transgressions?
• Question 7
What is the name of the method the author of the text has created that describes a series of steps in accomplishing forgiveness?
• Question 8
While there has not been pure empirical research on the prevalence of sexual addiction in the general population, conservative estimates in the field would place it around 3%.
• Question 9
Which biblical character was mentioned in the text as having 700 wives and 300 concubines that caused him to turn away from the Lord?
• Question 10
What does the “A” stand for in the acronym REACH?
• Question 11
With ______, sex addiction is more often experienced with romance or love addiction.
• Question 12
According to the text, there are _____ classic criteria that define sexual addition.
• Question 13
Which disciple asked Jesus, “How many times must I forgive one who harms me” according to the text?
• Question 14
At a conference for the Coalition of Christian Colleges, the president claimed what percentage of his students lost their virginity while at school according to a recent study’s results?
• Question 15
One way identified in the text to become a more forgiving person is to utilize
• Question 16
________ is the byproduct of trauma and ________ is an essential part of the treatment of trauma.
• Question 17
The authors state that there is only one path to forgiveness that people must follow.
• Question 18
Sometimes sex addictions can have a tolerance effect but they do not necessarily always progress over time.
• Question 19
The text mentions that sex addicts hang onto wanting to control their own lives and as participants in original sin, do not put their trust in God. According to James 1:8 sex addicts are
• Question 20
The text mentions a commonly used test to diagnose sex addiction that is available without copyright infringement called the
• Question 21
According to the text, which two parables are recommendations the authors gives for people to contrast in relation to Christian views of forgiveness?
• Question 22
According to the text, a(n) ______ is a request for an explanation if a person believes he or she has been transgressed against.
• Question 23
In the section of helping people forgive what does the “R” stand for in the acronym REACH?
• Question 24
Working with sex addicts will challenge a counselor’s
• Question 25
What kind of forgiveness is described as declaring that one is not going to seek revenge or avoid the other person but will do his or her best to get along in the future?
• Question 26
What culture is specifically mentioned in the text from the Bible that also struggled with sexual sin?
• Question 27
Unforgiveness might be rekindled if the person ruminates about the event.
• Question 28
The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) for the American Psychiatric Association recently included diagnostic codes for sexual addition.
• Question 29
What do McCullough, Fincham, and Tsang call the inhibition of expressing negative motivations that can cause people to act ways such as revenge or avoidance?
• Question 30
Immoral sexual activity will always lead to
• Question 31
A diagnosis of sex addition can be made mainly and most reliably through a ________.
• Question 32
Most sex addicts experience depression at some level and many have even considered suicide.
• Question 33
According to the text, one main feature of addiction is that addicts become ______ tolerant to the chemical that sex, love, and romance produce.
• Question 34
According to the book, if people who feel unforgiveness can _____ with the transgressor temporarily, then this can erode some unforgiveness.
• Question 35
What analogy do the authors provide in the text to describe a way to help people remember and understand the concept of forgiveness?
• Question 36
All of the following are treatment methods identified in the text that can aid sex addition EXCEPT:
• Question 37
What did the author of this section in the text admit struggling with at age 11 that the Lord later restored him of?
• Question 38
There are two ends of the spectrum that are mentioned in the text regarding sexual addictions. On one end there are those who _________, while on the other end, others are involved in _________.
• Question 39
Which of the following are not one of the four types of accounts that an offender will attempt regarding transgressions?
• Question 40
In order to become a more forgiving person, one must practice forgiving many different transgressions with many different people and an increase in one’s motivation to be forgiving. In addition to this, the text states that another way to become more forgiving is to meditate prayerfully on Scripture.
Application Lessons 15 through 18 Chapter 12 – Concluding Case
Do you agree with Howser’s suggestion to “sit tight and ride the storm,” or should the partners take some action immediately? If so, what actions specifically?
2. Assume that the creation of the GM-Operations position was a good decision. What leadership style and type of individual would you try to place in this position?
3. Consider your own leadership style. What types of positions and situations should you seek? What types of positions and situations should you seek to avoid? Why?
1. Think of a job you hold currently or held in the past. How would you describe the psychological contract? How does this affect your attitudes and behaviors on the job?
2. Give some examples of situations in which you wanted to do a great job but were prevented from doing so. What are the impact on you, and would this suggest to you in your efforts to motivate other people to perform?
3. Assess yourself on McClelland’s three needs. On which need are you highest, and on which are you lowest? What are the implications for you as a manager?
Chapter 14 – Concluding Case
1. What type of team would work best in this situation?
2. What kinds of problems would you expect this group to encounter? What is the best way to work through those problems?
Quality of workmanship.
Workman’s compensation and insurance.
Chapter 15 – Subject Review
1. Think of an occasion when you faced a miscommunication problem. What do you think caused the problem? How do you think it should have been handled better?
2. What do you think about the practice of open-book management? What would you think about it if you were running your own company?
3. Have you ever tried to coach someone, in anything? What did you do well, and what mistakes did you make? How can you become a better coach?
LDR 531 Final Exam Guide 2019
1. All leaders can accelerate their progress toward effectiveness by:
2. “Fiscal responsibility, accountability, strategy, and execution.” These leadership
3. Which of these statements defines the strength of Reactive Leadership?
4. Which of the following statements describes “Caring Connection?”
5. Which of the following statements describes the Leadership Practice 2: Distilling Vision?
It requires attention to the trail, to the minute, subtle, and detailed clues our life is leaving as we live it (or as it lives us).
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the six systems of organizational effectiveness?
7. Which of the following is NOT a Promise of Leadership?
8. Which of these statements defines the strength of Egocentric Leadership?
9. The best metaphor the authors created for describing our relationship to Unity is that we are like waves on the ocean, not separate from the ocean. Which of the following statements best supports this metaphor?
10. Developing leadership effectiveness is…
11. Which of the following statements describes the Creative Mind”?
12. Which of the following statements describes the Internal Operating System of the Creative Mind?
13. Which of the following statements is true about a company’s Leadership System?
14. Which of the following statements describes the Leadership Practice 1: Discerning Purpose?
15. Which of the following statements about “Playing on Purpose or Playing Not to Lose” is true?
16. Which of the following is NOT included in the stages of the Universal Model of Leadership?
17. Which of the following items is NOT on the path from Patriarchy to Partnership?
18. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship of structure to higher leadership performance?
19. When you see extraordinary leadership, what’s the best question to ask to understand what makes the leader extraordinary?
20. Which of the following is the best method for a leader to manage unproductive conflict?
21. Which of the following statements describes “Collaborator?”
22. “Competence, fair treatment, commitment, engagement, listening, acting on suggestions, and providing inspiration, meaning, and direction.” These leadership expectations are
23. Which of these statements defines the strength of Creative Leadership?
24. Which of the following is one of the three core reactive types?
25. Which of the following is the formula for the Leadership Quotient?
26. Which of the following statements best describes the relevance of the inner game and outer game to leadership behavior?
27. Which of the following statements accurately describes Reactive Mind?
28. To fulfill the Leadership Imperative, which of the following ideas will make us LESS likely to succeed?
29. Which of the following statements accurately describes Integral Leaders?
30. How do we describe the Leadership System?