NSG 6020 FINAL STUDY GUIDE (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY
NSG 6020 FINAL STUDY GUIDE (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY
Question1 Question : You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?
Student Answer: Moist and smooth
Moist and rough
Dry and smooth
Dry and rough
Question 2. Question : You are assessing a patient with joint pain and are trying to decide whether it is inflammatory or noninflammatory in nature. Which one of the following symptoms is consistent with an inflammatory process?
Student Answer: Tenderness
Question 3. Question : A 68-year-old retired farmer comes to your office for evaluation of a skin lesion. On the right temporal area of the forehead, you see a flattened papule the same color as his skin, covered by a dry scale that is round and feels hard. He has several more of these scattered on the forehead, arms, and legs. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?
Student Answer: Actinic keratosis
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Question 4. Question : A 28-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of pain “all over.” With further questioning, she is able to relate that the pain is worse in the neck, shoulders, hands, low back, and knees. She denies swelling in her joints. She states that the pain is worse in the morning. There is no limitation in her range of motion. On physical examination, she has several points on the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and back that are tender to palpation. Muscle strength and range of motion are normal. Which one of the following is likely the cause of her pain?
Student Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Question 5. Question : Heberden’s nodes are commonly found in which one of the following diseases?
Student Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Degenerative joint disease
Question 6. Question : A new patient is complaining of severe pruritus that is worse at night. Several family members also have the same symptoms. Upon examination, areas of excoriated papules are noted on some of the interdigital webs of both hands and on the axillae. This finding is most consistent with:
Student Answer: Contact dermatitis
Question 7. Question : An obese 55-year-old woman went through menarche at age 16 and menopause 2 years ago. She is concerned because an aunt had severe osteoporosis. Which one of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?
Student Answer: Obesity
Having an aunt with osteoporosis
Question 8. Question : Ms. Whiting is a 68-year-old female who comes in for her usual follow-up visit. You notice a few flat red and purple lesions, about 6 centimeters in diameter, on the ulnar aspect of her forearms but nowhere else. She doesn't mention them. They are tender when you examine them. What should you do?
Student Answer: Conclude that these are lesions she has had for a long time.
Wait for her to mention them before asking further questions.
Ask how she acquired them.
Conduct the visit as usual for the patient.
Question 9. Question : A 58-year-old man comes to your office complaining of bilateral back pain that now awakens him at night. This has been steadily increasing for the past 2 months. Which one of the following is the most reassuring in this patient with back pain?
Student Answer: Age over 50
Pain at night
Pain lasting more than 1 month or not responding to therapy
Pain that is bilateral
Question 10. Question : The Phalen’s test is used to evaluate:
Student Answer: Inflammation of the median nerve
Degenerative joint changes
Question 11. Question : Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?
Student Answer: The presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum
Being unable to palpate superior to the mass
A positive transillumination test
Normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum
Question 12. Question : You are examining a newborn and note that the right testicle is not in the scrotum. What should you do next?
Student Answer: Refer to urology
Recheck in six months
Tell the parent the testicle is absent but that this should not affect fertility
Attempt to bring down the testis from the inguinal canal
Question 13. Question : A 50-year-old truck driver comes to your clinic for a work physical. He has had no upper respiratory, cardiac, pulmonary, gastrointestinal, urinary, or musculoskeletal system complaints. His past medical history is significant for mild arthritis and prior knee surgery in college. He is married and just changed jobs, working for a different trucking company. He smokes one pack of cigarettes a day, drinks less than six beers a week, and denies using any illegal drugs. His mother has high blood pressure and arthritis and his father died of lung cancer in his sixties. On examination, his blood pressure is 130/80 and his pulse is 80. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernia, but on his digital rectal examination you palpate a soft, smooth, and nontender pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum. What anal, rectal, or prostate disorder best fits his presentation?
Student Answer: Internal hemorrhoid
Question 14. Question : A 15-year-old high school football player is brought to your office by his mother. He is complaining of severe testicular pain since exactly 8:00 this morning. He denies any sexual activity and states that he hurts so bad he can't even urinate. He is nauseated and is throwing up. He denies any recent illness or fever. His past medical history is unremarkable. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His parents are both in good health. On examination, you see a young teenager lying on the bed with an emesis basin. He is very uncomfortable and keeps shifting his position. His blood pressure is 150/100, his pulse is 110, and his respirations are 24. On visualization of the penis, he is circumcised and there are no lesions and no discharge from the meatus. His scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. His prostate examination is unremarkable. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. By catheter you get a urine sample and the analysis is unremarkable. You send the boy with his mother to the emergency room for further workup.
Student Answer: Acute orchitis
Torsion of the spermatic cord
Question 15. Question : Which is true of prostate cancer?
Student Answer: It is commonly lethal.
It is one of the less common forms of cancer.
Family history does not appear to be a risk factor.
Ethnicity is a risk factor.
Question 16. Question : Which of the following conditions involves a tight prepuce which, once retracted, cannot be returned?
Student Answer: Phimosis
Question1 7. Question : A 12-year-old is brought to your clinic by his father. He was taught in his health class at school to do monthly testicular self-examinations. Yesterday, when he felt his left testicle, it was enlarged and tender. He isn't sure if he has had burning with urination and he says he has never had sexual intercourse. He has had a sore throat, cough, and runny nose for the last three days. His past medical history is significant for a tonsillectomy as a small child. His father has high blood pressure and his mother is healthy. On examination, you see a child in no acute distress. His temperature is 100.8 and his blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is uncircumcised and has no lesions or discharge. His scrotum is red and tense on the left and normal appearing on the right. Palpating his left testicle reveals a mildly sore swollen testicle. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is put through both inguinal rings, and there are no bulges with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis is also unremarkable.
What abnormality of the testes does this child most likely have?
Student Answer: Acute orchitis
Torsion of the spermatic cord
Question 18. Question : The most common cause of cancer deaths in males is:
Student Answer: Lung cancer
Question 19. Question : Important techniques in performing the rectal examination include which of the following?
Student Answer: Lubrication
Waiting for the sphincter to relax
Explaining what the patient should expect with each step before it occurs
All of the above
Question 20. Question : Jim is a 47-year-old man who is having difficulties with sexual function. He is recently separated from his wife of 20 years. He notes that he has early morning erections but otherwise cannot function. Which of the following is a likely cause for his problem?
Student Answer: Decreased testosterone levels
Abnormal hypogastric arterial circulation
Impaired neural innervation
Question 1 : Which of the following is true of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection?
Student Answer: Pap smear is a relatively ineffective screening method.
It commonly resolves spontaneously in one to two years.
It is the second most common STI in the United States.
HPV infections cause a small but important number of cervical cancers.
Question 2. Question : Which of the following is the most effective pattern of palpation for breast cancer?
Student Answer: Beginning at the nipple, make an ever-enlarging spiral.
Divide the breast into quadrants and inspect each systematically.
Examine in lines resembling the back and forth pattern of mowing a lawn.
Beginning at the nipple, palpate vertically in a stripe pattern.
Question 3. Question : A 14-year-old junior high school student is brought in by his mother and father because he seems to be developing breasts. The mother is upset because she read on the Internet that smoking marijuana leads to breast enlargement in males. The young man adamantly denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. He has recently noticed changes in his penis, testicles, and pubic hair pattern. Otherwise, his past medical history is unremarkable. His parents are both in good health. He has two older brothers who never had this problem. On examination, you see a mildly overweight teenager with enlarged breast tissue that is slightly tender on both sides. Otherwise, his examination is normal. He is agreeable to taking a drug test. What is the most likely cause of his gynecomastia?
Student Answer: Breast cancer
Imbalance of hormones of puberty
Question 4. Question : Which of the following represents metrorrhagia?
Student Answer: Fewer than 21 days between menses
Bleeding between periods
Question 5. Question : What does a KOH (potassium hydroxide) prep help the nurse practitioner diagnose?
Student Answer: Herpes zoster infections
Herpes simplex infections
Question 6. Question : Abby is a newly married woman who is unable to have intercourse because of vaginismus. Which of the following is true?
Student Answer: This is most likely due to lack of lubrication.
This is most likely due to atrophic vaginitis.
This is most likely due to pressure on an ovary.
Psychosocial reasons may cause this condition.
Question 7. Question : A 30-year-old man notices a firm, 2-cm mass under his areola. He has no other symptoms and no diagnosis of breast cancer in his first-degree relatives. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Student Answer: Breast tissue
Question 8. Question : Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination?
Student Answer: It has been shown to reduce mortality from breast cancer.
It is recommended unanimously by organizations making screening recommendations.
A high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination.
The undue fear caused by finding a mass justifies omitting instruction in breast self-examination.
Question 9. Question : A 23-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for an annual examination. She has recently become sexually active and wants to be placed on birth control. Her only complaint is that the skin in her armpits has become darker. She states it looks like dirt, and she scrubs her skin nightly with soap and water but the color stays. Her past medical symptoms consist of acne and mild obesity. Her periods have been irregular for 3 years. Her mother has type 2 diabetes, and her father has high blood pressure. The patient denies using tobacco but has four to five drinks on Friday and Saturday nights. She denies any illegal drug use. On examination, you see a mildly obese female who is breathing comfortably. Her vital signs are unremarkable. Looking under her axilla, you see dark, velvet-like skin. Her annual examination is otherwise unremarkable.
What disorder of the breast or axilla is she most likely to have?
Student Answer: Peau d'orange
Question 10. Question : Which of the following is true of women who have had a unilateral mastectomy?
Student Answer: They no longer require breast examination.
They should be examined carefully along the surgical scar for masses.
Lymphedema of the ipsilateral arm usually suggests recurrence of breast cancer.
Women with breast reconstruction over their mastectomy site no longer require examination.
Question : A 76-year-old retired farmer comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and a low-grade fever for about three days. He denies any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The only unusual thing he remembers eating is two bags of popcorn at the movies with his grandson, three days before his symptoms began. He denies any other recent illnesses. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and high blood pressure. He has been married for over fifty years. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of colon cancer and his father had a stroke. On examination, he appears his stated age and is in no acute distress. His temperature is 100.9 degrees and his other vital signs are unremarkable. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. He has normal bowel sounds and is tender over the left lower quadrant. He has no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test is negative. His prostate is slightly enlarged but his testicular, penile, and inguinal examinations are all normal. Blood work is pending.
What diagnosis for abdominal pain best describes his symptoms and signs?
Student Answer: Acute diverticulitis
Question 2. Question : Jim is a 60-year-old man who presents with vomiting. He denies seeing any blood with emesis, which has been occurring for two days. He does note a dark, granular substance resembling the coffee left in the filter after brewing. What do you suspect?
Student Answer: Bleeding from a diverticulum
Bleeding from a peptic ulcer
Bleeding from a colon cancer
Bleeding from cholecystitis
Question 3. Question : A 26-year-old sports store manager comes to your clinic, complaining of severe right-sided abdominal pain for twelve hours. He began having a stomachache yesterday, with a decreased appetite, but today the pain seems to be just on the lower right side. He has had some nausea and vomiting but no constipation or diarrhea. His last bowel movement was the night before and was normal. He has had no fever or chills. He denies any recent illnesses or injuries. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is engaged. He denies any tobacco or drug use and drinks four to six beers per week. His mother has breast cancer and his father has coronary artery disease. On examination, he appears ill and is lying on his right side. His temperature is 100.4 degrees and his heart rate is 110. His bowel sounds are decreased and he has rebound and involuntary guarding, one-third of the way between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus in the right lower quadrant (RLQ). His rectal, inguinal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal.
What is the most likely cause of his pain?
Student Answer: Acute appendicitis
Acute mechanical intestinal obstruction
Question 4. Question : Josh is a 14-year-old boy who presents with a sore throat. On examination, you notice dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on his left side with a deep breath. What does this indicate?
Student Answer: His spleen is definitely enlarged and further workup is warranted.
His spleen is possibly enlarged and close attention should be paid to further examination.
His spleen is possibly enlarged and further workup is warranted.
His spleen is definitely normal.
Question 5. Question : Diminished radial pulses may be seen in patients with which of the following?
Student Answer: Aortic insufficiency
Early “warm” septic shock
Question 6. Question : A 42-year-old florist comes to your office, complaining of chronic constipation for the last six months. She has had no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, and no abdominal pain or cramping. She denies any recent illnesses or injuries. She denies any changes to her diet or exercise program. She is on no new medications. During the review of systems (ROS), you note that she has felt fatigued, had some weight gain, has irregular periods, and has cold intolerance. Her past medical history is significant for one vaginal delivery and two cesarean sections. She is married, has three children, and owns a flower shop. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has type 2 diabetes and her father has coronary artery disease. There is no family history of cancers. On examination, she appears her stated age. Her vital signs are normal. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. Her cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are also unremarkable. Her rectal occult blood test is negative. Her deep tendon reflexes are delayed in response to a blow with the hammer, especially the Achilles tendons.
What is the best choice for the cause of her constipation?
Student Answer: Large bowel obstruction
Irritable bowel syndrome
Question 7. Question : A 57-year-old maintenance worker comes to your office for evaluation of pain in his legs. He has smoked two packs per day since the age of sixteen, but is otherwise healthy. You are concerned that he may have peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following is part of common or concerning symptoms for the peripheral vascular system?
Student Answer: Intermittent claudication
Chest pressure with exertion
Shortness of breath
Question 8. Question : You are assessing a 59-year-old gas station owner for atherosclerosis in the lower extremities. In which of the following locations would the patient's pain make you concerned for this disease process?
Student Answer: Thigh
Question 9. Question : A 55-year-old secretary with a recent history of breast cancer, for which she underwent surgery and radiation therapy, and a history of hypertension comes to your office for a routine checkup. Which of the following aspects of the physical are important to note when assessing the patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms?
Student Answer: Femoral pulse, popliteal pulse
Dorsalis pedis pulse, posterior tibial pulse
Radial pulse, brachial pulse
Question 10. Question : Cody is a teenager with a history of leukemia and an enlarged spleen. Today he presents with fairly significant left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain. On examination of this area, a rough grating noise is heard. What is this sound?
Student Answer: It is a splenic rub.
It is a variant of bowel noise.
It represents borborygmi.
It is a vascular noise.
Question : A 30-year-old woman with a history of mitral valve problems states that she has been “very tired.” She has started waking up at night and feels like her “heart is pounding.” During the assessment, the nurse practitioner palpates a thrill and lift at the fifth left intercostal space midclavicular line. In the same area the nurse practitioner also auscultates a blowing, swishing sound right after S1. These findings would be most consistent with:
Student Answer: heart failure.
Instructor Explanation: Mitral regurgitation subjective findings include fatigue, palpitation, and orthopnea. Objective findings are (1) a thrill in systole at apex, (2) lift at apex, (3) apical impulse displaced down and to the left, (4) S1 diminished, S2 accentuated, S3 at apex often present, and (5) murmur: pansystolic, often loud, blowing, best heard at apex, radiating well to the left axilla.
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Question 2. Question : A patient presents with excruciating headache pain on one side of his head, especially around his eye, forehead, and cheek that lasts about 1/2 to 2 hours, occurring once or twice each day. The nurse practitioner suspects:
Student Answer: hypertension.
Instructor Explanation: Cluster headaches produce pain around the eye, temple, forehead, and cheek and are unilateral and always on the same side of the head. They are excruciating and occur once or twice per day and last 1/2 to 2 hours each.
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Question 3. Question : A patient complains that while studying for an examination he began to notice a severe headache in the frontotemporal area of his head that is throbbing and is somewhat relieved when he lies down. He tells the nurse practitioner that his mother also had these headaches. The nurse practitioner suspects that he may be suffering from:
Student Answer: hypertension.
Instructor Explanation: Migraine headaches tend to be supraorbital, retro-orbital, or frontotemporal with a throbbing quality. They are of a severe quality and are relieved by lying down. Migraines are associated with family history of migraine.
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Question 4. Question : A patient tells the nurse practitioner that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
Student Answer: objective.
Instructor Explanation: Subjective data are what the person says about himself or herself during history taking.
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Question 5. Question : The most important reason to share information and offer brief teaching while performing the physical examination is to help:
Student Answer: the examiner feel more comfortable and gain control of the situation.
build rapport and increase the patient’s confidence in the examiner.
the patient understand his or her disease process and treatment modalities.
the patient identify questions about his or her disease and potential areas of patient education.
Instructor Explanation: Sharing of information builds rapport and increases the patient’s confidence in you as an examiner. It also gives the patient a little more control in a situation in which it’s easy to feel completely helpless.
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Question 6. Question : A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her “Adam’s apple” that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that reassures the nurse practitioner that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump (nodule):
Student Answer: is tender.
is mobile and not hard.
disappears when the patient smiles.
is hard and fixed to the surrounding structures.
Instructor Explanation: Suspect any painless, rapidly growing nodule, especially the appearance of a single nodule in a young person. Cancerous nodules tend to be hard and are fixed to surrounding structures.
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Question 7. Question : A patient visits the clinic because he has recently noticed that the left side of his mouth is paralyzed. He states that he cannot raise his eyebrow or whistle. The nurse practitioner suspects that he has:
Student Answer: Cushing’s syndrome.
had a cerebrovascular accident (stroke).
Instructor Explanation: With an upper motor neuron lesion (as with CVA) the patient will have paralysis of lower facial muscles, but the upper half of the face is not affected owing to the intact nerve from the unaffected hemisphere. The person is still able to wrinkle the forehead and close the eyes.
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Question 8. Question : The temporomandibular joint is just below the temporal artery and anterior to the:
Student Answer: hyoid.
Instructor Explanation: The temporomandibular joint is just below the temporal artery and anterior to the tragus.
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Question 9. Question : During an examination of a patient’s abdomen, the nurse practitioner notes that the abdomen is rounded and firm to the touch. During percussion, the nurse practitioner notes a drum-like quality of the sound across the quadrants. This type of sound indicates:
Student Answer: constipation.
the presence of a tumor.
the presence of dense organs.
Instructor Explanation: A musical or drum-like sound (tympany) is the sound heard when percussion occurs over air-filled viscus, such as the stomach or intestines.
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Question 10. Question : A patient tells the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin. What would be the nurse practitioner’s best response to this information?
Student Answer: “Are you allergic to any other drugs?”
“How often have you received penicillin?”
“I’ll write your allergy on your chart so you won’t receive any.”
“Please describe what happens to you when you take penicillin.”
Instructor Explanation: Note both the allergen (medication, food, or contact agent, such as fabric or environmental agent) and the reaction (rash, itching, runny nose, watery eyes, difficulty breathing). With a drug, this symptom should not be a side effect but a true allergic reaction.
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Question 11. Question : A patient’s thyroid is enlarged, and the nurse practitioner is preparing to auscultate the thyroid for the presence of a bruit. A bruit is a:
Student Answer: low gurgling sound best heard with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.
loud, whooshing, blowing sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope.
soft, whooshing, pulsatile sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope.
high-pitched tinkling sound best heard with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.
Instructor Explanation: If the thyroid gland is enlarged, auscultate it for the presence of a bruit, which is a soft, pulsatile, whooshing, blowing sound heard best with the bell of the stethoscope.
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Question 12. Question : After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse practitioner has documented that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
Student Answer: objective.
Instructor Explanation: Objective data are what the health professional observes by inspecting, percussing, palpating, and auscultating during the physical exam.
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Question 13. Question : A patient tells the nurse that she has had abdominal pain for the past week. What would be the best response by the nurse?
Student Answer: “Can you point to where it hurts?”
“We’ll talk more about that later in the interview.”
“What have you had to eat in the last 24 hours?”
“Have you ever had any surgeries on your abdomen?”
Instructor Explanation: A final summary of any symptom the person has should include, along with seven other critical characteristics, “Location: specific.” Ask the person to point to the location.
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Question 14. Question : A teenage patient comes to the emergency department with complaints of an inability to “breathe and a sharp pain in my left chest.” The assessment findings include the following: cyanosis, tachypnea, tracheal deviation to the right, decreased tactile fremitus on the left, hyperresonance on the left, and decreased breath sounds on the left. This description is consistent with:
Student Answer: bronchitis.
an asthmatic attack.
Instructor Explanation: With a pneumothorax, free air in the pleural space causes partial or complete lung collapse. If the pneumothorax is large, tachypnea and cyanosis are seen. Unequal chest expansion, decreased or absent tactile fremitus, tracheal deviation to the unaffected side, decreased chest expansion, hyperresonant percussion tones, and decreased or absent breath sounds are assessed.
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Question 15. Question : The inspection phase of the physical assessment:
Student Answer: yields little information.
takes time and reveals a surprising amount of information.
may be somewhat uncomfortable for the expert practitioner.
requires a quick glance at the patient’s body systems before proceeding on with palpation.
Instructor Explanation: A focused inspection takes time and yields a surprising amount of data. Initially, the examiner may feel uncomfortable “staring” at the person without also “doing something.”
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Question 16. Question : The mother of a 2-year-old is concerned because her son has had three ear infections in the past year. What would be an appropriate response by the nurse practitioner?
Student Answer: “It is unusual for a small child to have frequent ear infections unless there is something else wrong.”
“We need to check the immune system of your son to see why he is having so many ear infections.”
“Ear infections are not uncommon in infants and toddlers because they tend to have more cerumen in the external ear.”
“Your son’s eustachian tube is shorter and wider than yours because of his age, which allows for infections to develop more easily.”
Instructor Explanation: The infant’s eustachian tube is relatively shorter and wider, and its position is more horizontal than the adult’s, so it is easier for pathogens from the nasopharynx to migrate through to the middle ear.
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Question 17. Question : The nurse practitioner would use bimanual palpation technique in which situation?
Student Answer: Palpating the thorax of an infant
Palpating the kidneys and uterus
Assessing pulsations and vibrations
Assessing the presence of tenderness and pain
Instructor Explanation: Bimanual palpation requires the use of both hands to envelop or capture certain body parts or organs such as the kidneys, uterus, or adnexa.
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Question 18. Question : The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
Student Answer: database.
Instructor Explanation: Together with the patient’s record and laboratory studies, the objective and subjective data form the database.
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Question 19. Question : When preparing to perform a physical examination on an infant, the examiner should:
Student Answer: have the parent remove all clothing except the diaper on a boy.
instruct the parent to feed the infant immediately before the exam.
encourage the infant to suck on a pacifier during the abdominal exam.
ask the parent to briefly leave the room when assessing the infant’s vital signs.
Instructor Explanation: The parent should always be present for the child’s feeling of security and to understand normal growth and development. Timing of the examination should be 1 to 2 hours after feeding when the baby is not too drowsy nor too hungry. Infants do not object to being nude; clothing should be removed and a diaper left on a boy.
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Question 20. Question : The nurse practitioner notices that an infant has a large, soft lump on the side of his head and that his mother is very concerned. She tells the nurse practitioner that she noticed the lump about 8 hours after her baby’s birth, and that it seems to be getting bigger. One possible explanation for this is:
Student Answer: hydrocephalus.
Instructor Explanation: A cephalhematoma is a subperiosteal hemorrhage that is the result of birth trauma. It is soft, fluctuant, and well defined over one cranial bone. It appears several hours after birth and gradually increases in size.
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Question 21. Question : When examining an infant, the nurse practitioner should examine which area first?
Student Answer: Ear
Instructor Explanation: Perform the least distressing steps first. Save the invasive steps of examination of the eye, ear, nose, and throat until last.
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Question 22. Question : When preparing to examine a 6-year-old child, which action is most appropriate?
Student Answer: Start with the thorax, abdomen, and genitalia before examining the head.
Avoid talking about the equipment being used because it may increase the child’s anxiety.
Keep in mind that a child this age will have a sense of modesty.
Have the child undress from the waist up.
Instructor Explanation: A 6-year-old child has a sense of modesty. The child should undress himself or herself, leaving underpants on, and use a gown or drape. A school-age child is curious to know how equipment works, and the sequence should progress from head to toes.
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Question 23. Question : The nurse practitioner is assessing a patient’s skin during an office visit. What is the best technique to use to best assess the patient’s skin temperature?
Student Answer: Use the fingertips because they’re more sensitive to small changes in temperature.
Use the dorsal surface of the hand because the skin is thinner than on the palms.
Use the ulnar portion of the hand because there is increased blood supply that enhances temperature sensitivity.
Use the palmar surface of the hand because it is most sensitive to temperature variations because of increased nerve supply in this area.
Instructor Explanation: The dorsa (backs) of hands and fingers are best for determining temperature because the skin there is thinner than on the palms.
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Question 24. Question : Percussion notes heard during the abdominal assessment may include:
Student Answer: flatness, resonance, and dullness.
resonance, dullness, and tympany.
tympany, hyperresonance, and dullness.
resonance, hyperresonance, and flatness.
Instructor Explanation: Percussion notes normally heard during the abdominal assessment may include tympany, which should predominate because air in the intestines rises to the surface when the person is supine; hyperresonance, which may be present with gaseous distention; and dullness, which may be palpated over a distended bladder or enlarged spleen or liver.
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Question 25. Question : The nurse practitioner is assessing a patient for possible peptic ulcer disease and knows that which condition often causes this problem?
Student Answer: Hypertension
History of constipation and frequent laxative use
Frequent use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Instructor Explanation: Peptic ulcer disease occurs with frequent use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, alcohol use, smoking, and Helicobacter pylori infection.
Question : You are participating in a health fair and performing cholesterol screens. One person has a cholesterol level of 225. She is concerned about her risk for developing heart disease. Which of the following factors is used to estimate the 10-year risk of developing coronary heart disease?
Student Answer: Ethnicity
Question 2. Question : You are concerned that a patient has an aortic regurgitation murmur. Which is the best position to accentuate the murmur?
Student Answer: Upright
Upright, but leaning forward
Left lateral decubitus
Question 3. Question : You are screening people at the mall as part of a health fair. The first person who comes for screening has a blood pressure of 132/85. How would you categorize this?
Student Answer: Normal
Stage 1 hypertension
Stage 2 hypertension
Question 4. Question : How should you determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic?
Student Answer: Palpate the carotid pulse.
Palpate the radial pulse.
Judge the relative length of systole and diastole by auscultation.
Correlate the murmur with a bedside heart monitor.
Question 5. Question : A 78-year-old retired seamstress comes to the office for a routine check-up. You obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG) because of her history of hypertension. You diagnose a previous myocardial infarction and ask her if she had any symptoms related to this. Which of the following symptoms would be more common in this patient’s age group for an AMI?
Student Answer: Chest pain
Pain radiating into the left arm
Pain radiating into the jaw
Question 6. Question : On examination, you find a bounding carotid pulse on a 62-year-old patient. Which murmur should you suspect?
Student Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Question 7. Question : Which of the following correlates with a sustained, high-amplitude point of maximal impulse (PMI)?
Student Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Question 8. Question : A 68-year-old woman with hypertension and diabetes is seen by the nurse practitioner for a dry cough that worsens at night when she lies in bed. She has shortness of breath, which worsens when she exerts herself. The patient’s pulse rate is 90/min and regular. The patient has gained 6 lbs over the past two months. She is on a nitroglycerine patch and furosemide daily. The explanation for her symptoms is:
Student Answer: Kidney failure
Congestive heart failure
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor induced coughing
Question 9. Question : When listening to a soft murmur or bruit, which of the following may be necessary?
Student Answer: Asking the patient to hold their breath.
Asking the patient in the next bed to turn down the TV.
Checking your stethoscope for air leaks.
All of the above.
Question 10. Question : You notice a patient has a strong pulse and then a weak pulse. This pattern continues. Which of the following is likely?
Student Answer: Emphysema
Severe left heart failure
Question : A patient complains of shortness of breath for the past few days. On examination, you note late inspiratory crackles in the lower third of the chest that were not present a week ago. What is the most likely explanation for these?
Student Answer: Asthma
Question 2. Question : A sixty-year-old baker presents to your clinic, complaining of increasing shortness of breath and nonproductive cough over the last month. She feels like she can’t do as much activity as she used to do without becoming tired. She even has to sleep upright in her recliner at night to be able to breathe comfortably. She denies any chest pain, nausea, or sweating. Her past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. She had a hysterectomy in her 40s for heavy vaginal bleeding. She is married and is retiring from the local bakery soon. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother died of a stroke, and her father died from prostate cancer. She denies any recent upper respiratory illness, and she has had no other symptoms. On examination, she is in no acute distress. Her blood pressure is 160/100, and her pulse is 100. She is afebrile, and her respiratory rate is 16. With auscultation, she has distant air sounds and she has late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes. On cardiac examination, the S1 and S2 are distant and an S3 is heard over the apex.
Student Answer: Pneumonia
Left-sided heart failure
Question 3. Question : A patient with long-standing COPD was told by another practitioner that his liver was enlarged and this needed to be assessed. Which of the following would be reasonable to do next?
Student Answer: Percuss the lower border of the liver.
Measure the span of the liver.
Order a hepatitis panel.
Obtain an ultrasound of the liver.
Question 4. Question : Which of the following is not considered an adventitious sound heard in the lung fields?
Student Answer: Rhonchi
Question 5. Question : A fifty-five-year-old smoker complains of chest pain and gestures with a closed fist over her sternum to describe it. Which of the following diagnoses should be considered because of her gesture?
Student Answer: Bronchitis
Question 6. Question : When crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi clear with a cough, which of the following is a likely etiology?
Student Answer: Bronchitis
Question 7. Question : Is the following information subjective or objective? Mr. Mazz has shortness of breath that has persisted for the past ten days; it is worse with activity and relieved by rest.
Student Answer: Subjective
Question 8. Question : All of the following are implicated in causing chronic cough except:
Student Answer: Chronic bronchitis
Acute viral upper respiratory infection
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Question 9. Question : A mother brings her infant to you because of a “rattle” in his chest with breathing. Which of the following would you hear if there is a problem in the upper airway?
Student Answer: Different sounds from the nose and the chest
Sounds louder in the lower chest
Question 10. Question : Which of the following is consistent with good percussion technique?
Student Answer: Allow all of the fingers to touch the chest while performing percussion.
Maintain a stiff wrist and hand.
Leave the plexor finger on the pleximeter after each strike.
Strike the pleximeter over the distal interphalangeal joint.
Summary Chapter 3 The Self - Social Psychology and Consumer Behaviour (0HV30)
Summary of chapter 3 (The Self) of Social psychology and human nature by Baumeister and Bushman. The order of the book is followed, and the summary is based on the key words of the book. There is a table of contents, which may prove useful when searching for certain topics in the summary. The entire chapter is covered in this summary. Tip: you can also buy my \'Bundel\' of 0HV30; this will save you some money in the end!
Extreme Makeover: samenvattingen literatuur hoorcolleges (2017-2018)
Samenvattingen van de teksten bij de volgende hoorcolleges van de cursus 'Extreme Makeover':
- Weber, 'Beauty, desire and anxiety'
- Goffman, 'Presentation of self in everyday life'
- Stryker, '6 ways I was taught to be a good fattie'
- Tischner & Malson, 'Deconstructing health and unhealty fat woman'
- Mak, 'metamorfose van sekse'
- Ahlvik-Harju, 'disturbing bodies'
- Peuravaara, 'theorizing the body'
- Lenehan, 'Nose aesthetics'
- Haynes, 'body beautiful'
- Gill, 'postfeminist media culture'
Samenvattingen van Ahlvik-Harju & Peuravaara zijn in het Engels.
Unit 19 Pitching for a new Business Assignment 3 speaker notes- Learning Aim C
This essay is for Unit 19 Pitching for a new Business Assignment 3, Learning Aim C - Carry out a pitch for funding for the chosen micro-business. This work covers all of the criteria required to achieve distinction as well as the correct structure and layout needed to reach these high grades (please have a look at the previews). Just follow the content, it will save you time and help you easily achieve distinctions. (This is work in process, I haven\\\'t reveied my review yet therefore there this work is missing D3, as soon as i reveive it the documents wil be updated)
P5 Pitch for funding to start up a micro-business. /
P6 Review the viability and risks of the start-up using audience feedback. /
M3 Effectively present an individual pitch to negotiate funding for a micro-business start-up, analysing audience feedback and viability issues. /
D3 Demonstrate individual responsibility and effective self-management in the preparation, delivery and review of the presentation of a high-quality pitch.
Complete summery all articles Consumer behaviour
A complete summery of all articles from consumer behaviour. Including
- RED BULL “GIVES YOU WINGS” FOR BETTER OR WORSE: A DOUBLE‐EDGED IMPACT OF BRAND EXPOSURE ON CONSUMER PERFORMANCE - BRASEL & GIPS
- THE IMPACT OF INCOMPLETE TYPEFACE LOGOS ON PERCEPTIONS OF THE FIRM - HAGTVEDT
SURPRISE, SURPRISE. AMBIENT MEDIA AS PROMOTION TOOL FOR RETAILERS – HUTTER & HOFFMANN
- AUTOMATIC EFFECTS OF BRAND EXPOSURE ON MOTIVATED BEHAVIOR: HOW APPLE MAKES YOU “THINK DIFFERENT” – FITZSIMONS, CHARTRAND & FITZSIMONS
- HOW CONSUMERS ARE AFFECTED BY THE FRAMING OF ATTRIBUTE INFORMATION BEFORE AND AFTER CONSUMING THE PRODUCT- LEVIN & GAETH
- EFFECTS OF DISCOUNT FRAMING IN COMPARATIVE PRICE ADVERTISING – MCKECHNIE, DEVLIN, ENNEW & SMITH
- ZERO AS A SPECIAL PRICE: THE TRUE VALUE OF FREE PRODUCTS – SHAMPANIER, MAZAR & ARIELY
-WHERE CONSUMERS DIVERGE FROM OTHERS: IDENTITY SIGNALING AND PRODUCT DOMAINS – BERGER & HEATH
-A TIGER AND A PRESIDENT: IMPERCEPTIBLE CELEBRITY FACIAL CUES INFLUENCE TRUST AND PREFERENCE - TANNER & MAENG
-SIGNALING STATUS WITH LUXURY GOODS: THE ROLE OF BRAND PROMINENCE – HAN, NUNES & DRÈZE
-BICULTURAL SELF-DENSE IN CONSUMER CONTEXTS: SELF-PROTECTION MOTIVES ARE THE BASIS FOR CONTRAST VERSUS ASSIMILATION TO CULTURAL CUES – MOK & MORRIS
-SEX IN ADVERTISING: GENDER DIFFERENCES AND THE ROLE OF RELATIONSHIP COMMITMENT – DAHL, SENGUPTA & VOHS
-INCREASING SAVING BEHAVIOR THROUGH AGE-PROGRESSED RENDERINGS OF THE FUTURE SELF – HERSHFIELD ET AL.
-POSITIVE AND NEGATIVE MEDIA IMAGE EFFECT ON THE SELF – SMEESTERS & MANDEL
-THE POWER OF TV: CABLE TELEVISION AND WOMEN’S STATUS IN INDIA – JENSEN & OSTER
-GUILT VERSUS SHAME: COPING, FLUENCY AND FRAMING IN THE EFFECTIVENESS OF RESPONSIBLE DRINKING MESSAGES – DUHACKEK, AGRAWAL & HAN
-THE EFFECT OF NOVEL ATTRIBUTED ON PRODUCT EVALUATION – MUKHERJEE & HOYER
-NETWORKS OF DESIRE: HOW TECHNOLOGY INCREASES OUR PASSION TO CONSUME - KOZINETS, PATTERSON & ASHMAN.
-GAMIFIED INFORMATION PRESENTATION AND CONSUMER ADAPTATION OF PRODUCT INNOVATIONS – MÜLLER-STEWENS, SCHLAGER, HÄUBL & HERRMANN
Professional English in Use Engineering Digitaal Lesboek
Professional English in Use Engineering presents and practises over 1000 words and phrases to help you function in English in your everyday working life. Using the highly successful format of presentation on the left hand page and practice on the right hand page, Professional English in Use Engineering presents essential vocabulary in context to help you use the words more easily. Easy to use, attractively designed in four colours throughout and and fully comprehensive, this book will be invaluable for anyone needing to use English for their professional lives. It is suitable for one-to-one classroom use and self-study.
Dit digitale leerboek is uitgegeven door Cambridge University Press. Het boek bestaat uit 148 pagina's, met daarin het antwoordenmodel.
COMM. Theory Exam 1 & 2: Graded 100%
_______ is \"careful, systematic, and self-conscious discussion & analysis of communication phenomena.\"
Which of the following is posed by Judee Burgoon regarding communication theory?
Which of the following was NOT posed as a metaphor
_______ is the relational process of creating and interpreting messages that elicit a response.
Which of the following was presented as a truism among communication scholars?
T/F: Scholars generally agree on a definition of communication.
T/F: Text and message can be used synonymously by communication theorists.
The central question addressed by epistemology is:
For a strict social scientist, humans _______.
For the behavioral scientist, the relationship between individual freedom and predictability is such that as individual freedom goes up:
T/F: Effective theories describe and predict only those objective facts that can be sensed by an individual and will not speculate about the subjective meanings inside our heads.
T/F: Scientists believe that there is only one reality \"out there\" and that truth is therefore singular.
The twin objectives of scientific knowledge are:
What evaluation criterion of scientific research suggests that a theory be simple yet complete, offering an explanation that is as straightforward as possible?
To be testable, a scientific theory must be:
If a researcher systematically varied an independent variable and measured the resulting effect this had on a dependent variable, he or she would be conducting an:
Interpretive theory is valuable when it:
Which of the following criteria is least applicable to humanistic theory?
If one wishes to study the communicative patterns of a culture by immersing oneself in that culture, all the while observing what is going on, one is engaged in:
The most common form of textual analysis is:
T/F: A good objective theory is falsifiable.
T/F: Agreement among the community of scholars is indicative of a good interpretive theory.
T/F: Whether objective or interpretive, theories that still require fine-tuning after many years are not acceptable.
T/F: It would be okay for a social scientist to critique an interpretive theory because it\'s subjective.
A primary contribution of cybernetic tradition to communication studies has been:
Information theory stems from Claude Shannon\'s:
Traditional rhetorical communication is distinguished by:
The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis suggests that:
According to Carl Rogers, congruence is:
T/F: Hybrids are possible across the seven traditions of communication theory
T/F: Contemporary socio-cultural theorists claim that it is through the process of communication that reality is produced, maintained, repaired, and transformed.
T/F: The semantic triangle was designed to show the direct relationship between words and their referents.
T/F: In the rhetorical tradition, oral public persuasion has been primarily the province of men.
T/F: Although ethics are very important to the discipline of communication, the National Communication Association has been unable o agree on any formal principles for ethical communication.
The basic idea behind symbolic interactionism is that:
Mead believed that the best way to study the phenomena we now know today as symbolic interactionism was through:
According to Mead, humans have a unique capacity to ______________.
The looking-glass self is best defined as:
An inner dialogue used to test alternatives, rehearse action, and anticipate reactions before overtly responding is called:
T/F: There is no \"me\" at birth.
T/F: A person\'s identity is not shaped by the reactions of others, but rather, by the person\'s own actions.
Coordinated Management of Meaning (CMM) theory can help us:
________________ refers to an unwanted repetitive communication pattern.
Dialogic Communication means that you:
Which of the following is not an accurate statement about the social constructionist foundation of CMM?
Which of the following statements about the hierarchy of meaning is not accurate?
T/F: CMM asserts that people in conversation create realities that they can then control once they understand the rules of social interaction.
T/F: Social constructionists emphasize certainty over curiosity.
T/F: Coordination is only possible if persons-in-conversation agree about coherence.
T/F: Cosmopolitan communicators try to find ways of coordinating with other with whom they do not, and perhaps should not, agree.
The invisible, variable volume of space surrounding an individual that defines that person\'s preferred distance from others is called:
Edward Hall\'s term for the study of people\'s use of space as a special elaboration of culture is:
The result of a personal audit of likely gains and losses from a breach of expectancy is called:
Which of the following concepts has Burgoon abandoned?
The sum of the positive and negative attributes that the person brings to the encounter and the potential the person has to reward or punish in the future
T/F: Burgoon\'s theory focuses exclusively on nonverbal behavior.
T/F: Expectancy Violations Theory focuses exclusively on situations that involve unexpected and unpleasant behavior.
A main focus of Altman and Taylor\'s social penetration theory is:
To explain self-disclosure, Altman and Taylor compare the human psyche to an:
Self-disclosure makes one:
The process of gradually becoming less and less intimate is called:
Psychologist Paul Wright argues that:
The threshold above which an outcome seems attractive is called the:
Optimum disclosure will occur when both parties believe that:
T/F: Depth is equally as important as breadth to the process of social penetration.
T/F: The tension between openness and closedness results in cycles of disclosure and withdrawal.
T/F: Friendships are usually caused by cautious, measured self-disclosure rather than by quick thrust of self-disclosure.
Berger assumes that when strangers meet, their primary concern is to:
The basic premise or causal mechanism of uncertainty reduction theory is that:
As a person\'s ability to predict behaviors increases, uncertainty:
The two types of uncertainty a person faces are:
An axiom is a:
T/F: High levels of uncertainty cause increases in information-seeking behavior.
T/F: Hedging may involve jokes and/or ambiguity.
Baxter and Montgomery suggest that all people desire to have:
Simon wants to be connected to his girlfriend, Ginny, but also wants to be autonomous and have his own friends. After his friend Cameron explains dialectical theory to him, Simon begs, \"So, how do I get rid of all this tension?\" What would Baxter and Montgomery say?
The strategy of compartmentalizing different aspects of a relationship is called:
Which of the following best completes this sentence to boil down relational dialectics into one phrase: relationships are _________
According to Baxter, which one of the following dialectics is most central to relationship development?
T/F: Baxter and Montgomery\'s general purpose in developing the dialectical perspective is to discover scientific laws that will explain and predict behaviors between friends and lovers.
T/F: By definition, no relationship can exist unless the parties involved sacrifice some autonomy.
T/F: Baxter warns that if we accept the basic premise that close relationships are indeterminate processes of ongoing flux, we run the danger of becoming cynics.
Which of the following is NOT one of the factors Petronio explicitly suggests affects our privacy rules?
What does co-ownership mean?
Pastor Rick is very intentional about connecting with the members of his church. He asks a lot of questions in order to be sure he\'s in touch with their lives. Which of the following terms does Petronio use to best describe his role?
When a recipient agrees to allow the original owner of private information to make decisions regarding further disclosure and control, which term does Petronio use to describe the confidant?
Erin tells her friend Melinda of her intention to move across the country to marry her long-distance partner. They agree that Melinda can\'t tell anyone in her family, but it would be okay to tell her husband Brian. What have they negotiated?
Turbulence results from which of the following situations?
All the above
Lizzy is unsure exactly what she can and can\'t share about Betty\'s crush on Greg.
Lizzy knows Betty would rather people didn\'t know she has a crush on Greg, but she thinks if he knew, Greg might reciprocate Betty\'s feelings.
Lizzy tells Betty\'s roommate Jess about the crush; she thought she already knew.
T/F: Most people disclose for the same motivation: to get close to their partner
T/F: Once information is shared, it\'s unlikely that it will become private or solely personal again.
T/F: Once someone becomes a co-owner of disclosed information, each party should have an equal say in how the information is managed.
Aristotle envisioned rhetoric as:
The issue of speaker credibility relates most specifically to:
A deductive argument that omits a premise is called an:
Early Athenian public speaking professors whose practical approach lacked a theoretical foundation were called:
For Aristotle, metaphor was a key component of:
Aristotle believed that appeals to the emotions:
T/F: Any form of presentation/delivery that calls attention to itself takes away from the speaker\'s proofs.
T/F: On the whole, Aristotle\'s concept of ethos has held up well under scientific scrutiny.
T/F: Under Aristotle\'s classification scheme, Lincoln\'s \"Gettysburg Address\" would be considered an example of forensic speaking.
T/F: Rhetoric has been defined as the discovery of the available means of persuasion.
Fisher believes that human nature is epitomized by:
Which of the following is one of the assumptions of the narrative paradigm?
Fisher believes that stories can be evaluated using the twin tests of narrative ________________.
According to Fisher, the ideal audience:
T/F: Fisher maintains that offering good reasons has more to do with telling a compelling story than it does with piling up evidence or constructing a tight argument.
Introduction to Spanish
This presentation provides a thorough introduction to the Spanish language outlining greeting and salutations both formal and informal, self introduction with many person to person dialogues and also an extensive vocabulary index. I am confident this content is of excellent quality. Very good quality power-point presentation. ¡Todo lo que es mejor!
2016SP_MGT_3335_70_Organizational Behavior Assessment - Chapter 6
Which of the following is a factor present in a situation which may affect a person's perception?
Which of the following types of biases is most likely to play a significant role during a negotiation?
A. anchoring bias
B. distinction bias
C. normalcy bias
D. status quo bias
E. impact bias
Phyllis Stintson needs to decide whether to start a campaign against deforestation in Indonesia. Though her research team has provided substantial information on the high feasibility of the project, Stintson does not go ahead with the project. Stintson's decision is most likely influenced by which of the following if she made the decision by drawing unconscious references from several different experiences in the past?
B. fundamental attribution error
D. anchoring bias
E. framing effect
________ bias refers to the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is easily accessible.
The tendency to believe falsely, after an outcome of an event is actually known, that one would have accurately predicted that outcome is known as a(n) ________ bias.
Jeanne Edwards works as a campaign manager at Rainforest Alliance Trust, a forest protection organization in Indonesia. She is currently working on the Palm Oil Campaign which aims at establishing stringent laws against companies which aggravate deforestation to extract palm oil for commercial use. Her role is to establish allies with other forest protection organizations and companies which use eco-friendly products that set good examples for other companies to follow. Jeanne allied with Griffin and Powell, a large multinational company, which, unknown to Jeanne, also has strong ties with local logging groups in Jakarta. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument that Jeanne had an availability bias while establishing an ally with the company?
A. Griffin and Powell ensures that all their CSR initiatives on forests are regularly and substantially publicized.
B. Rainforest Alliance Trust has strong networks with local environmental research organizations.
C. Jeanne has access to environmental records maintained by the Information Ministry.
D. Jeanne is well acquainted with various research techniques.
E. Jeanne has adequate experience in leading such campaigns.
Naomi Fisher, a sales manager at Pure, a water purifier company, had a new member, Leah Marshall join her team. Though during Leah's interview, Naomi felt she would be a productive sales executive, her performance has often been below the mark. Consistently in the past three months, Leah has been unable to reach her targets and is falling substantially behind on her annual targets. Naomi assumes that Leah is not determined and motivated enough to do what it takes. Which of the following, if true, weakens Naomi's assumption?
A. Research showed that the company's largest competitor had a lower turnover than they did.
B. Leah has been assigned a sales territory where consumers are from low income groups.
C. Leah has often arrived late for team meetings conducted in the morning.
D. Leah has good interpersonal skills and gets along well with her customers.
E. Naomi recently received feedback from other team members that Leah is often uncooperative.
Sarah Covington, a sales manager at Synergy Corporation Bank, often keeps low expectations of her team. She feels that they are under qualified for their job and do not have substantial experience to sell a large number of accounts. Covington's team does not feel motivated enough and invariably underperforms and misses targets on a regular basis. Which of the following concepts best explains Covington's team's poor performance?
A. hindsight bias
B. self-fulfilling prophecy
C. confirmation bias
D. bandwagon effect
E. contrast effect
According to the attribution theory, if everyone who faces a similar situation responds in the same way, we can say the behavior shows ________.
Rose Buffay needs to give a presentation to the board of directors of her organization next week. She knows that her presentation will play an important role in her performance appraisal in the next quarter. However, she knows that two of her colleagues, John Roy and Keith Mathews, will also be giving a presentation on the same issue. She is nervous because she believes that men have a better flair for giving presentations. Buffay's perception of John and Keith is most likely characterized by ________.
B. a halo effect
C. a contrast effect
D. a confirmation bias
E. a hindsight bias
Monica Walden feels that people who use plastic bags are insensitive toward the environment. She believes that people have a certain obligation toward their environment and should take it upon themselves to protect and preserve it. Which of the following factors has most likely influenced Walden's perception of people?
C. characteristic of the target
Which of the following is an example of internally caused behavior?
A. An employee was fired from work because he violated a company policy.
B. An employee could not attend an interview because of a delayed flight.
C. An employee was late for a team meeting because of a heavy downpour.
D. An employee was laid off because the company was attempting to cut costs by laying off employees.
E. An employee could not come to work because he met with an accident.
Johanna Murray, a climate campaigner at The National Footprint Foundation, is known in her organization to be a campaigner of caliber and high performance. She recently worked on a campaign against global warming during which she worked extremely hard to achieve project milestones. However, the campaign failed as it could not achieve the desired objective. Due to this, her manager, Brenda Owens gave her a poor performance appraisal. In the appraisal, Brenda said that Johanna was not motivated and failed to reach out to 25,000 people through Internet media to spread awareness about climate change. Which of the following, if true, weakens Brenda's statement?
A. Johanna recently moved from the agriculture campaign to the climate campaign.
B. Brenda is known in the organization to be a fair and unbiased manager.
C. Brenda was unable to make time for Johanna to brief her on the tasks involved in carrying out the campaign's media strategy.
D. Johanna's previous job involved an extensive amount of researching on environmental issues.
E. Johanna lacks experience in publicizing campaigns using Internet media.
Janice Yoder works in an environmental campaigning organization and often needs to interact with a large team for project implementation activities. However, she always finds it difficult to work as a part of a team. She always seems to have major disagreements with team members which lead to antagonistic relations between them. Though she has moved from one team to another, her relations with colleagues always seem to be hostile and cold. How would the attribution theory describe this behavior?
A. low on distinctiveness
B. high on adaptability
C. high on reliability
D. low on consensus
E. high on consistency
A manager doing performance appraisals gives more weight to recent employee behaviors than to behaviors of 6 or 9 months earlier. This shows that the manager's perception is affected by a(n) ________ bias.
A. self-serving bias
You are more likely to notice a car like your own due to ________.
A. halo effect
C. selective perception
D. contrast effect
E. self-serving bias
According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores ________, we tend to attribute it to internal causes.
A. low on conformity
B. low on distinctiveness
C. low on consistency
D. high on consensus
E. high on rigidity
Samantha is never late for work. But last Monday she arrived an hour late because of heavy traffic. According to the attribution theory, Samantha's behavior on that day scores ________.
A. high on reliability
B. low on distinctiveness
C. high on stability
D. high on traceability
E. low on consistency
Which of the following is a component of the three-component model of creativity?
A. logical thinking skills
C. analytical skills
E. extrinsic task motivation
The ________ bias is a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information.
Emily Boyce, a project manager at an insurance firm, regularly satisfices while making decisions. She often comes across complicated problems which would take a long time to resolve. Due to the pressing deadlines, she often meets project goals by satisficing a large number of her decisions. Which of the following is Boyce most likely to do?
A. seek complete information while making decisions
B. analyze each alternative in an unbiased manner
C. identify all possible options to solutions
D. choose the optimal solution to each problem
E. search for solutions that are reasonable
Which of the following is a decision-making model that describes how individuals should behave in order to maximize some outcome?
A. associative decision-making model
B. distributive decision-making model
C. flexible decision-making model
D. rational decision-making model
E. integrative decision-making model
________ refers to the tendency of people to draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic.
A. Self-serving bias
B. Confirmation bias
C. Halo effect
D. Randomness error
E. Hindsight bias
________ explains the ways in which we judge people differently, depending on the meaning we assign to a given behavior.
A. Attribution theory
B. Object relations theory
C. Equity theory
D. Cultural schema theory
E. Attachment theory
According to the attribution theory, which of the following behaviors is most likely to be attributed to an external cause?
A. a behavior that scores low on traceability
B. a behavior that scores high on consistency
C. a behavior that scores high on consensus
D. a behavior that scores high on rigidity
E. a behavior that scores low on distinctiveness
A manager believes that he should not hire older workers because they can't learn new skills. This belief is an example of ________.
B. a fundamental attribution error
C. a confirmation bias
D. a self-serving bias
E. an anchoring bias
According to the attribution theory, ________ is one the three main factors which attempts to determine an individual's behavior.
The three-component model of creativity proposes that individual creativity essentially requires expertise, creative thinking skills, and ________.
A. positivity offset
B. intrinsic task motivation
C. emotional intelligence
D. external locus of control
E. selective perception
Which of the following terms refers to choices made from among two or more alternatives?
Which of the following is an example of externally caused behavior?
A. An employee is late to work because of a punctured tire.
B. An employee closed a sale with an important corporate client because of his excellent negotiation skills.
C. An employee was promoted when he achieved more than the assigned objectives.
D. An employee postpones a meeting because he overslept.
E. An employee was fired because he violated a company policy.
William Davies, a guest relations executive at a five star deluxe hotel, regularly interacts with bureaucrats, politicians, celebrities, and other prosperous individuals. He feels that all rich people are kind, hardworking, and friendly. Which of the following is Davies most likely to be characterized by?
A. hindsight bias
B. halo effect
C. self-serving bias
D. confirmation bias
E. randomness error
________ is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.
Laura Simpson, a campaign manager at a child rights organization in Jakarta, planned a marathon for celebrities to raise money for underprivileged children. Though all arrangements for the event had been made, a few days before the event she realized that on the same day there was a political rally happening in the city which will block access to the route on which the marathon was supposed to be undertaken. In such a situation, what is Simpson, who suffers from a self-serving bias, most likely to say?
A. I did not do sufficient research on public events in the city.
B. I should have weighed feasibility options for the event.
C. The director had warned me of this. I should have known better.
D. My colleagues did not inform me about the rally.
E. I should have established better contacts to know about this update.
Alicia Akers works as a marketing executive. She always talks in a high pitch and often draws a lot of attention wherever she is. Which of the following statements best explains the reason behind people noticing Akers?
A. Perception of reality depends on the perceiver's past experiences.
B. Perception of reality depends on the perceiver's personality.
C. The time at which we observe behavior affects perception.
D. Motives and interests of the perceiver affects perception of behavior.
E. Characteristics of the target affect people's perception.
Jessica recently joined a new company and was first introduced to Michelle, her cubicle neighbor. Michelle came across as amiable and cheerful. During lunch she met another colleague, Carrie, who did not come across as friendly as Michelle. In this situation, Jessica's interpretation of Carrie's personality is most likely to be affected by a ________.
A. self-serving bias
B. contrast effect
C. bandwagon effect
D. fundamental attribution error
E. confirmation bias
Which of the following statements is true regarding the rational decision-making model?
A. It takes into consideration the limited information-processing capability of individuals.
B. It involves constructing simplified models without capturing all their complexity.
C. It assumes that an individual is able to identify all relevant options in an unbiased manner.
D. It deals with satisficing decisions by seeking solutions that are satisfactory and sufficient.
E. It is an unconscious decision-making process created from distilled experience.
Which of the following is a shortcut used in judging others by making generalizations?
B. illusory superiority
C. hindsight bias
D. telescoping effect
E. randomness error
According to the concept of ________, decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for the greatest number.
A. contrast effect
B. selective perception
C. halo effect
D. self-fulfilling prophecy
________ refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it's wrong.
A. Escalation of commitment
B. Risk aversion
C. Fundamental attribution error
D. Randomness error
E. Availability bias
When individuals observe another person's behavior, they attempt to determine whether it is internally or externally caused. Which of the following attempts to explain this phenomenon?
A. pygmalion effect
B. emotional dissonance
C. attribution theory
D. framing effect
E. two-factor theory
2. anchoring bias
6. Griffin and Powell ensures that all their CSR initiatives on forests are regularly and substantially publicized.
7. Leah has been assigned a sales territory where consumers are from low income groups.
8. self-fulfilling prophecy
12. An employee was fired from work because he violated a company policy.
13. Brenda was unable to make time for Johanna to brief her on the tasks involved in carrying out the campaign's media strategy.
14. high on consistency
16. selective perception
17. low on distinctiveness
18. low on consistency
21. search for solutions that are reasonable
22. rational decision-making model
23. Halo effect
24. Attribution theory
25. a behavior that scores high on consensus
28. intrinsic task motivation
30. An employee is late to work because of a punctured tire.
31. halo effect
33. My colleagues did not inform me about the rally.
34. Characteristics of the target affect people's perception.
35. contrast effect
36. It assumes that an individual is able to identify all relevant options in an unbiased manner.
39. Escalation of commitment
40. attribution theory
Psychology 321 |Washington State University: Grade 100%
Which of the following is NOT accurate regarding structured interviews
as a person becomes an expert in an area, he or she will begin to ___ to help organize the information
nima moved to the U.S. when she was 5 years old, and she gradually adopted the language, attitudes, and styles of American culture. The process through which nima became Americanized is known as
john argues that a particular cultureâ€™s distinctive view of reality simply exists and believes that there is no way to meaningfully address the origin of cultural differences. John seems to subscribe to which philosophical tradition
mike thinks that sitting around contemplating the meaning of existence is a waste of time. He spends his life concentrating on developing his career, building a bigger house for his family, and enjoying himself. Sartre and other existentialists would say that mike is
what disorder might represent an extreme or exaggerated version of traits associated with â€œmarching to a different drummerâ€ or acting original and somewhat idiosyncratically
Salvatore Maddi believed the most severe existential pathology was
a person who know that he is hostile and aloof is said to have ___ knowledge about himself
which childhood illness may have a link to obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
the out group homogeneity bias refers to the tendency to view oneâ€™s own group as having members that differ widely from each other while believing individuals from other groups are â€œall the sameâ€
the highest need proposed by Maslow was
in Pavlovâ€™s famous studies, when the presentation of meat was frequently preceded by the sound of a bell, dogs
suicide and self-mutilation are characteristic of which personality disorder
the idea that all cultural views are equally valid and that it is ethnocentric to think otherwise is called
sally is very concerned with abandonment and her partnerâ€™s lack of commitment to their relationship. She is high on which personality dimension
according to the goal circumplex model, goals related to helping oneâ€™s community are high on what dimension
the American south has a separate â€œculture of honorâ€, distinct from the rest of the U.S., which requires members to be more tolerant of insults
a study in china showed that information about ___ is remembered as well as information about the self
Steven believes that intelligence and ability can change with experience. Steven has a(n) ___ theory of ability
which theorist would most likely make the statement that stress is valuable for optimal psychological development
which two individuals are credited with turning existentialism into a more optimistic view of life?
what country had the highest levels of self-compassion
a culture that stresses that â€œtall poppies are cut firstâ€ might be high in which cultural dimension
researchers have yet to find evidence for the self-reference effect in china
according to distinctions between types of idiographic goals, a ___ is something you think about, whereas a ___ is something you do
the key target for psychotherapy, according to Bandura, is
based on research related to self-determination theory, which individual is likely to report the highest level of well-being
Csikszentimihalyiâ€™s concept of flow is analogous to
bicultural individuals often have difficulty quickly switching cultural frames of reference
___ consists of your biological experiences and ___ consists of your psychological experiences
cross-cultural psychology has examined differences in the way that members of various cultures think. Some research suggests that people from collectivist cultures think___ than those from individualistic cultures
what term refers to Banduraâ€™s idea that the self-system, environmental factors, and behavior are all dynamically interlinked
according to the text, accurate self-knowledge is a hallmark of mental health
positive psychologists usually argue that true happiness comes form overcoming important challenges. This idea is quite similar to Sartreâ€™s conception of
hallucinations are associated with schizoid personality disorder but not schizotypal personality disorder
all languages have terms for traits such as talkative, timid and diligent
dollard and miller view psychological conflict as the result of
when a new mobile is first hung over baby jessicaâ€™s crib, she looks at it frequently. After several weeks pass, she spends hardly any time looking at the mobile. Jessica has become ___ to the mobile
according to research and theory about goals, it is most advantageous to have the ability to
men who suffer from histrionic personality disorder might project a hyper masculine attitude and brag about their athletic abilities
knowing how to ride a bike is an example of declarative knowledge
what term describes a person who typically expects the worst so that they can be surprised or even relieved when the worst does no happen
the central idea of humanistic psychology is that oneâ€™s conscious experience is less psychologically important than oneâ€™s actual behavior
which of the following is NOT a philosophical underpinning of behaviorism
members of asian cultures find it more acceptable to deal with controversial issues in bigger meetings than individuals from the united states
vertical society tend to believe that individuals are importantly different from each other
which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria of OCPD
individuals who are high in the trait of narcissism might seem charming and attractive on the first impression
the basic idea behind empiricism is that
someone who absolutely must have a relationship where they are uncritically accepted is likely to have which personality disorder
the purpose of a basic approach (or paradigm) is
personality psychology has a variety of theoretical perspectives that are sometimes seen as competing with each other. Regarding this diversity, a major theme of this textbook is
the unique mandate of personality psychologists is to attempt
personality psychologists adhering to the ___ approach focus on psychic energy, the workings of the unconscious mind, and the nature and resolution of internal mental conflict
in observing human behavior, it is impossible
which of the following is NOT one of the basic approaches to personality
personality psychology emphasizes how people are ___, whereas subfields such as cognitive and social psychology emphasize how people are ___.
___ theories of personality apply the insights and methods derived from the study of perception, memory, and thought to the study of personality
jeff suspects that his roommateâ€™s sexist jokes may indicate that his roommate has some hidden, unconscious hostility toward women or that he feels very insecure around women. Jeffâ€™s analysis suggests a ___ approach to personality.
psychologists following the phenomenological approach
the personality paradigm that focuses on rewards and punishments is know as the ___ paradigm
advocates of any particular basic approach to personality historically
personality is an individualâ€™s characteristic patterns of
which of the following is not part of the psychological triad
personality psychology shares with clinical psychology
personality psychologists who adhere to the ___ approach focus on identifying, conceptualizing, and measuring the ways in which people differ psychologically from one another
what two topics are covered under the phenomenological approach
the trait approach, the behaviorist approach, and the psychoanalytic approach
personality psychology and clinical psychology overlap most often when approaching
the task of an employer who attempts to identify dependable, conscientious, and hard-working job applicants is similar to the task of the ___ psychologist, who attempts to identify and assess individual differences
imagine that a researcher conducts a study and finds a statistically significant correlation between eating pizza and aggression. However, there is no real association between eating pizza and aggression in nature. What kind of error has this researcher made
a personality description of a client by her or his therapist is an example of ___ data
according to the text, the goal of a scientific education is
because jesseâ€™s teacher believes that he is intelligent, she challenges him with extra assignments and generally encourages his curiosity. At the end of the school year, jesse performs better on the schoolâ€™s achievement test than any other student. Jesseâ€™s enhanced performance was likely due to the
a teacher is mistakenly told that one of his students is intellectually gifted. However, by the end of the year, this student has actually made substantial gains in her standardized test scores. This is an example of what psychological phenomenon
dr. rogers tries to motivate aggression in the laboratory by manipulating the room temperature. If this is the only way that dr. rogers tries to motivate aggression, the results of her studies may lack.
which of the following would be an example of natural B data?
which of the following is the biggest concern that funder has about the use of deception in psychological research
the principle of aggregation holds that random errors often become magnified when averaged together
according to principles described in the text, it would be relatively difficult to create a reliable measure of
what is the goal of the dissertation in the process of scientific education
which formula in psychometrics quantifies the principle of aggregation
according to the text, the tendency of a group of people who lived at a particular time to differ in some way from those who lived earlier or later is called a
which type of data is likely to be the most subjective and judgmental
a researcher wants to evaluate the correlation between extraversion and happiness. What is the null hypothesis in this analysis
psychology is relatively unique among the sciences because it uses the case method
on Friday, terence completes the self-monitoring scale and receives a score of 49. on the following Tuesday, he fills out the scale again and receives a score of 28. terenceâ€™s scores on the self-monitoring scale do not appear to be
dr. jones measures aggression by counting the number of times a research participant hits an inflatable â€œbobo dollâ€. If this is the only way dr. jones measures aggression, the results of his studies may lack
validity is much easier judge than reliability
the implicit associations test (IAT) yields what kind of data
personality trait measurements are typically made on what kind of scale
it is possible to directly calculate correlation effect sizes from experimental social psychology
your responses to the personality test item â€œI am an intelligent personâ€ would be ___ data, whereas your score on an intelligence test that reflects the number of problems you got right would be ___ data.
a test created using the empirical method yields what kind of data
the improvement in reliability gained by adding additional â€œgoodâ€ test items can be precisely calculated using what formula
according to situationists, the upper limit of personality coefficients is estimated as
measurements of weight are made on what kind of scale
not all items on objective tests are absolutely objective
sally found that neither caffeine nor extraversion predicted problem soving by themselves; however, she found that they both worked together to predict problem soving. This is an example of what kind of an effect
a variable that influences the association between two other variables is called a(n) ___ variable
the person-situation debate reflects deep-seated views about human nature
as described in the text, according to some researchers, the TAT measures ___, whereas questionnaire-based measures predict ___.
funder strongly believes that Mischel conducted an unfair literature review in personality and assessment
when taking a(n) ___ test, a person interprets an ambiguous stimulus in order to express the inner workings of her or his mind
there is a tendency to equate a situationist perspective with a more optimist view of the world
which of the following would be an example of using a moderator variable approach to improve the predictability of behavior from personality
according to the analogy drawn in the text between situational effects on behavior and scud missiles, situations are powerful because they
which of the following is NOT a limitation of the factor analytic approach
individuals high in the trait of extraversion tend to die younger than individuals who are lower in extraversion
which of the following is the strongest situation
how should you act in everyday life according to the â€œtransparent selfâ€ theory of psychological health
a strong handshake is a reliable indicator of honesty
the basic reason that research on the accuracy of personality judgments experienced a lengthy hiatus between 1955 and the mid-1980s was that
judgments other people make of your personality are known as
according to the text, what term describes a context where social norms tend to restrict what people do?
which of the following is NOT considered one of the likely reasons that high-expectancy students perform better
which of the following illustrates converging criteria that could be used to establish the accuracy of a personality judgment
research on expectancy effects has provided a clear estimate of the size of the effect in real life
based on recent research, what approach for job interviews might be the best
researchers know a great deal about the characteristics of good judges of personality
according to research that shows a link between a traitâ€™s observability and the accuracy with which it is judged, which of the following traits would be easiest to judge accurately
imagine that judgments of extraversion correlate with the number of parties that people attend over the course of four years of college. Researchers would therefore say these judgments have
participants in a recent study were shown composite faces from targets that scored extremely low or high on personality dimensions and then asked to judge the target. Which two traits had the highest levels of accuracy
to evaluate accuracy in personality judgments, researchers often want to know if personality judgments have predictive validity
which of the following traits would be hardest to judge
in making an overall judgment of your personality, which person should be most accurate
the philosophy of constructivism is widespread in modern intellectual life
which of the following was NOT mentioned as a potential moderator of accuracy
what is another name for ego resiliency
jack block found that 23 year olds who described themselves as being politically conservative were likely to have been described as ___ at age three
the ___ approach to personality usually assumes that all people can be characterized by points on a continuous score of measurement; the ___ approach to personality suggests that people might differ in kind more than in degree
the most important thing to notice about a table of Q-sort correlates is the
sally is seriously depressed at age 18. research using the Q-sort suggests that as a child, sally probably would have been described as
a researcher tries to discover the most important or basic personality traits that exist across people. Which approach is she taking
what the big three traits according to Auke Tellegen
the big five believed to be the orthogonal factors of personality. What does orthogonal mean
a researcher taking the many-triat approach to understanding personality would likely use which of the following measurement instruments
according to the text, sex differences in the personality correlates of the delay of gratification are likely attributable to sex differences in
Erich Fromm was inspired to research authoritarianism because of what historical events
which of the following traits is largely independent of integrity tests
a researcher using the big five likely adopts the many-trait approach
the items in the California Q-set were derived from
according to Eysenck, psychoticicm is a blend of aggressiveness, creativeness and impulsiveness
which of the big five traits appears to be the most difficult to understand
in order to alleviate the effects of bias in employment testing, employers might want to use ___, because they typically do not show racial or ethnic differences
which of the following characteristics is NOT associated with conscientiousness
sally is a strong proponent of the lexical hypothesis. Where would she likely begin her search for the essential traits of personality
typological approaches to personality have demonstrated predictive advantages over trait approaches for predicting behavior
which brain structure seems to play an important role in memory
before brain surgery, elliot was a good father and held a responsible job. After removal of portions of his frontal lobe, elliotâ€™s personality changed in what way
NR 222 Test Preparation Exam 1 (Latest): Health and Wellness: Chamberlain
NR 222 Test Preparation Exam 1 (Latest): Health and Wellness: Chamberlain
1.You are preparing a presentation for your classmates regarding the clinical care coordination conference for a patient with terminal cancer. As part of the preparation you have your classmates read the Nursing Code of Ethics for Professional Registered Nurses. Your instructor asks the class why this document is important. Which of the following statements best describes this code?
1. Improves self–health care
2. Protects the patient's confidentiality
3. Ensures identical care to all patients
4. Defines the principles of right and wrong to provide patient care
2. An 18-year-old woman is in the emergency department with fever and cough. The nurse obtains her vital signs, listens to her lung and heart sounds, determines her level of comfort, and collects blood and sputum samples for analysis. Which standard of practice is performed?
3. A patient in the emergency department has developed wheezing and shortness of breath. The nurse gives the ordered medicated nebulizer treatment now and in 4 hours. Which standard of practice is performed?
4. A nurse is caring for a patient with end-stage lung disease. The patient wants to go home on oxygen and be comfortable. The family wants the patient to have a new surgical procedure. The nurse explains the risk and benefits of the surgery to the family and discusses the patient's wishes with them. The nurse is acting as the patient's:
4. Case manager.
5. The nurse spends time with the patient and family reviewing the dressing change procedure for the patient's wound. The patient's spouse demonstrates how to change the dressing. The nurse is acting in which professional role?
4. Case manager
6. The examination for registered nurse (RN) licensure is exactly the same in every state in the United States. This examination:
1. Guarantees safe nursing care for all patients.
2. Ensures standard nursing care for all patients.
3. Ensures that honest and ethical care is provided.
4. Provides a minimal standard of knowledge for an RN in practice.
7. Contemporary nursing requires that the nurse has knowledge and skills for a variety of professional roles and responsibilities. Which of the following are examples? (Select all that apply.)
2. Autonomy and accountability
3. Patient advocate
4. Health promotion
8. Match the advanced practice nurse specialty with the statement about the role.
1. Clinical nurse specialist-b. Expert clinician in a specialized area of practice such as adult diabetes care
2. Nurse anesthetist-d. Provides care and services under the supervision of an anesthesiologist
3. Nurse practitioner-c. Provides comprehensive care, usually in a primary care setting, directly managing the medical care of patients who are healthy or have chronic conditions
4. Nurse-midwife-a. Provides independent care, including pregnancy and gynecological services
9. Health care reform will bring changes in the emphasis of care. Which of the following models is expected from health care reform?
1. Moving from an acute illness to a health promotion, illness prevention model
2. Moving from an illness prevention to a health promotion model
3. Moving from an acute illness to a disease management model
4. Moving from a chronic care to an illness prevention model
10. A nurse meets with the registered dietitian and physical therapist to develop a plan of care that focuses on improving nutrition and mobility for a patient. This is an example of which Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
1. Patient-centered care
3. Teamwork and collaboration
11. A critical care nurse is using a computerized decision support system to correctly position her ventilated patients to reduce pneumonia caused by accumulated respiratory secretions. This is an example of which Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?
1. Patient-centered care
3. Teamwork and collaboration
13. The nurses on an acute care medical floor notice an increase in pressure ulcer formation in their patients. A nurse consultant decides to compare two types of treatment. The first is the procedure currently used to assess for pressure ulcer risk. The second uses a new assessment instrument to identify at-risk patients. Given this information, the nurse consultant exemplifies which career?
1. Clinical nurse specialist
2. Nurse administrator
3. Nurse educator
4. Nurse researcher
14. Nurses in an acute care hospital are attending a unit-based education program to learn how to use a new pressure-relieving device for patients at risk for pressure ulcers. This is which type of education?
1. Continuing education
2. Graduate education
3. In-service education
4. Professional Registered Nurse Education
15. Which of the following Internet resources can help consumers compare quality care measures? (Select all that apply.)
2. Hospital Compare
3. Magnet Recognition Program
4. Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare
5. The American Hospital Association's webpage.
1. The components of the nursing metaparadigm include:
1. Person, health, environment, and theory
2. Health, theory, concepts, and environment
3. Nurses, physicians, health, and patient needs
4. Person, health, environment, and nursing
2. Theory is essential to nursing practice because it: (Select all that apply.)
1. Contributes to nursing knowledge.
2. Predicts patient behaviors in situations.
3. Provides a means of assessing patient vital signs.
4. Guides nursing practice.
5. Formulates health care legislation.
6. Explains relationships between concepts.
3. A nurse ensures that each patient's room is clean; well ventilated; and free from clutter, excessive noise, and extremes in temperature. Which theorist's work is the nurse practicing in this example?
4. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with the diagnosis of a stroke and right-sided weakness. The nurse assumes responsibility for bathing and feeding the patient until the patient is able to begin performing these activities. The nurse in this situation is applying the theory developed by:
5. Match the following types of theory with the appropriate description.
1. Middle-range theory-d. Addresses a specific phenomenon and reflects practice
2. Shared theory-c. Applies theory from other disciplines to nursing practice
3. Grand theory-a. Very abstract; attempts to describe nursing in a global context
4. Practice theory-b. Specific to a particular situation; brings theory to the bedside
6. Match the following descriptions to the appropriate grand theorist.
1. King-d. Based on the belief that nurses should work with patients to develop goals for care
2. Henderson-c. Based on 14 activities, the belief that the nurse should assist patients with meeting needs until they are able to do so independently
3. Orem-b. Based on the belief that people who participate in self-care activities are more likely to improve their health outcomes
4. Neuman-a. Based on the theory that focuses on wellness and prevention of disease
7. Match the following description to the appropriate middle-range theory.
1. Benner's Skill Acquisition-b. The nurse progresses through five stages of expertise.
2. AACN's Synergy Model-d. Matching nurse competencies to patient needs can improve patient outcomes
3. Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness-c. The nurse helps the patient to process and find meaning related to his or her illness.
4. Kolcaba's Theory of Comfort- a. The nurse strives to relieve patients' distress.
8. Which of the following statements related to theory-based nursing practice are correct? (Select all that apply.)
1. Nursing theory differentiates nursing from other disciplines.
2. Nursing theories are standardized and do not change over time.
3. Integrating theory into practice promotes coordinated care delivery.
4. Nursing knowledge is generated by theory.
5. The theory of nursing process is used in planning patient care.
6. Evidence-based practice results from theory-testing research.
9. A nurse is caring for a patient who recently lost a leg in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse best assists the patient to cope with this situation by applying which of the following theories?
10. Using Maslow's hierarchy of needs, identify the priority for a patient who is experiencing chest pain and difficulty breathing.
2. Air, water, and nutrition
4. Esteem and self-esteem needs
11. Which of the following categories of shared theories would be most appropriate for a patient who is grieving the loss of a spouse?
12. While working in a rehabilitation facility, it is important to obtain nursing histories and develop a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship. List in correct order the phases of Peplau's theory as applied in this setting. The nurse:
3) Ensures that the patient has access to appropriate community resources for long-term care.
2)Collaborates with the patient to identify specific patient needs.
4)Collects essential information from the patient's health record.
1)Works with the patient to develop a plan for resolving patient issues.
13. Nurses have developed theories in response to: (Select all that apply.)
1. Changes in health care.
2. Prior nursing theories.
3. Changes in nursing practice.
4. Research findings.
5. Government regulations.
6. Theories from other disciplines.
7. Physician opinions.
14. Which of the following types of theory influence the “evidence” in current “evidence-based practice (EBP)”?
1. Grand theory
2. Middle-range theory
3. Practice theory
4. Shared theory
15. A nurse is preparing to begin intravenous fluid therapy for a patient. Which category of theory would be most helpful to the nurse at this time?
1. Grand theory
2. Middle-range theory
3. Practice theory
4. Shared theory
1. A nurse is presenting a program to workers in a factory covering safety topics, including the wearing of hearing protectors when workers are in the factory. Which level of prevention is the nurse practicing?
1. Primary prevention
2. Secondary prevention
3. Tertiary prevention
4. Quaternary prevention
2. A patient had surgery for a total knee replacement a week ago and is currently participating in daily physical rehabilitation sessions at the surgeon's office. In what level of prevention is the patient participating?
1. Primary prevention
2. Secondary prevention
3. Tertiary prevention
4. Quaternary prevention
3. Based on the transtheoretical model of change, what is the most appropriate response to a patient who states: “Me, stop smoking? I've been smoking since I was 16!”
1. “That's fine. Some people who smoke live a long life.”
2. “OK. I want you to decrease the number of cigarettes you smoke by one each day, and I'll see you in 1 month.”
3. “I understand. Can you think of the greatest reason why stopping smoking would be challenging for you?”
4. “I'd like you to attend a smoking cessation class this week and use nicotine replacement patches as directed.”
4. A patient comes to the local health clinic and states: “I've noticed how many people are out walking in my neighborhood. Is walking good for you?” What is the best response to help the patient through the stages of change for exercise?
1. “Walking is OK. I really think running is better.”
2. “Yes, walking is great exercise. Do you think you could go for a 5-minute walk next week?”
3. “Yes, I want you to begin walking. Walk for 30 minutes every day and start to eat more fruits and vegetables.”
4. “They probably aren't walking fast enough or far enough. You need to spend at least 45 minutes if you are going to do any good.”
5. A male patient has been laid off from his construction job and has many unpaid bills. He is going through a divorce from his marriage of 15 years and has been seeing his pastor to help him through this difficult time. He does not have a primary health care provider because he has never really been sick and his parents never took him to a physician when he was a child. Which external variables influence the patient's health practices? (Select all that apply.)
1. Difficulty paying his bills
2. Seeing his pastor as a means of support
3. Age of patient (46 years)
4. Stress from the divorce and the loss of a job
5. Family practice of not routinely seeing a health care provider
6. A nurse is conducting a home visit with an older-adult couple. While in the home the nurse weighs each individual and reviews the 3-day food diary with them. She also checks their blood pressure and encourages them to increase their fluids and activity levels to help with their voiced concern about constipation. The nurse is addressing which level of need according to Maslow?
2. Safety and security
3. Love and belonging
7. When taking care of patients, a nurse routinely asks if they take any vitamins or herbal medications, encourages family members to bring in music that the patient likes to help the patient relax, and frequently prays with her patients if that is important to them. The nurse is practicing which model?
2. Health belief
4. Health promotion
8. Using the Transtheoretical Model of Change, order the steps that a patient goes through to make a lifestyle change related to physical activity.
1. 2:The individual recognizes that he is out of shape when his daughter asks him to walk with her after school.
2. 5:Eight months after beginning walking, the individual participates with his wife in a local 5K race.
3. 1:The individual becomes angry when the physician tells him that he needs to increase his activity to lose 30 lbs.
4. 4:The individual walks 2 to 3 miles, 5 nights a week, with his wife.
5. 3: The individual visits the local running store to purchase walking shoes and obtain advice on a walking plan.
9. Which statement made by a nurse shows that the nurse is engaging in an activity to help cope with secondary traumatic stress and burnout?
1. “I don't need time for lunch since I am not very hungry.”
2. “I am enjoying my quilting group that meets each week at my church.”
3. “I am going to drop my gym membership because I don't have time to go.”
4. “I don't know any of the other nurses who met today to discuss hospital-wide problems with nurse satisfaction.”
10. Which of the following are symptoms of secondary traumatic stress and burnout that commonly affect nurses? (Select all that apply.)
1. Regular participation in a book club
2. Lack of interest in exercise
3. Difficulty falling asleep
4. Lack of desire to go to work
5. Anxiety while working
11. After a class on Pender's health promotion model, students make the following statements. Which statement does the faculty member need to clarify?
1. “The desired outcome of the model is health-promoting behavior.”
2. “Perceived self-efficacy is not related to the model.”
3. “The individual has unique characteristics and experiences that affect his or her actions.”
4. “Patients need to commit to a plan of action before they adopt a health-promoting behavior.”
12. A patient registered at the local fitness center and purchased a pair of exercise shoes. The patient is in what stage of behavioral change?
13. As part of a faith community nursing program in her church, a nurse is developing a health promotion program on breast self-examination for the women's group. Which statement made by one of the participants is related to the individual's perception of susceptibility to an illness?
1. “I have a door hanging tag in my bathroom to remind me to do my breast self-examination monthly.”
2. “Since my mother had breast cancer, I know that I am at increased risk for developing breast cancer.”
3. “Since I am only 25 years of age, the risk of breast cancer for me is very low.”
4. “I participate every year in our local walk/run to raise money for breast cancer research.”
14. The nurse assesses the following risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD) in a female patient. Which factors are classified as genetic and physiological? (Select all that apply.)
1. Sedentary lifestyle
2. Mother died from CAD at age 48
3. History of hypertension
4. Eats diet high in sodium
5. Elevated cholesterol level
15. Which activity shows a nurse engaged in primary prevention?
1. A home health care nurse visits a patient's home to change a wound dressing.
2. A nurse is assessing risk factors of a patient in the emergency department admitted with chest pain.
3. A school health nurse provides a program to the first-year students on healthy eating.
4. A nurse schedules a patient who had a myocardial infarction for cardiac rehabilitation sessions weekly.