NSG 5003 Final (2018): Advanced pathophysiology: South University (Already graded A)
NSG 5003 Final: Advanced pathophysiology: South University
Question 1 (5 points)
Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
Question 1 options:
Question 2 (5 points)
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 2 options:
Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.
Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.
Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 3 (5 points)
Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?
Question 3 options:
Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.
Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.
Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.
Question 4 (5 points)
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 4 options:
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.
The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane
Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 5 (5 points)
What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
Question 5 options:
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations
Question 6 (5 points)
Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2
?Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.
The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.
The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 7 (5 points)
In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 7 options:
a) Oncotic pressure
c) Net filtration
d) Hydrostatic pressure
Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 8 options:
a) Capillary hydrostatic
b) Interstitial hydrostatic
c) Capillary oncotic
d) Interstitial oncotic
Question 9 (5 points)
At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 9 options:
a) The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.
b) The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.
c) The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
d) The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 10 (5 points)
It is true that natriuretic peptides:
Question 10 options:
a) Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.
b) Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.
c) Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.
d) Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Question 11 (5 points)
What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?
Question 11 options:
a) High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.
b) High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.
c) High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.
d) High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.
Question 12 (5 points)
A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:
Question 12 options:
a) Intracellular and extracellular Na
b) . Intracellular and extracellular K
c) Intracellular Na and extracellular K
d) Intracellular K and extracellular Na
Question 13 (5 points)
In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?
Question 13 options:
Question 14 (5 points)
Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:
Question 14 options:
Question 15 (5 points)
Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:
Question 15 options:
a) Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin
b) Inflammation resulting from an immune response
c) Blockage within the lymphatic channel system
d) Sodium and water retention
Question 16 (5 points)
Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:
Question 16 options:
a) A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development
b) Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair
c) An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant
d) Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis
Question 17 (5 points)
The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:
Question 17 options:
a) Are antigen-presenting molecules
b) Bind antigens to antibodies
c) Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process
d) Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Question 18 (5 points)
The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:
Question 18 options:
a) Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell
b) Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate
c) Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte
d) Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Question 19 (5 points)
The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:
Question 19 options:
a) Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors
b) Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells
c) Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs
d) Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations
Question 20 (5 points)
Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
Question 20 options:
a) Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)
b) Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)
c) Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)
d) Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)
Question 21 (5 points)
What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 21 options:
a) Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
b) Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
c) Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
d) Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 22 (5 points)
When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
Question 22 options:
a) Complement-mediated cell lysis
b) Phagocytosis by macrophages
c) Phagocytosis in the spleen
d) Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
Question 23 (5 points)
? Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
Question 23 options:
a) Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
b) Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
c) Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
d) Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
Question 24 (5 points)
Vaccines against viruses are created from:
Question 24 options:
a) Killed organisms or extracts of antigens
b) Live organisms weakened to produce antigens
c) Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified
d) Recombinant pathogenic protein
Question 25 (5 points)
Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
Question 25 options:
a) Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b) Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c) Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells
d) Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
Question 26 (5 points)
Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
Question 26 options:
a) Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
b) The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.
c) Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.
d) The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.
Question 27 (5 points)
What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?
Question 27 options:
b) Ultraviolet damage
Question 28 (5 points)
When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?
Question 28 options:
a) Age at the time of diagnosis
b) Participation in clinical trials
c) Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
d) Parental involvement in the treatment planning
Question 29 (5 points)
Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
Question 29 options:
d) Medulla oblongata
Question 30 (5 points)
The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?
Question 30 options:
a) Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury
b) Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm
c) Head injury that likely occurred during the injury
d) Spinal shock immediately after the injury
Question 31 (5 points)
What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
Question 31 options:
a) Craniosacral dysreflexia
b) Parasympathetic dysreflexia
c) Autonomic hyperreflexia
d) Retrograde hyperreflexia
Question 32 (5 points)
Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
Question 32 options:
a) . In larger veins
b) Near capillary sphincters
c) At branches of arteries
d) On the venous sinuses
Question 33 (5 points)
Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
Question 33 options:
a) A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus
b) Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder
c) The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus
d) A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors
Question 34 (5 points)
Graves disease develops from:
Question 34 options:
a) A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone
b) An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue
c) Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
d) Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter
Question 35 (5 points)
Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
Question 35 options:
a) High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
b) Diminished levels of TRH
c) High levels of TSH
d) Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin
Question 36 (5 points)
A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K ) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na ) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
Question 36 options:
a) Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b) . Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi
c) Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d) Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
Question 37 (5 points)
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:
Question 37 options:
a) Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues
b) The need for lispro instead of regular insulin
c) An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas
d) The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas
Question 38 (5 points)
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
Question 38 options:
a) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
b) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
c) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
d) T cells
Question 39 (5 points)
A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Question 39 options:
a) Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b) The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime
c) Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d) Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Question 40 (5 points)
Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:
Question 40 options:
a) The Somogyi effect
b) The dawn phenomenon
c) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
d) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome
Question 41 (5 points)
Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells
Question 41 options:
b) Endocervical canal
Question 42 (5 points)
Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?
Question 42 options:
a) Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina
b) Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus
c) Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus
d) Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina
Question 43 (5 points)
Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
Question 43 options:
a) Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
b) Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia
c) Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia
d) Administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia
Question 44 (5 points)
In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following?
Question 44 options:
a) Suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes
b) Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
c) Lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
d) Lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes
Question 45 (5 points)
Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Question 45 options:
a) Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men.
b) It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.
c) Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.
d) Immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.
Question 46 (5 points)
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:
Question 46 options:
a) Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative
b) Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive
c) Has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood
d) Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B blood
Question 47 (5 points)
When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?
Question 47 options:
a) Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.
b) Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.
c) The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form.
d) The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.
Question 48 (5 points)
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
Question 48 options:
a) By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction
b) By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c) By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
Question 49 (5 points)
What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung?
Question 49 options:
a) Blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed increases in regular increments.
b) Alveolar pressure is greater than venous pressure but not greater than arterial pressure.
c) The capillary bed collapses, and normal blood flow ceases.
d) Blood flows through Zone I, but it is impeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure.
Question 50 (5 points)
What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily?
Question 50 options:
a) Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption
b) Bone marrow function depression
c) Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias
Blood Vessels Study Guide PDF
PDF study guide on blood vessels. (Check out my free notes on blood vessels and blood, too!) Includes vocabulary, labeled diagrams, and if appropriate, microscope slides. Can be used for lecture exams and laboratory practicals. Based off of McKinley, O\'Laughlin, and Bidle\'s 3e text for A&P I-II.
Blood Vessels & Circulation
This is a complete summary of the blood vessels and circulation from Seeley's Principles of Anatomy & Physiology book. It covers the tunics of the blood vessels and the circulation on the trunk, head, and lower and upper extremities.
Blood Vessels lecture notes from Prof. Cummings class at Clemson. The notes go over arteries through veins, including capillaries/capillary beds.
Circulatory Systems, Blood Vessels & Haemodynamics
Concise & comprehensive summary of lecture notes covering:
- functions of circulation
- blood vessel wall anatomy
- arteries, veins, capillaries (structure & function)
- regulation of circulatory system
- Darcy\'s law & Poiseuille\'s law
- blood flow & regulation (laminar, turbulent & single-file)
- Nitric oxide (vasodilation mechanism)
- Smooth muscle (characteristics, contraction & relaxation)
BIO1011 WEEK 9 QUIZ, eXAM GRADED A
These are the automatically computed results of your exam. Grades for essay questions, and comments from your instructor, are in the \"Details\" section below.
Grade Details - All Questions
Student Answer: True False
5. Question : At the optic chiasm
Student Answer: axons from the retinae synapse on those from the other half.
axons from the temporal halves of each retina cross. axons from the nasal halves of each retina cross. both A and C
both B and C
6. Question : Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which
Student Answer: production of a large volume of urine an intense thirst
an insatiable appetite
reduced ability to regulate body temperature an uncontrolled sex drive
7. Question : In relation to the medial and lateral pathways, the pathway
controls movements of trunk and limb muscles.
Student Answer: lateral; precise; distal medial; fine; distal lateral; gross; distal medial; gross; distal medial; gross; proximal
8. Question : Cerebrospinal fluid enters the subarachnoid space through the Student Answer: falx cerebri.
interventricular foramina. dural sinus.
lateral and median apertures. aqueduct of Sylvius.
Points Received: 1 of 1
9. Question : The corpus callosum is composed of Student Answer: commissural fibers.
arcuate fibers. association fibers. longitudinal fasciculi. projection fibers.
10. Question : The adult human brain contains almost of the body\'s neural
Student Answer: 25 percent 68 percent
none of the above
11. Question : The dural sinuses are located in the Student Answer: pia mater.
tentorium cerebelli. paranasal cavity. dural folds. arachnoid.
12. Question : There are pairs of cranial nerves. Student Answer: 6
13. Question :
Figure 14-1 The Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions:
What is produced by the structure labeled \"2\"?
Student Answer: white matter
neurotransmitters cerebrospinal fluid hormones
B and D
14. Question : Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brain stem?
Student Answer: medulla oblongata diencephalon mesencephalon pons
15. Question :
Figure 15-2 The Corticospinal Pathway Use Figure 15-2 to answer the following questions: What occurs in this neural pathway at label \"3\"?
Student Answer: decussation autonomic reflexes synapse
communication between sensory and motor neurons amplification of motor signals
16. Question : A receptor potential may
Student Answer: be a hyperpolarization. be a depolarization.
decrease neurotransmitter release. increase neurotransmitter release. be any of the above
17. Question : Examples of sensory modalities include Student Answer: smell.
warmth. vibration. touch.
all of the above
18. Question : The corticospinal system is often referred to as the
Student Answer: pyramidal system. spinothalamic tracts. red nucleus. medullary centers. reticular formation.
19. Question : The cerebellum adjusts motor activity in response to all of the following,
Student Answer: input from proprioceptors. touch sensations.
equilibrium-related sensations. input from the motor cortex.
20. Question : Integrative centers concerned with the performance of complex
processes are restricted to either the left or the right hemisphere. These complex processes include
Student Answer: mathematical computation. speech.
understanding spatial relationships. writing.
all of the above
21. Question : The anterior nuclei of the thalamus
Student Answer: receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve.
are part of the limbic system. secrete pituitary hormones. both B and C
22. Question : Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with
Student Answer: visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck.
conscious control of skeletal muscles. regulation of body temperature. control of autonomic function.
control of breathing.
23. Question : Which ascending tract carries the sensations for fine touch and
Student Answer: corticospinal
posterior (dorsal) column corticobulbar spinothalamic
both C and D
24. Question : A person with a damaged visual association area may be
Student Answer: unable to understand spoken words.
unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings.
able to see letters but unable to associate them into words. declared legally blind.
unable to see rows of letters.
25. Question : During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the cerebrum?
Student Answer: metencephalon diencephalon telencephalon myelencephalon mesencephalon
26. Question : Damage to the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe would interfere with
the ability to
Student Answer: understand spoken words. understand visual images. sense the texture of velvet. play the piano.
understand written words.
27. Question : Cerebrospinal fluid
Student Answer: is formed by a passive process. is secreted by ependymal cells.
is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed. has almost the same composition as blood plasma. both B and D
Points Received: 1 of 1
28. Question : Thalamic neurons that project to the primary sensory cortex are
Student Answer: receptor first-order
second-order third-order fourth-order
29. Question : Epileptic seizures that resist drug treatment are sometimes treated by
surgically cutting through the corpus callosum.
Student Answer: True False
30. Question : Mechanoreceptors might detect which of the following sensations?
Student Answer: touch
muscle length pressure vibration
all of the above
31. Question : The provides the principal link between the nervous and
Student Answer: pons hypothalamus medulla oblongata cerebellum cerebrum
32. Question : The is located at the tip of the tail of the caudate nucleus. Student Answer: amygdaloid body
putamen globus pallidus corpus striatum claustrum
33. Question : Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a
local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb?
Student Answer: hypoglossal trigeminal glossopharyngeal trochlear
34. Question : The medial nuclei of the thalamus
Student Answer: process olfactory information. produce the hormone oxytocin. process visual information.
are part of the limbic system.
connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe.
35. Question : A sensory receptor characterized peripherally as a free nerve ending
and centrally uses glutamate and-or substance P as neurotransmitters, would most likely be a
Student Answer: nociceptor. thermoreceptor. free receptor. mechanoreceptor. chemoreceptor.
36. Question : Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus? Student Answer: secretes oxytocin
regulates body temperature controls autonomic centers all of the above
37. Question : Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called areas.
Student Answer: association commissural processing sensory somesthetic
38. Question : Pain receptors are fast-adapting receptors. Student Answer: True
39. Question : Absorption at the arachnoid granulations returns CSF to the Student Answer: central canal.
venous circulation. third ventricle. fourth ventricle. arterial circulation.
40. Question : Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the
Student Answer: corpora quadrigemina. superior colliculi. cerebral peduncles. inferior colliculi. tegmenta.
Points Received: 1 of 1
41. Question : The thin partition that separates the first and second ventricles is the Student Answer: interventricular foramina.
falx cerebri. septum pellucidum. septum insula. cerebral aqueduct.
42. Question : Tracts of the lateral and medial pathways include all of the following,
Student Answer: vestibulospinal rubrospinal corticospinal tectospinal reticulospinal
43. Question : The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the Student Answer: central sulcus.
postcentral sulcus. parieto-occipital sulcus. longitudinal fissure. transverse fissure.
44. Question : Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system?
Student Answer: functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather
functions in emotions, learning, and memory
located between the border of the cerebrum and diencephalon contains cerebral and diencephalic components
links conscious functions of the cerebral cortex with unconscious functions of the brain stem
45. Question : The descending spinal tract that crosses to the opposite side of the
body within the medulla oblongata is the tract.
Student Answer: lateral corticospinal vestibulospinal reticulospinal rubrospinal
46. Question : Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called Student Answer: baroreceptors.
nociceptors. proprioceptors. thermoreceptors. chemoreceptors.
47. Question : The right hemisphere is usually the dominant hemisphere. Student Answer: True
48. Question : Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you
will find the
Student Answer: anterior commissures. motor association areas. visual cortex.
auditory cortex. basal nuclei.
49. Question : The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue indicates that it came from the
Student Answer: cerebral cortex. cerebellar cortex. pons.
medulla. arbor vitae.
50. Question : A brain injury to a patient results in facial paralysis. Which descending
tract is most likely affected?
Student Answer: corticobulbar tract rubrospinal tract corticospinal tract tectospinal tract reticulospinal tract
51. Question : The cerebellum relies on information from
Student Answer: motor commands from upper motor neurons.
the inner ear as movements are under way. the eyes.
proprioceptive sensations. all of the above
52. Question : The regions of the mesencephalon that issue subconscious motor
commands that affect upper limb position and background muscle tone are the
Student Answer: cerebral peduncles. red nuclei.
inferior colliculi. tecta.
53. Question : The choroid plexus produces CSF at a rate of about Student Answer: 500 mL-day .
54. Question :
Figure 15-1 Spinothalamic Tracts
Use Figure 15-1 to answer the following questions:
Which of the following is true regarding the structure labeled \"6\"?
1. The synapse occurs between motor neurons.
2. The sensations may be filtered out.
3. The third-order neuron projects to the primary sensory cortex.
4. The third-order neuron\'s axon is identified.
Student Answer: 3 only 1 and 4
3 and 4
1 and 3
55. Question : The upper motor neurons of the medial pathway are located within any of the following, except the
Student Answer: superior colliculi. inferior colliculi. reticular formation. vestibular nuclei. mamillary bodies.
56. Question : Axons that decussate between the pyramids of the medulla oblongata
belong to the tracts.
Student Answer: anterior corticospinal rubrospinal vestibulospinal lateral corticospinal reticulospinal
57. Question : What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface of the brain?
Student Answer: pia mater arachnoid cranial plexus choroid plexus dura mater
58. Question : The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in
Student Answer: diencephalon. thalamus.
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Summarised version with only key points of Chapter 8.2 in A level Biology A OCR student textbook.
Based on the latest syllabus for exams in 2019
Demonstrate knowledge, understanding and applications of: The structure and functions of arteries, veins and capillaries
Health Science I - Human Anatomy and Physiology I Notes #2
Covers blood, heart, blood vessels and hemodynamics, lymph and immunity and respiratory system. Includes charts, figures, and detailed explanation of every concept. Bundle version available at https://www.stuvia.com/bundle/24692/health-science-i-human-anatomy-and-physiology-bundle at $20.
Summary - Homeostasis and organ systems
Summary of course 2 - Homeostasis and organ systems - BBS1002
This summary contains a lot of details and clear pictures. THe summary follows the cases, which are worked out per case (Case 1-10). It mainly covers the heart, lungs, kidneys and GI-tract.
The summary discusses several subjects, including: Blood composition, the heart, heart contraction, cardiac cycle, pressure-volume-curve, the ANS, blood vessels, blood pressure, lungs, inspiration/expiration, spirometry, Fick\'s law, O2/CO2 transport, kidneys, glomerular filtration, reabsorption, secretion, RAAS, dehydration, clearance, acid-base balance, GI-tract, digestion, absorption, the ENS, cephalic, gastric and intestinal phase
The Cardiovascular System
Introduction to the cardiovascular system. The heart: orientation, right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle. Nerve supply: parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation. Blood vessels: inferior and superior vena cava, aorta, pulmonary artery and vein, varicose veins. Cardiovascular diseases and the lymphatic system.