NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health - Pediatrics- South University
NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health - Pediatrics- South University
The incidence of congenital heart defects is estimated to be ________ of all live births.
Breastmilk can be safely stored in a freezer below 0 degrees Fahrenheit for how long?
Which foreign body needs immediate removal from a five-year-old boy’s nose?
The most useful diagnostic test in delayed puberty is _____________________.
complete thyroid panel
X-Ray of the left wrist and hand
X-Ray of the right wrist and hand
X-Ray of the spinal column
An average vision of a two-year-old child is approximately:
A five-year-old female presents for a follow-up emergency room visit with a diagnosis of bronchitis. You would expect which treatment to have been prescribed?
Increase rest and fluid
An adolescent with a chronic asthma cough notes that symptoms are usually worse _____________.
only with exertion
only during the daytime
only at night
at night and with exertion
An average adolescent female usually experiences her biggest growth spurt at approximately what age?
Ten and half years
Eleven and half years
Twelve and half years
Thirteen and half years
If an adolescent has a bone age of 10 but is actually 13 years of age, this patient has ______.
an increased risk of fracture in the next three years
an increased risk of osteoporosis as an adult
a higher potential for bone growth
a lower potential for bone growth
Gardasil results in greater antibody responses for females who are administered the three-dose series between what ages?
Six to twenty-six years of age
Prior to eleven years of age
Nine to fifteen years of age
Nine to twenty-six years of age
An eight-year old has chronic intermittent nasal congestion. All but which of the following would support allergic rhinitis?
Red swollen turbinates
Darkened areas below eyes
Increased basophils on complete blood count (CB
Itchy, watery eyes
A fifteen-month old failed treatment with amoxicillin for an otitis media. At his two-week recheck, his tympanic membrane remained red with distorted landmarks and he persisted with nasal discharge that is thick and yellowish. The best action for the nursing practitioner should be to prescribe:
A ten-day-course of augmentin
A three-week-course of a cephalexin
A higher dose amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone and an antihistamine
An infant should be able to say his or her first word by:
four to five months
eight to nine months
twelve to fifteen months
twenty four to twenty six months
The latter part of adolescence includes the ability to develop ________ and _______ means to be a part of society.
strong attachments; sexuality
critical thinking; basic life skills
moral; intellectual means
A fourteen-year-old adolescent presents with fatigue, endocarditis, pulmonary hypertension, arrhythmias, and congestive heart failure. You suspect he may have ____________.
pulmonary valve stenosis
aortic valve stenosis
a ventricular septal defect (VSD)
A four-year-old male patient presents with his mother with a school referral regarding red eyes. Which questions would not assist in establishing a list of differential diagnoses?
Unilateral vs. bilateral presentation
Type of drainage
History of a bacterial infection one month ago
______________ adolescents should be screened for sexually transmitted diseases.
An infant should no longer have a head lag when pulled from the supine to sitting position at what age?
____________ should be given as a supplement in the management of delayed puberty.
Vitamins B1 and B12
Vitamins D and E
Vitamin A and Calcium
Calcium and Vitamin D
Parents or guardians of adolescents should ___________________.
not be included in the adolescent's health care
receive health guidance information at least twice during adolescence
encourage reasonable use of alcohol and tobacco by the adolescent
encourage early sexual activity by providing condoms to the adolescent
How does cultural sensitivity impact the care of infants in the primary care setting?
Health-care providers may possess cultural biases that can impact care.
Cultural sensitivities do not exist in health care.
Cultural sensitivity only impacts the parents of infants.
Cultural sensitivity increases access to timely health-care services for infants.
The most typical chest radiographic finding consistent with the diagnosis of asthma is ______________.
normal chest film
diffuse airway edema
right upper-lobe infiltrate
A 10 yo has a single painful ulcerated lesion on an erythematous base on the inner buccal mucosa. The most likely diagnosis and treatment would be:
herpes simplex stomatitis--oral acyclovir
apthous ulcer--triamcinalone in orabase
Hand, foot, mouth syndrome--antibiotic mouthwash
A 9 month old is noted to have a bifid uvula. This would increase his risk of developing which disorder?
All of the following may predispose a patient to thrush except:
poor oral hygiene
Patients with sinusitis should be instructed not to participate in what activity?
cross country running
What complication of sinusitis are adolescent males more prone to?
potts puffy tumor
Acceptable management options for allergic rhinitis include all of the following except:
A 7 yo has experienced recurrent nose bleeds in the past 2 months. What finding on the physical exam would suggest an underlying medical cause for the epistaxis?
grade II murmur
A 2 yo male with a history of chronic serous OM is noted to have a pearly white opacity in the upper outer quadrant of his TM. He currently has no symptoms and appears to be ok. The most likely diagnosis and appropriate managment would be:
tympanosclerosis; no treatment is necessary
persistent perforation; prescribe topical antibiotic drops
foreign body; perform an ear wash for removal
cholesteatoma; refer to otolaryngology
A 15 mo failed treatment with amoxicillin for OM. At his 2 week re-check his TM remained red with distorted landmarks and he persisted with nasal congestion, poor sleep, and fever. The next best step would be to treat with:
a 10 day course of augmentin
a 3 week course of cephalosporin
a higher dose of amoxicillin and topical abx
ceftriaxone and an antihistamine
All but which one of the following patients are at an increased risk of developing otitis media?
2 yo with cleft palate repair at 1 year of age
15 mo with down syndrome
9 mo with lactose intolerance
3 yo with IgA immune deficiency
Patients with otitis externa should be instructed to do which one of the following:
keep ear dry until symptoms improve
limit swimming for the remainder of summer
wear ear plugs at all times with swimming
use alcohol drops before swimming each day
A 10 yo has marked ear pain, not wanting anyone to touch his ear. The canal is edematous and exudate is present. TM is normal. How should this be managed?
oral steroids and topical neomycin
oral amoxicillin and topical anesthetic
oral amoxicillin and topical steroid
A 16 yo was hit in the eye 1 day ago and now has ecchymoses on the upper and lower lids with 5/10 eye pain. All but which of the following would be appropriate to obtain at this time:
The greatest risk in a patient with a hyphema is which of the following?
Corneal abrasions can be managed with topical application of which of the following:
anesthetic for pain control
steroids to prevent adhesions
antibiotics to prevent infection
atropine to prevent ciliary spasm
Trauma to the eye increases the risk of developing all but which one of the following?
Fluorescein staining of the eye is used to detect a:
Prematurity increases the risk of developing which one of the following?
A 3 month old has a mild asymmetrical corneal light reflex on physical exam. What is the next appropriate step?
observe and reevaluate at the next well check
refer immediately to ophthalmology
begin atropine drops or eye patching
protect eyes from sunlight
Which of the following may cause microcephaly?
What finding may accompany macrocephaly?
Pulsating anterior fontanel
Premature closure of suture lines
Widened suture lines
Obtaining a CT of the head would be indicated in which of these conditions?
Which one of the following conditions increases the risk of developing hydrocephalus?
A conjunctivitis appearing in a 2 day old newborn is likely due to:
chemical irritation from eye drops
group B streptocuccus
Confirming the diagnosis of chlamydia conjunctivitis in a newborn would best be done by obtaining which one of the following?
cervical swab of the mother
urine PCR from the mother
culture of the eye discharge
culture of the conjunctival scrapings
Which one of the following eye findings would be considered an ophthalmic emergency?
unilateral vesicular lesions on the upper eyelid of a 3 week old
presence of chemosis in a 5 yo with bilateral upper eyelid edema
cobblestone-like appearance along the inner aspect of the upper eyelid in a 15 yo
bilateral redness along the eyelid margins with tiny ulcerated areas in a 16 yo
The most appropriate management of a 5 yo with a firm, nontender nodule in the mid-upper eyelid for 3 weeks would be:
topical ophthalmic ointment
Daily eyelid cleansing with diluted baby shampoo and a cotton tipped applicator would be appropriate in the treatment of which one of the following conditions?
A 3 year old has an edematous, mildly erythematous right upper eyelid for one day with a fever of 103. An important eye assessment would be:
optic disk papilledema
Concurrent otitis media and conjunctivitis is likely due to which organism?
A 16 yo girl makes the following statements to you during her health visit. Which of the following pieces of information should not be kept confidential?
I have been sexually active with three of my boyfriends
I sometimes smoke marijuana
I want to get pregnant
Sometimes I feel like ending my life
In performing a physical examination on a nine month old infant, which of the following developmental fears would not be appropriate for you to consider?
Separation from parents
When performing a physical examination on a toddler, which of the following body parts would you examine last:
Heart and lungs
abdomen and genitals
Ears and throat
Hips and extremities
Role play with equipment during the course of a physical examination would be most beneficial with which of the following age groups:
Young school-age children
Older school-age children
Providing reassurance of "normalcy" during the course of an examination would be most important for:
Young school-age children
Older school-age children
Which of the following would not elevate the pulse of a child:
The PNP recognizes which of the following signs as indicators that baby is not receiving sufficient breastmilk?
Sleepiness, jaundice, decreased urine and stool
Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting
Bulging fontanel and irritability
Sleeplessness and excitability
Blood pressure should be measured at WCC beginning at age:
A wide pulse pressure that results from a high systolic blood pressure is usually not due to which of the following:
A patent ductus arteriosus
Head and chest circumferences should be equal at:
The anterior fontanel usually closes by:
Diffuse edema of the soft tissue of the scalp which usually crosses suture lines in the newborn is:
An infant should no longer have head lag when pulled from the supine to sitting position at what age?
"Boggy" nasal mucous membranes with serous drainage upon examination usually suggests:
A white instead of red reflex upon eye examination of a 1 yo child would suggest:
An accommodative error
A cobblestone appearance of the palpebral conjunctiva usually indicates:
An eye that deviates in when covered but returns to midline when uncovered is an:
Pain produced by manipulation of the auricle or pressure on the tragus suggests:
Acute otitis media
Otitis media with effusion
A hypernasal voice and snoring in a child is suggestive of:
Polyps of the larynx
Physiological splitting of the second heart sound during inspiration in a child:
should be evaluated with an EKG
Should be referred to a cardiologist
Which of the following is not characteristic of innocent heart murmurs in children?
Systolic in timing
Varies in loudness with positioning
Usually transmitted to the neck
Usually loudest at lower left sternal border or at second or third intercostal space
A grade II musical or vibratory murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border that changes with positioning is suggestive of a:
Pulmonary ejection murmur
Ventricular septal defect
Vibratory or Still's murmur
Wheezing in a child may not be found in which of the following conditions:
Pleural friction rub
Gynecomastia in a male may not be a finding in which of the following:
Normal pubertal development
Which of the following would usually not be considered a sign of a pituitary tumor in an adolescent female?
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Loss of peripheral vision
Increase in headaches
Which of the following is not a specific examination test for a dislocated hip?
In addition to the knee, which of the following should be examined in a child complaining of knee pain?
Which of the following infant reflexes should not disappear by 6 months of age?
Spasticity in an infant may be an early sign of:
A shift to the left is present when which of the following are elevated?
Bands or stabs
Which of the following is usually elevated with viral infections?
Decreased platelets may not be found in which of the following:
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Medication usage (e.g. ampicillin, cephalothin)
Which of the following does not suggest a urinary tract infection?
NURSING MN551 quiz 6 Unit 6: Disorders of the Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary Systems in Primary Care . Graded A
1. A 35yearold female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following should be included in the history and physical exam? (Points : 2) Digital rectal exam, Pelvic exam, Sexual history, All of the above
A 72 yo patient with a long standing history of chronic nausea and vomiting but a near-insatiable appetite has had her symptoms attributed to an enzyme deficiency.
Hiatal hernia – protrusion of the stomach or regurgitation of the stomach contents into the esphagus
2. A patient is seen in the office and is complaining of constipation. The patient lists all of the following medications. Which drug could be responsible for the constipation? (Points : 2) Multivitamin, Magnesium hydroxide, PeptoBismol, Ibuprofen
3. A patient with complaints of diarrhea is seen. Which of the following should be included on the differential diagnosis list for a patient with diarrhea? (Points : 2) Gastroenteritis, Inflammatory bowel disease, Lactase deficiency, All of the above
4. Mr. J. K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months for which he takes Tums with temporary relief. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain? (Points : 2) The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves. Coffee and fried foods do not bother him. He awakens at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth. All of the above
5. A 29yearold Englishman is seen in the office with complaints of pain in his chest and belly for 2 weeks. He gets temporary relief from Alka Seltzer. The burning pain wakes him at night and radiates up into his chest. Which factor favors a diagnosis of gastric ulcer? (Points : 2) His gender His age His use of Alka Seltzer
6. Which of the following is most effective in diagnosing appendicitis? (Points : 2) History and physical Sedimentation rate Kidneys, ureter, bladder (KUB) radiograph Complete blood cell (CBC) count with differential
7. Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)? (Points : 2) Malabsorption Constipation Rectal bleeding Esophageal ulceration
8. A 45yearold patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain. Her physical exam is remarkable for left lower quadrant (LLQ) tenderness. Which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis at this time? (Points : 2) Endometriosis Colon cancer Diverticulitis All of the above
9. A 46yearold female is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain. Which of the following tests is essential for this patient? (Points : 2) Complete blood cell (CBC) count with differential, Urine hCG, Barium enema, Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen
10. A 25yearold accountant is seen in the clinic complaining ofcrampy abdominal pain after meals. She is often constipated and takes laxatives. Following this, she has diarrhea for a couple of days. She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement. She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension. She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool. This problem has gone on for about 6 months. What should the next step be? (Points : 2) Obtain a complete history. Order a barium enema. Schedule a Bernstein’s test. Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.
11. A 28yearold patient is seen in the clinic with colicky abdominal pain, particularly with meals. She has frequent constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which of the data make a diagnosis of diverticulitis unlikely? (Points : 2) Her age, Frequent constipation Flatulence Colicky abdominal pain
12. A 28yearold patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following questions would help the clinician establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome? (Points : 2) Feels relief after a bowel movement Sometimes is constipated Does not defecate in the middle of the night All of the above
13. A patient is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett’s epithelium. Which of the following information should the clinician include in the explanation of the pathology report? (Points : 2) This is a premalignant tissue. This tissue is resistant to gastric acid. This tissue supports healing of the esophagus. All of the above
14. Which of the following dietary information should be given to a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? (Points : 2) Eliminate coffee. Drink peppermint tea to relieve stomach distress. Recline and rest after meals. Limit the amount of antacids.
Proton pump inhibitors, avoiding large meals, and remaining upright after meals
Which of the following meals or snacks is most likely to exacerbate the patient’s signs and symtoms of deficiency in brush border enzymes
15. The patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) should be instructed to eliminate which of these activities? (Points : 2) Swimming Weight lifting Golfing Walking
16. A patient is diagnosed with Giardia after a backpacking trip in the mountains. Which of the following would be the appropriate treatment? (Points : 2) Vancomycin Penicillin Metronidazole Bactrim
3/5 10/6/2015 MN555: Primary Care Across the Adult Age Continuum II
17. A 22yearold is seen complaining of vague belly pain. This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis? (Points : 2) Very early, 3 to 4 hours after perforation, Late in inflammation, Appendicitis never presents with vague pain.
18. The clinician suspects the patient has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following items on the history would lead the clinician to this conclusion? (Points : 2) Use of NSAIDs Cigarette smoker Alcohol (ETOH) consumption All of the above
19. A patient is seen and a urine sample is taken. The urine dipstick reveals a high level of bilirubin, and the urine is dark colored. Which of the following could be a cause of this problem? (Points : 2) Increased breakdown of red blood cells Inadequate hepatocyte function Biliary obstruction All of the above
20. A 21yearold student presents with a chief complaint of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago. She started taking vitamins and overthecounter (OTC) cold preparations but feels worse. The smell of food makes her nauseated. Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about a month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also. An examination reveals cervical adenopathy and enlarged liver and spleen. Which of the following laboratory tests would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point? (Points : 2) Stool culture Liver enzymes AntiHDV (antibody to hepatitis D virus) Thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH)
21. On further questioning, the 21yearold patient with the chief complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose explains that she is sexually active only with her boyfriend, does not use injectable drugs, and works as an aide in a daycare center. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in confirming your diagnosis? (Points : 2) HAV IgM HAV IgG AntiHAcAg AntiHAsAg
22. A patient is seen in the clinic with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain that is radiating to the middle of the back. The clinician suspects acute cholelithiasis. The clinician should expect which of the following laboratory findings? (Points : 2) Decreased alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) Elevated alkaline phosphatase Elevated indirect bilirubin Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
23. The patient has acute pancreatitis with 7 of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson’s Criteria. In order to plan care, the clinician understands that this criteria score has which of the following meanings? (Points : 2) A high mortality rate An increased chance of recurrence A 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic All of the above
24. A patient is seen in the office with complaints of six to seven liquid bowel movements per day. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the clinician to a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease? (Points : 2) Intermittent constipation with periods of diarrhea Awakens at night with diarrhea History of international travel All of the above
25. Which of the following is part of the treatment plan for the patient with irritable bowel syndrome? (Points : 2) Highfiber diet Tylenol with codeine Daily laxatives All of the above data
Question 1. Chronic anxiety and stress contribute to ulcers. Which of the following effects of the sympathetic nervous system is most responsible for this effect?
Inhibition of the actions of Brunner glands
Overstimulation of the oxyntic glands
Suppression of cholecystokinin
Inflammation of the parotid glands
Question 2. Which of the following patients is most clearly displaying the signs and symptoms of IBD?
A 32-year-old mother who complains of intermittent abdominal pain that persists even after defecation.
A 51-year-old male who states that his stomach pain is in his lower abdomen, “comes and goes,” and “feels more like a cramp than a dull ache.”
A 44-year-old man who is under great financial stress and who states that his lower abdominal pain is much worse at night than during the day.
A 24-year-old man who has a stressful job but whose diarrhea and cramping do not worsen during periods of high stress.
Question 3. A 24-year-old woman undergoing a premarital screening test is found to have elevated levels of AST, ALT, and IgG, but no antibody-specific markers for viral hepatitis. A liver biopsy reveals inflammation and cellular damage. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective for her?
Peginterferon and ribavirin
Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs
Question 4. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the process of fat digestion and absorption?
Ingested triglycerides are broken down into absorbable form by gastric lipase.
Simple forms of fats are absorbed in the upper jejunum.
Long-chain fatty acids are absorbed more readily than medium-chain triglycerides.
Stool is not excreted until all fat is absorbed.
Question 5. A 40-year-old female has been categorized as being obese, with a BMI of 33.2. Which of the following health problems is the patient at a significantly increased risk for compared with individuals with a BMI below 25?
Question 6. David has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. Which of the following lab tests would you expect to be decreased with Crohn’s Disease?
Liver enzyme levels
Vitamins A, B complex and C levels
Question 7. A 51-year-old male professional is in the habit of consuming six to eight rum and cokes each evening after work. He assures the nurse practitioner, who is performing his regular physical exam, that his drinking is under control and does not have negative implications for his work or family life. How could the nurse best respond to the patient’s statement?
“You are more than likely inflicting damage on your liver, but this damage would cease as soon as you quit drinking.
“That may be the case, but you are still creating a high risk of hepatitis A or B or liver cancer.”
“In spite of that, the amount of alcohol you are drinking is likely to result first in cirrhosis and, if you continue, in hepatitis or fatty liver changes.”
“When your body has to regularly break down that much alcohol, your blood and the functional cells in your liver accumulate a lot of potentially damaging toxic byproducts.”
Question 8. A nurse practitioner is providing care for a male patient with a long-standing hiatal hernia. Which of the following statements most accurately captures an aspect of the pathophysiology of hiatal hernias?
Paraesophageal hiatal hernias are common and are normally not treated if the patient is asymptomatic.
The root causes of hiatal hernias are normally treatable with medication.
If esophageal acid clearance is impaired, esophagitis can result.
An incompetent pyloric sphincter and high fat diet are commonly implicated in the development of hiatal hernias.
Question 9. As a result of oral ingestion of the microorganisms, an individual has contracted H. pylori. Which of the following health problems is the individual now at increased risk for?
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
Question 10. A 43-year-old male who is 5 feet 10 inches tall and weighs 216 pounds has been informed by his nurse practitioner that his body mass index (BMI) is 31. Which of the following clinical conclusions based on these data would his nurse be most justified in rejecting?
Further investigation of his nutritional status is needed to supplement the BMI value.
The patient faces an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia.
He is classified as being obese, likely as the result of the interplay of genetic and lifestyle factors.
The patient is borderline obese but is not yet at the point of significantly increased risks to health.
Which of the following aspects of the etiology of celiac disease would underlie the explalnation that the nurse practitioner provides?
A nurse pract is providing care for a male patient with a long standing hiatal hernia. Which of the following statements most accurately captures an aspect of the pathophysiology of hiatal hernia?
Which of the following meascures would likely be rejected as part of a first-line weight loss plan for a pt with a BMI of 30.2 type 2 DM, and HTN?
A 20-year-old male who is addicted to crystal methamphetamine has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of protein-calorie malnutrition after many months of inadequate food intake. Which of the following treatment plans would the care team most likely favor?
Intravenous infusion of albumin coupled with vitamin supplementation
Total parenteral nutrition
Incremental feeding combined with vitamin and mineral supplementation
Rapid administration of normal saline and carbohydrates
As part of the intake protocol at an eating disorders clinic, an interview precedes a physical examination. Which of the following questions would a clinician be justified in excluding from an intake interview for a 16-year-old female referred by her pediatrician for the treatment of anorexia nervosa?
“Do you remember when your last menstrual period was?
“Have you noticed any new hair growth on your body in the last several months?”
“Have you had any episodes of shortness of breath in the recent past?”
“Can you tell me about some of the habits that you have related to food in your daily routine?”
A female neonate has been in respire distress since delivery and is unresponsive to oxygen therapy. Endoscopy has confirmed a diagnosis of esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula ( EA/TEF). Which of the following explanations should the care team provide to the infant’s parents?
\"We will have to perform surgery to correct the hole in her throat to make sure that she is able to swallow and breathe normally.
While on tour, a 32-year-old male musician has presented to the emergency department of a hospital after a concert complaining of severe and sudden abdominal pain He admits to a history of copious alcohol use in recent years, and his vital signs include temperature 46.8 °C (101.8 °F), blood pressure 89/48 mm Hg, and heart rate 116 beats/minute. Blood work indicates that his serum levels of C-reactive protein, amylase, and lipase are all elevated. Which of the following diagnoses would the care team suspect first?
Histology - Urinary System
Comprehensive notes of basic histology for medical students. Notes taken from Junqueira\'s basic histology. Perfect for both learning and reviewing basic histology.
These notes give you a full depth description of the Urinary system. It breaks it down very well and if needed I can link you to a quizlet that gives you practice taking test questions on the urinary system based off of these notes.
Medicine - Progress Test
This document allows for an in depth revision for the Progress Test during the Bachelor Year. It is based both on the material covered in the Bachelor Year of Medicine and on the questions in the Progress Test. It is includes a summary for all the sections of the Progress Test: Respiratory System, Circulatory System, Immune System, Digestive System, Kidneys and Urinary Tract, Reproductive System, Endocrine System, Nervous System, Mental Healthcare, Musculoskeletal System, Skin and Connective Tissue, Infectious Diseases and Bacteriology, Personal and Social Aspects, Statistics and Epidemiology and Pharmacology. There is a quick summary of the anatomy and then an overview of major diseases.
The Urogenital System
Introduction to the urogenital System. The urinary system: kidneys - internal structure and blood supply, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra - male and female. Male reproductive (genital) system: testes, vas deferens, ejaculatory ducts, spermatic cord, penis, seminal vesicles, prostate gland and the bulbourethral gland. Female reproductive (genital) system: ovaries, uterine tubes (Fallopian tubes), uterus, vagina, cervix, mons pubis, labia Minora and Majora, clitoris and hymen
HD BMED2406 – Semester 2 Complete Notes Integrated Prac Notes
A comprehensive succinct summary of all the lecture content with prac notes integrated.
BONUS learning summary tables describing all endocrine axes as well as helpful diagrams to explain both the histology and anatomy of the reproductive, urinary and endocrine system!
These are the set of notes for you to get the best exam mark possible as well as blitz your in-semester quizzes!
Care of Patients with Urinary Problems
These notes go over different urinary problems such as urolithiasis, polycystic kidney disease, and pyelonephritis. They provide a brief patho description, labs to monitor, interventions, and the different medications used to treat these problems.