Emergency Preparedness Response Course (EPRC) –
Clinician Pre-test STUDY GUIDE 2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS <RECENT VERSION>
Emergency Preparedness & Response for Clinicians: Core Knowledge Practice Questions
Domain 1: Incident Command System (ICS) & Emergency Operations
1. Q: What is the primary purpose of the Incident Command System (ICS)?
A: To provide a standardized, flexible framework for the management of all-hazards
incidents across multiple agencies and jurisdictions.
2. Q: Within ICS, who is responsible for establishing incident objectives and strategy?
A: The Incident Commander.
3. Q: What ICS section is responsible for facilities, transportation, and supplies?
A: The Logistics Section.
4. Q: What is the name of the predesigned, deployable unit that can expand ICU capacity
during a surge?
A: A Mobile Field Hospital or a Federal Medical Station (FMS). (Specific name may vary
by agency).
5. Q: The Emergency Operations Plan (EOP) is activated during what type of event?
A: Any emergency that exceeds the day-to-day capacity of the facility.
Domain 2: Triage & Clinical Management in Mass Casualty Incidents (MCI)
6. Q: In a mass casualty incident (MCI), the goal of triage shifts from treating the most
severely injured first to doing what?
A: Doing the greatest good for the greatest number of patients.
7. Q: What is the most commonly used triage system in the U.S. for MCIs?
A: START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) for adults, and JumpSTART for pediatric
patients.
8. Q: What START triage category is assigned to a patient who is breathing, has a capillary
refill >2 seconds, and cannot follow simple commands?
A: Immediate (Red Tag).
, 9. Q: A patient with a delayed (Yellow tag) injury might have what kind of wound?
A: A stable long-bone fracture or a major laceration without severe bleeding.
10. Q: What does the "Black" tag signify in MCI triage?
A: Deceased or expectant (injuries are so severe that survival is unlikely given available
resources).
11. Q: What is the first clinical assessment in the START triage algorithm?
A: Ability to walk (ambulation).
12. Q: During a biological event, what principle guides patient placement to prevent
disease spread?
A: Cohort isolation (grouping patients with the same infection together).
13. Q: What is the primary initial treatment priority for a radiation-exposed patient who is
also contaminated?
A: Manage life-threatening injuries (e.g., airway, bleeding) BEFORE decontamination.
Domain 3: Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) & Safety
14. Q: What are the four levels of EPA protection (A, B, C, D) based on?
A: The level of respiratory and skin protection required.
15. Q: For an unknown chemical agent, what is the minimum level of PPE recommended
for first receivers in the hospital?
A: Level C (with an APR if agent is known) OR Level B if agent is unknown and there is a
splash hazard. (Guidance varies; know your hospital's protocol).
16. Q: Which type of PPE is required for a patient with suspected airborne pathogens like
measles or tuberculosis?
A: A fit-tested N95 respirator or higher (PAPR). Standard surgical masks are insufficient.
17. Q: What is the correct order for donning PPE?
A: 1. Gown, 2. Mask/Respirator, 3. Goggles/Face Shield, 4. Gloves.
18. Q: What is the correct order for doffing (removing) PPE?
A: 1. Gloves, 2. Goggles/Face Shield, 3. Gown, 4. Mask/Respirator. (Perform hand
hygiene after each step).
19. Q: What is the most critical step in preventing the spread of infection after removing
PPE?
A: Performing hand hygiene with soap and water or alcohol-based hand rub.
, Domain 4: Decontamination
20. Q: What is the primary goal of patient decontamination?
A: To remove hazardous contaminants from the patient to prevent further injury and
reduce the spread of contamination.
21. Q: What is the first step in mass patient decontamination?
A: Removal of all clothing (dry decontamination). This removes up to 80-90% of
contamination.
22. Q: What solution is recommended for most chemical decontamination?
A: Copious amounts of water with mild soap.
23. Q: In a mass casualty decontamination corridor, how should water temperature be
set?
A: Warm (to prevent hypothermia), especially for vulnerable populations.
24. Q: Should life-saving medical intervention be delayed for decontamination?
A: No. Perform only immediately life-saving interventions (airway, hemorrhage control)
before or during decontamination.
Domain 5: Biological Events & Pandemic Response
25. Q: What federal agency is the lead for the public health and medical response to a
biological incident in the U.S.?
A: The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), through the Assistant Secretary
for Preparedness and Response (ASPR).
26. Q: What is the difference between isolation and quarantine?
A: Isolation separates sick, contagious people from others. Quarantine separates and
restricts the movement of people who were exposed but are not yet sick.
27. Q: What is the Strategic National Stockpile (SNS)?
A: A national repository of critical medical assets (pharmaceuticals, vaccines, supplies)
that can be deployed to states during a public health emergency.
28. Q: What is the primary route of transmission for anthrax?
A: Anthrax is not transmitted person-to-person. It is acquired from contact with bacterial
spores.
29. Q: What is the hallmark symptom of inhalational anthrax?
A: A widened mediastinum on chest X-ray.
Clinician Pre-test STUDY GUIDE 2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS <RECENT VERSION>
Emergency Preparedness & Response for Clinicians: Core Knowledge Practice Questions
Domain 1: Incident Command System (ICS) & Emergency Operations
1. Q: What is the primary purpose of the Incident Command System (ICS)?
A: To provide a standardized, flexible framework for the management of all-hazards
incidents across multiple agencies and jurisdictions.
2. Q: Within ICS, who is responsible for establishing incident objectives and strategy?
A: The Incident Commander.
3. Q: What ICS section is responsible for facilities, transportation, and supplies?
A: The Logistics Section.
4. Q: What is the name of the predesigned, deployable unit that can expand ICU capacity
during a surge?
A: A Mobile Field Hospital or a Federal Medical Station (FMS). (Specific name may vary
by agency).
5. Q: The Emergency Operations Plan (EOP) is activated during what type of event?
A: Any emergency that exceeds the day-to-day capacity of the facility.
Domain 2: Triage & Clinical Management in Mass Casualty Incidents (MCI)
6. Q: In a mass casualty incident (MCI), the goal of triage shifts from treating the most
severely injured first to doing what?
A: Doing the greatest good for the greatest number of patients.
7. Q: What is the most commonly used triage system in the U.S. for MCIs?
A: START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) for adults, and JumpSTART for pediatric
patients.
8. Q: What START triage category is assigned to a patient who is breathing, has a capillary
refill >2 seconds, and cannot follow simple commands?
A: Immediate (Red Tag).
, 9. Q: A patient with a delayed (Yellow tag) injury might have what kind of wound?
A: A stable long-bone fracture or a major laceration without severe bleeding.
10. Q: What does the "Black" tag signify in MCI triage?
A: Deceased or expectant (injuries are so severe that survival is unlikely given available
resources).
11. Q: What is the first clinical assessment in the START triage algorithm?
A: Ability to walk (ambulation).
12. Q: During a biological event, what principle guides patient placement to prevent
disease spread?
A: Cohort isolation (grouping patients with the same infection together).
13. Q: What is the primary initial treatment priority for a radiation-exposed patient who is
also contaminated?
A: Manage life-threatening injuries (e.g., airway, bleeding) BEFORE decontamination.
Domain 3: Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) & Safety
14. Q: What are the four levels of EPA protection (A, B, C, D) based on?
A: The level of respiratory and skin protection required.
15. Q: For an unknown chemical agent, what is the minimum level of PPE recommended
for first receivers in the hospital?
A: Level C (with an APR if agent is known) OR Level B if agent is unknown and there is a
splash hazard. (Guidance varies; know your hospital's protocol).
16. Q: Which type of PPE is required for a patient with suspected airborne pathogens like
measles or tuberculosis?
A: A fit-tested N95 respirator or higher (PAPR). Standard surgical masks are insufficient.
17. Q: What is the correct order for donning PPE?
A: 1. Gown, 2. Mask/Respirator, 3. Goggles/Face Shield, 4. Gloves.
18. Q: What is the correct order for doffing (removing) PPE?
A: 1. Gloves, 2. Goggles/Face Shield, 3. Gown, 4. Mask/Respirator. (Perform hand
hygiene after each step).
19. Q: What is the most critical step in preventing the spread of infection after removing
PPE?
A: Performing hand hygiene with soap and water or alcohol-based hand rub.
, Domain 4: Decontamination
20. Q: What is the primary goal of patient decontamination?
A: To remove hazardous contaminants from the patient to prevent further injury and
reduce the spread of contamination.
21. Q: What is the first step in mass patient decontamination?
A: Removal of all clothing (dry decontamination). This removes up to 80-90% of
contamination.
22. Q: What solution is recommended for most chemical decontamination?
A: Copious amounts of water with mild soap.
23. Q: In a mass casualty decontamination corridor, how should water temperature be
set?
A: Warm (to prevent hypothermia), especially for vulnerable populations.
24. Q: Should life-saving medical intervention be delayed for decontamination?
A: No. Perform only immediately life-saving interventions (airway, hemorrhage control)
before or during decontamination.
Domain 5: Biological Events & Pandemic Response
25. Q: What federal agency is the lead for the public health and medical response to a
biological incident in the U.S.?
A: The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), through the Assistant Secretary
for Preparedness and Response (ASPR).
26. Q: What is the difference between isolation and quarantine?
A: Isolation separates sick, contagious people from others. Quarantine separates and
restricts the movement of people who were exposed but are not yet sick.
27. Q: What is the Strategic National Stockpile (SNS)?
A: A national repository of critical medical assets (pharmaceuticals, vaccines, supplies)
that can be deployed to states during a public health emergency.
28. Q: What is the primary route of transmission for anthrax?
A: Anthrax is not transmitted person-to-person. It is acquired from contact with bacterial
spores.
29. Q: What is the hallmark symptom of inhalational anthrax?
A: A widened mediastinum on chest X-ray.
