NR- 507 Advanced Pathophysiology
NR- 507 Final Exam
NR- 507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final Exam
Course Title and Number: NR-507 Final Exam
Exam Title: Midterm, Finals, Certification and Assessment
Exam Date: Exam 2025- 2026
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NR507 Week 8 Final Exam Due 27 th April 2025 NR- 507 Adv
Pathophysiology Complete Question 1- 100 (Actual Exam
Proctored via Exemplify ) With Correct Answers | 100% Pass
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2025- 2026
NR- 507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final Exam
NR- 507 Final Exam
NR- 507 Advanced Pathophysiology
Chamberlain University
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NR-507 Adv Pathophysiology - Week 8 Final
Exam Complete Question 1-100
Question 31
Among the following individuals, who is most at risk for a
hemorrhagic stroke? (4 points)
A. A 45-year-old female with well-controlled hypertension
B. A 55-year-old male with uncontrolled diabetes and normal
blood pressure
C. A 70-year-old female with a sedentary lifestyle and no known
cardiovascular risk factors
D. A 60-year-old male with a history of smoking and
uncontrolled hypertension
Correct Answer = D
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Rationale >>: A 60-year-old male with a history of smoking
and uncontrolled hypertension is most at risk for a hemorrhagic
stroke.
Question 32
A patient presents with facial redness, visible blood vessels,
and small, red, pus-filled bumps resembling acne on the central
face. The patient reports flushing episodes triggered by various
factors such as spicy foods and alcohol. What is the most likely
diagnosis? (4 points)
A. Acne vulgaris
B. Contact dermatitis
C. Rosacea
D. Eczema
Correct Answer = C
Rationale >>: Rosacea is characterized by facial redness,
visible blood vessels, and pustules, often triggered by factors
like spicy foods and alcohol.
Question 33
Which of the following prognostic features is commonly
associated with a worse outcome in melanoma? (3 points)
A. Radial growth phase
B. Clark's level II
C. Nodular histologic subtype
D. Presence of ulceration
Correct Answer = D
Rationale >>: The presence of ulceration indicates more
aggressive tumor behavior and a higher likelihood of
metastasis.
Question 34
What underlying immune defects contribute to the
development of myasthenia gravis (MG)? (3 points)
A. Increased production of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular
junction
B. Overproduction of regulatory T cells
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C. Autoimmune attack on the acetylcholine receptors
D. Impaired synthesis of acetylcholine receptor antibodies
Correct Answer = C
Rationale >>: Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune disorder
where the body's immune system attacks acetylcholine
receptors.
Question 35
A patient with GERD has been prescribed a proton-pump
inhibitor (PPI). The patient returns to the office for follow-up and
reports relief from heartburn but has some occasional
breakthrough symptoms. Based on the NP's evaluation of the
patient's report, what is the next best action by the NP? (4
points)
A. Add an H2 receptor antagonist
B. Advise the patient to discontinue the PPI
C. Increase the dose of the PPI
D. Inquire about the timing and adherence to the medication
Correct Answer = D
Rationale >>: It's important to first assess whether the
patient is adhering to the prescribed regimen and taking the
medication at the correct time.
Question 36
According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) what
diagnostic criteria are used for diagnosing type 2 diabetes? (4
points)
A. HbA1c (as measured in a DCCT-referenced assay) ≥6.5%
B. A random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL In a patient with
classic symptoms of hyperglycemia
C. All the choices are correct
D. FPG ≥126 mg/dL. (7.0 mmol/L)
Correct Answer = D
Rationale >>: According to the ADA, a fasting plasma glucose
(FPG) level of 126 mg/dL or higher is a diagnostic criterion for
type 2 diabetes.
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Question 37
What is the primary role of glucagon in the regulation of
glucose? (3 points)
A. It promotes the release of glucose in the bloodstream
B. It Inhibits glycogen breakdown in the liver
C. It stimulates insulin release from the pancreas
D. It facilitates glucose uptake by cells
Correct Answer = A
Rationale >>: Glucagon increases blood glucose levels by
stimulating the liver to release stored glucose.
Question 38
Which statement below best describes the main difference
between contact dermatitis and atopic dermatitis? (4 points)
A. Contact dermatitis Is primarily caused by allergens, while
atopic dermatitis is an inflammatory skin condition
B. Contact dermatitis is chronic and often genetic, while atopic
dermatitis is an acute skin reaction triggered by specific
substances
C. Atopic dermatitis is characterized by direct skin contact with
Irritants, while contact dermatitis is an Inherited condition with
a genetic predisposition
D. Atopic dermatitis is a localized reaction to Irritants, whereas
contact dermatitis involves a systemic Immune response
Correct Answer = A
Rationale >>: Contact dermatitis is triggered by external
substances (irritants or allergens), while atopic dermatitis is a
chronic inflammatory skin condition often linked to genetics
and immune system dysfunction.
Question 39
An individual with social anxiety disorder is attending a social
event. What is a cognitive distortion that may be present in
their thoughts? (3 points)
A. Unrealistic optimism about social interactions
B. Frequent use of humor to deflect anxiety
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C. Fear of being scrutinized or humiliated by others in a social
setting
D. Disregard for the opinions of others
Correct Answer = C
Rationale >>: A core feature of social anxiety disorder is the
intense fear of negative evaluation and humiliation in social
situations.
Question 40
The most common cause of cirrhosis is? (3 points)
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
Correct Answer = D
Rationale >>: Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is now
the leading cause of cirrhosis in many Western countries, often
associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome.
Question 41
What is the key feature of the pathophysiology of ulcerative
colitis? (4 points)
A. Presence of strictures and cobblestone appearance in the
affected areas
B. Transmural Inflammation Involving all layers of the bowel
wall
C. Continuous inflammation starting from the rectum and
extending proximally
D. Formation of granulomas and skip lesions in the colon
Correct Answer = C
Rationale >>: Ulcerative colitis is characterized by
continuous inflammation of the colon, starting in the rectum
and extending proximally.
Question 42
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The risk factors for the development of ulcerative colitis and
Crohn's disease are similar except which factor? (3 points)
A. Family history
B. Cancer risk
C. Age of onset
D. Gender
Correct Answer = D
Rationale >>: While many risk factors overlap, there are
slight gender differences in the prevalence of ulcerative colitis
and Crohn's disease.
Question 43
When speaking with a patient with migraine headaches, which
specific aspect of the patient's history is crucial to obtain for
proper diagnosis and management? (4 points)
A. History of head trauma or Injury
B. Characteristics of the headache attacks
C. Family history of cardiovascular disease
D. Dietary preferences and restrictions
Correct Answer = B
Rationale >>: Detailed information about the headache's
frequency, duration, intensity, location, associated symptoms,
and triggers is essential for diagnosing migraines and guiding
treatment.
Question 44
Which of the following is a characteristic of Crohn's disease? (4
points)
A. Continuous inflammation involving the entire colon
B. Presence of pseudopolyps and cobblestone appearance
C. Transmural inflammation with skip lesions
D. Superficial Inflammation limited to the mucosal layer
Correct Answer = C
Rationale >>: Crohn's disease is characterized by transmural
(full-thickness) inflammation of the bowel wall and the
presence of skip lesions (affected areas separated by healthy
tissue).
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Question 45
What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism involved in
diseases affecting the neuromuscular junction, such as
myasthenia gravis? (4 points)
A. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors
B. Abnormal accumulation of acetylcholine
C. Impaired production of acetylcholine
D. Excessive release of acetylcholine
Correct Answer = A
Rationale >>: Myasthenia gravis is caused by an
autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the
neuromuscular junction, impairing nerve-muscle
communication.
Question 46
What is the primary distinction between an erosion and ulcer in
the context of peptic ulcer disease? (3 points)
A. Presence of inflammation
B. Likelihood of bleeding
C. Size of the lesion
D. Depth of tissue involvement
Correct Answer = D
Rationale >>: Erosions are superficial lesions involving only
the mucosa, while ulcers extend deeper into the submucosa
and beyond.
Question 47
What is the primary pathological process underlying the
microvascular complications of diabetes, such as diabetic
nephropathy? (4 points)
A. Hyperplasia of vascular smooth muscle cells
B. Impaired production of nitric oxide
C. Autoimmune destruction of microvessels
D. Formation of advanced glycation end-products (AGES)
Correct Answer = D
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