TCFP Firefighter Exam Prep 2025 | 69 Pages of Verified Questions & Answers | NFPA Standards, PPE, Safety & SOP/SOG Guide | 100% Correct Texas Commission Fire Protection Study Pack

TCFP Firefighter Exam Prep 2025 | 69 Pages of Verified Questions & Answers | NFPA Standards, PPE, Safety & SOP/SOG Guide | 100% Correct Texas Commission Fire Protection Study Pack 1. the NFPA requires that, at minimum ppe clothing should be cleaned every months a. 12 b. 6 c. 9 d. 14: b. 6 2. National Fire Protection 1001 is ? A. Standard for firefighting professional qualifications B. Standard for Industrial Fire Brigades C. Standard for fire department occupational safety and health program D. standard for Blood Borne Pathogen training: A. Standard for firefighting professional qualifications 3. Historically, the standard operating unit of a fire department is ? A. the firefighter B. The company C. the battalion D. a platoon/shift: B. The company 4. Where are medical requirements for firefighters specified ? A. NFPA 1582 B. NFPA 1001 C. NFPA 1500 D. NFPA 1501: A. NFPA 1582 5. Directions: Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from alternatives A-D Statement 1: A policy is a guide to thinking or decision making Statement 2: a procedure is a detailed plan of action Statement 3: Standard operating procedures apply to both emergency and non-emergency situations A. st. 1 is true; st 2 and 3 are false B. st 1 and 2 are false; st 3 is true C. St 1 is false; st 2 and 3 are true D. all statements are true: D. all statements are true 6. Which is true regarding NFPA standards A. they are regarded as law B. they consensus documents C. they are adopted at the federal level D. they identify the maximum allowable by law.: B. they consensus documents 7. What is the difference in a dept's SOP's as opposed to the SOG's ? A. SOP's are specific, and SOG's are not B. SOP's and SOG's are exactly alike C. SOP's are not as strict as SOG's D. Both are required to meet NFPA 1500 requirements.: A. SOP's are specific, and SOG's are not 8. Life safety, incident stabilization, and are the three most important orginization duties for FD's to pursue. A. Building inspections B. public information C. Property conservation D. Resource management: C. Property conservation 9. What is the principle called that says each firefighter answers to only one supervisor ? A. Span of responsibility B. Organizational accountability C. Unity of command D. Delegation of duty: C. Unity of command 10. What is generally the upper limit of span of control ? a. 25 B. 9 C.13 D. 7: D. 7 11. the process of dividing large jobs into smaller jobs to make them more manageable is described as ? a. chain of command b. division of labor c. span of control d. unity of command: b. division of labor 12. Division of labor is necessary in the fire service in order to? a. determine who will be the incident commander b. separate union and administration c. determine chain of command d. make specific and clear-cut assignments: d. make specific and clear-cut assignments 13. One of the basic duties of an engine company is? a. attack and extinguish fires b. forcible entry c. perform technical rescue d. perform search and rescue: a. attack and extinguish fires 14. In the fire service, the basic definition of the word rescue is ? a. looking for victims who are in danger b. removing a victim from a hazardous situation to safety c. performing CPR on a victim d. stabilizing a victim before transport: b. removing a victim from a hazardous situation to safety 15. Which is considered one of the basic tasks of a traditional ladder company crew ? a. Securing a water source b. deploying hand lines c. Forcible entry d. high angle operations: c. Forcible entry 16. What is the term for a rescue situation requiring specialized knowledge or training such as high-angle rescue or trench rescue ? a. Class 1 rescue b. technical rescue c. barrel rescue d. second stage resuce: b. technical rescue 17. Which statement regarding NFPA standards is true ? a. they are viewed as regulations. b. they are viewed as consensus documents c. they are law and, therefore, must be implemented d. they are adopted by OSHA: b. they are viewed as consensus documents 18. Fire Department employee assistance programs provide help with problems that might affect performance. a. instantaneous b. confidential c. all-encompassing d. common knowledge: B. confidential 19. NFPA 1500 provides guidance for which program to benefit firefighters ? a. employee assistance programs b. collective bargaining agreements c. professional certifications d. Disciplinary plan: a. Employee assistance programs 20. Which would be considered a program offered by an Employee assistance program? a. Driving course for adolescents b. dealing with physical problems c. junior firefighter programs d. Juvenile arson setter program: b. dealing with physical problems 21. st. 1 Federal OSHA authority and regulations apply mainly to private sector and do not cover employees of state and local goverments st.2 Federal OSHA has jurisdiction over every state in the U.S. st.3 Agencies must adopt OSHA as recognized national standards a. statements 1 and 2 are true;3 is false b. statements 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true c. Statement 1 is true ; statements 2 and 3 are false d. All three statements are true.: C. 22. What topic is covered by NFPA 1500 a. salvage ops b electrical safety req C. budgeting req d. Safety programs: d. safety programs 23. toxic atmospheres due to smoke and heat are called? a. FF hazardous environments b immediately dangerous to life and health c. carcinogenic hazard areas d. exclusionary zones: b. immediately dangerous to life and health 24. Following notification of an emergency response, when should firefighters don PPE a. immediately upon mounting the apparatus at the scene b. while on the apparatus en route to the call' c. while on the apparatus, prior to pulling out of the station d. Prior to mounting the apparatus: d. Prior to mounting the apparatus 25. when parking the apparatus at the emergency scene, the firefighters should? a. park and walk with their back to traffic b. set out flares 10 ft from the truck c. turn off lights that face opposing traffic to avoid blinding other drivers d. close at least two lanes of traffic to operate more safely: c. turn ott lights that face opposing traflc to avoid blinding other drivers 26. to maintain scene security, the FF may use control zones using which of the following guidlines? a. tape should be tied to the emergency vehicles to anchor the scene b. the FF will need to determine the appropriate distance from the scene of the area c. FF should only operate in the cold zone d. media are authorized to work in the warm zone: b. the FF will need to determine the appropriate distance from the scene of the area 27. When dismounting the apparatus on the roadside, firefighters should a. turn lights to face opposing traffic so they will detour the incident b. never walk with their backs to the traffic c. block as many lanes as possible to ensure firefighter safety d. establish isolation zone of at least 200ft.: b. never walk with their backs to the traflc 28. The process of comparing the positive results that can be achieved in an action with the probability and severity of potential negative consequences is called? a. quid pro quo b. risk-benefit analysis c. validated needs assessment d. job task analysis: b. risk-benefit analysis 29. What is the key part of the rehabilitation process? a. assimilation b. re invigoration c. re initiation d. revitalization: d. revitalization 30. Over the last two decades, an average of more than U.S. firefight- ers die each year in the line of duty. a. 150 b. 100 c. 300 d. 200: b. 100 31. according to statistics compiled by the USFA approx. firefighter injuries are reported each yea. a. 1,000-3,000 b. 10,000-20,000 c. 70,000-100,000 d. more than 1,000,000: c. 70,000-100,000 32. Which is true regarding employee assistance programs (EAPs)? a. confidentiality does not apply in this circumstance b. services are available to firefighters and their families c. they are mandated by federal law d. attendance at programs is always mandatory: b. services are available to firefighters and their families 33. The leading cause of firefighter fatalities is ? a. cardiac arrest b. internal trauma c. asphyxiation d. crushing injuries: a. cardiac arrest 34. the most common injuries for firefighters are ? a. strains b. Bruises c. burns d. fractures: a. strains 35. All F.D. radio operations must follow rules of the ? a. NFPA b. DoT c. FCC d. code of Federal regulations: C. FCC 36. The term used for the facility where the emergency call is routed is called the ? a. public safety answering point (PSAP) b. unified command (UC) c. emergency collection points(ECP) d. emergency operations center (EOC): a. public safety answering point (PSAP) 37. What is the difference between basic 911 and enhanced 911 a. enhanced systems have the capability to provide the callers telephone num- ber and address b. enhanced systems are used only in the rural areas c. basic systems are more reliable than enhanced d. basic systems have the capability to provide the caller's telephone number and address: a. enhanced systems have the capability to provide the callers telephone number and address 38. What does the Automatic Number Identification (ANI) feature of enhanced 911 do ? a. provide the callers identity b. lock the callers phone open c. show the caller phone number d. provide access to real-time language translation: c. show the caller phone number 39. The primary purpose of a public fire service communication system is to a. accept reports of emergencies and dispatch emergency b. accept reports of emergencies and generate supportive data c. dispatch and communicate with emergency units d. communicate with emergency units and generate supportive data: a. accept reports of emergencies and dispatch emergency 40. Hearing impaired citizens may report an emergency via a ? a. task assist team b. teletype c. push to talk d. regional hearing system: b. teletype 41. What is the configuration when a fire dept switches from a duplex channel to a simplex channel for on-scene communications called? a. a talk around channel b. a repeater system c. an On scene communication switch d. a trunking system: a. a talk around channel 42. A trunked digital radio system allows? a. only one agency on the system b. different agencies on different systems c. different agencies on the same system d. less users to communicate: c. ditterent agencies on the same system 43. Radio signals are either ? a. simple or duplex b. analog or digital c. simple or complex d. private or public: b. analog or digital 44. When operating on a digital radio system, end users should expect? a. a minor time delay between transmitting and receiving b. overlapping transmissions bleeding into one another c. an increase in the amount of static or interference d. the need for vehicle-mounted repeaters: a. a minor time delay between transmitting and receiving 45. is the transition between the growth and fully developed stages of fire. a. ignition temperature b. flash point c. backdraft d. flashover: d. flashover 46. Thermal layering is ? a. a column of heat rising from a source b. a process in which the molecules of a liquid are liberated into the atmosphere at a rate at which the molecules return to a liquid c. the configuration of heat with higher temperatures at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat.: c. the config- uration of heat with higher temperatures at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels 47. When establishing a collapse zone around a building, the minimum distance from the building must extend a. the height of the building b. dependent on the buildin'g construction type c. 1-1/2 times the height of the building d. whatever the safety officer decides is safe: c. 1-1/2 times the height of the building 48. the least desirable point to force entry into a structure is a. a check rail window b. a swinging door c. plate glass d. a revolving door: d. a revolving door 49. Fire doors are operated a. manually, mechanically, electrically b. electrically, hydraulically, battery supplied c. by portable or fixed power units d. by manual or electrical power: a. manually, mechanically, electrically 50. Slab doors are constructed in two configurations a. slab and panel b. solid core and hollow core c. raised and flat d. ledge and framed: b. solid core and hollow core 51. Which is true regarding fire walls a. they are used for structural support so they are load bearing b. masonry is commonly used due to its noncombustible quality c. fire walls do not provide any fire rating d. stones are a good source of fire walls as they do not spall: b. masonry is commonly used due to its noncombustible quality 52. the reaction of wood to fire conditions depends mainly on two factors a. where it is pressure treated and its diameter b. if it is interior or exterior and if synthetics were added c. where it is load bearing and it's placement d. size of the wood and it's moisture content: d. size of the wood and it's moisture content 53. The measure of how long structural assemblies will maintain their load-bear- ing ability under fire conditions is known as a. fire code approved b. noncombustible construction c. fire resistance rating d. NFPA rated: c. fire resistance rating 54. In type 1 construction, the fire hazard is a. the occupants b. the contents c. the building materials d. exterior finishes: b. the contents 55. What should be expected in type 1 construction a. difficult to ventilate b. structural members have little or no fire resistance c. roofs are extremely hard to penetrate d. timbers provide for structural stability: c. roofs are extremely hard to penetrate 56. the main difference between types 1 and II construction is that. a. the occupants in type 1 are the main hazard b. type 1 is more prone to building collapse c. roofs in type ll are more stable d. structural components in type ll construction lack insulation and protection- : d. structural components in type ll construction lack insulation and protection 57. The type of construction where the exterior walls and structral members are made of noncombustible or limited combustible materials and the interior is completely or partially mad of wood is a. type I b. type II c. type III d. type IV: c. type III 58. the primary concern of ordinary construction is a. the exterior buildings materials b. fire and smoke spreading through concealed spaces c. early wall collapse d. combustible contents and building materials: b. fire and smoke spreading through con- cealed spaces 59. the primary concern of Type IV construction is a. the exterior buildings materials b. fire and smoke spreading through concealed spaces c. early wall collapse d. combustible contents and building materials: d. combustible contents and building mate- rials 60. The type of construction that presents the most hazard due to use of ply- wood I-beams is a. Type II b. Type III c. Type IV d. Type V: d. Type V 61. Concealed spaces can be created when a second roof is constructed over an older roof. The second roof is called a a. support roof b. rain roof c. secondary roof d. trial roof: b. rain roof 62. The term for the open space between the ceiling of the top floor and the underside of the roof of a building is the a. roof chase b. cockloft c. head space d. mantle: b. cockloft 63. Type V construction is a. fire resistive b. wood frame c. all masonry d. masonry and synthetics: a. fire resistive 64. A definition of moisture in concrete is heated to steam and expands causing parts of the concrete to break away a. delamination b. depolymerization c. spalling d. stressing: c. spalling 65. When exposed to intense heat, a lightweight metal truss can a. maintain its structural integrity b. often contain a fire specific to the area c. be expected to fail in 5-10 minutes d. be expected to support firefighting ops for at least 20 mins: c. be expected to fail in 5-10 minutes 66. What type of construction, found on some older wooden building, provides a path of rapid fire extension a. side split b. bungalow c. slate roof d. Balloon frame: d. Balloon frame 67. Type 1 is construction a. non combustible b. heavy timber c. ordinary d. fire resistive: d. fire resistive 68. The weight of the building materials and any part of the building permanent- ly attached or built in, such as heating, ventilation, and air conditioning units or water tanks, is the definition of a(n) load a. impact b. fire c. design d. dead: d. dead 69. At Fahrenheit the length of a steel structural member will begin to elongate. a. 800 b. 1100 c. 1400 d. 1000: d. 1000 70. indications of building collapse include a. decorative stars b. closed compartments c. deteriorating mortar d. yellowish, puffing smoke: c. deteriorating mortar 71. a chord is ? a beam or joist b. the main member of a truss, the top or bottom structural element c. a framing member that supports floor or roof decking d. a large structural member used to support beams or joist: b. the main member of a truss, the top or bottom structural element 72. a parapet wall is best described as a. exterior wall extending above the roof line b. fire resistant c. attached to the building by its floors or columns d. supports its on weight and the weight of the walls and floors above it: a. exterior wall extending above the roof line 73. Modern wood-frame construction uses a technique that builds one floor at a time and inserts a plate between each floor that acts as a fire stop. the technique is called a. flitich plate b. platform frame c. balustrade d. awning: b. platform frame 74. the term that refers to how a building is used a. ownership b. occupancy c. design type d. residence: b. occupancy 75. What is another name for a lamella arched roof a. bowstring truss arched roof b. buttressed arched roof c. parapet arched roof d. diagonal grid: d. diagonal grid 76. Which describes a horizontal member between arches that supports a type of trussless arched roof a. purlin b. parapet c. Lamella d. bowstring: a. purlin 77. A poisonous gas with the odor of almonds is a. sulphur dioxide b. Hydrogen cyanide c. propane d. chlorine: b.Hydrogen cyanide 78. Which is true regarding smoke a. complete combustion results in dark black smoke b. the lighter the smoke, the more fuel it contains c. the color of smoke does not indicate fuel content d. the denser the smoke, the more fuel it contains: d. the denser the smoke, the more fuel it contains 79. What method of fire suppression is most widely used on Class A com- bustibles a. cooling b. removing of fuel c. smothering d. inhibition of chain reaction: a. cooling 80. What does the E stand for in Lower Limit (LEL) a. endothermic b. energetic c. explosive d. evolution: c. explosive 81. what is classified as carcinogen a. carbon dioxide b. pyrolysis c. formaldehyde d. glucose: c. formaldehyde 82. Convection is the transfer of heat through a. space by infrared rays b. a solid medium c. friction or compression d. liquid gases by circulating currents: d. liquid gases by circulating currents 83. the mixture of fuel vapor to air that will ignite when subjected to an ignition source is known as the a. flash point b. vapor/fuel density c. explosive/flammable range d. burning point: c. explosive/flammable range 84. the transfer of heat by the movement of gases or liquid is known as a. conduction b. radiation c. convection d. direct-flame contact: c. convection 85. heat transfer that takes place in the form of electromagnetic waves is known as a. convection b. radiation c. conduction d. flame contact: b. radiation 86. Which stage of the fire is influenced by the environment and amount of ventilation a. ignition b. fully developed c. growth d. raped oxidation: c. growth 87. in the fire tetrahedron, what is the reducing agent a. fuel b. heat c. oxygen d. chemical reaction: a. fuel 88. is described as the direct contact of transmission of heat energy from one body to another a. conduction b. radiation c. convection: a. conduction 89. the chemical decomposition of a substance through the action of heat best denies as a. oxidation b. pyrolysis c. boiling point d. heat of decompression: b. pyrolysis 90. The stage of fire development that is influenced by the configuration of the compartment and the amount of ventilation is a. growth b. incipient c. fully developed d. decay: a. growth 91. the stages/phases of fire development are a. initial, growth, developed, and decline b. incipient/ignition, growth, fully developed, and decay c. origin, intermediate, growth, and decline d. spontaneous, incipient, growth/development, and decay: b. incipient/ignition, growth, fully developed, and decay 92. the movement of heat through a steel beam to an unexposed part of a building where it can start another fire is an example of a. conduction b. radiation c. convection d. direct-flame contact: a. conduction 93. Besides the growth stage, in what other stage is the fire fuel controlled a. incipent/ignition stage b. fully developed stage c. decay: c. decay 94. the amount of heat energy released per unit of time as a given fuel burns is called a. ignition rate b. heat release rate c. heat energy rate d. rate of combustion: b. heat release rate 95. Pyrolysis is defined as a. a physical reaction that produces heat b. the concentration level of a substance at which it will support ignition and continuous burning c. a state where a balance has occurred in a mixture d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat.: d. decompo- sition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. 96. The temperature at which a liquid fuel produces sufficient vapors to support combustion is the a. fire point b. flash point c. ignition point d. vapor density: a. fire point 97. the ratio of the mass of a given volume of a liquid compared with the mass of an equal volume of water at the same temperature is a. specific gravity b. vapor density c. flash point d. surface to mass ratio: a. specific gravity 98. Rollover occurs when a. there is spontaneous ignition of combustible gases b. everything in a confined area ignites at almost the same time c. unburned smoke is heated in the absence of O2 d. pressurized smoke rises to the ceiling and then begins to rapidly bank down: a. there is spontaneous ignition of combustible gases 99. Backdraft is .... A. a boiling liquid/expanding vapor explosion b. a layer of air that has the same temperature c. the rapid ignition of smoke/unburned gases d. sudden ignition of all of the combustible objects within a compartment: c. the rapid ignition of smoke/unburned gases 100. A British Thermal Unit (BTU) is a. the amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahren- heit b. a substance or an agent that causes two or more objects or parts to bind c. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by light the concentration level of a substance at which it will burn: a. the amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit 101. There are two types of ignition a. exothermic and endothermic b. piloted ignition and autoignition c. pryolysis and spontaneous d, internal and external: b. piloted ignition and autoignition 102. Autoignition temperature is a. the term used to denote a place where heat is drained away from a source b. the temperature at which a material sustains combustion a catalyst in the breakdown of molecules d. a chemical reaction that absorbs heat: b. the temperature at which a material sustains combustion 103. Which material is a poor conductor of heat ? a. wood b. steel c. aluminum d. copper: a. wood 104. Which has the wider flammable range a. propane b. Methane c. Diesel d. carbon monoxide: d. carbon monoxide 105. In which physical state is a material easiest to ignite ? a. gas b. liquid c, solid d. neutrons: a. gas 106. the minimum temp at which combustion can be initiated under specific conditions is called a. heat rise b. fire point c. ignition temp d. heat release rate.: c. ignition temp 107. The mass of an object and its surface area influence heat absorption in what way ? a. the larger the mass-to-surface ration, the faster heat is absorbed b. the larger the surface-to-mass ratio, the slower heat is absorbed c. the larger the mass, the slower the heat is absorbed. d. The larger the surface-to-mass ratio, the easier it is for heat to be absorbed: d. The larger the surface-to-mass ratio, the easier it is for heat to be absorbed 108. Flash point is the minimum temp at which an ignitable liquid will? a. start to vaporize an ignitable gas b. give off a sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air c. sustain a continual flame from vaporization d. give off sufficient vapors to sustain flames: b. give ott a suflcient vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air 109. Vapor density is used to describe the density of a a. mist b. gas c. liquid d. solid: c. liquid 110. What are the four commonly accepted types of energy a. mechanical, electrical, nuclear, and solar b. Fusion, decomposition, flame, and friction c. Mechanical, electrical, nuclear, and chemical d. Chemical, mechanical, nuclear, and spontaneous: c. Mechanical, electrical, nuclear, and chemical 111. Convection is the transfer of heat by a. direct contact b. light waves through air c. Gas, such as liquids, air, or flames d. solid media, such as steel, copper, and direct flame: c. Gas, such as liquids, air, or flames 112. Which is a warning signal of possible backdraft conditions a. smoke stained windows b. smoke observed pouring out a burned-through opening in the roof c. front door unaccountably wide open d. upper windows observed to be open or shattered: a. smoke stained windows 113. The chemical reaction between two or more materials that changes the materials and produces heat, flames, and toxic smoke a. endothermic heat reaction b. exothermic heat reaction c. pyrolysis d. chemical free radicals: b. exothermic heat reaction 114. While no exact temp is associated with flashover, a range from approximate- ly degrees Fahrenheit is widely accepted. a. 400-900 b.900-1200 c. d. : b.900-1200 115. Extinguishing agents safe for use on fires in or near energized electrical equipment include a. dry powder, carbon dioxide, and AFFF b. carbon dioxide and dry chemical c. dry chemical, pressurized foam, and carbon dioxide d. AFFF, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical: b. carbon dioxide and dry chemical 116. What is the term for water-soluble flammable liquids such as alcohols, acetone, and others a. Volatile fuels b. Polar solvents c. flammable surfactants d. Three-dimensional liquids: b. Polar solvents 117. Fiberglass and kevlar self-contained breathing apparatus cylinders must be hydrostatically tested every ? a. year b. three years c. six years d. ten years: b. three years 118. When donning a SCBA, the firefighters should check to ensure that the cylinder is at what minimum specified percentage of its capacity of air ? a. 90 percent b. 75 percent c. 50 percent d. 10 percent: a. 90 percent 119. When tightening the straps on a SCBA facepiece the straps should always be tightened first a. lower b. temple c. upper d. harness: a. lower 120. Four hazardous atmospheres that firefighters are likely to encounter at a fire are a. super-heated air, toxic gases, o2 deficiency, and smoke b. toxic gases, hyperventilation, o2 deficiency, and heat c. Heat, smoke, and chemical reaction d. carbon monoxide, ammonia, water, hydrogen sulfide: a. super-heated air, toxic gases, o2 deficiency, and smoke 121. The purpose of the barriers found in structural firefighting PPE is to a. keep the skin from drying out b. increase perspiration from the body from evaporating and allows the trans- fer of fluids c. keep steam evolved from the body from escaping. d. prevent fluids from transferring to the skin and acts as an insulating barrier.- : nt fluids from transferring to the skin and acts as an insulating barrier. 122. Which type of breathing apparatus recycles the user's exhaled breath after removing carbon dioxide and adding supplemental o2 a. open-circuit b. closed-circuit c. special assisted respirator d. positive pressure: b. closed-circuit 123. What are the two general types of SCBA a. Demand and pressure-demand b. Open-circuit and closed-circuit c. OSHA approved and NIOSH approved d. compressed air and liquid O2: b. Open-circuit and closed-circuit 124. An advantage of a face-piece nose-cup is that it a. assist in communication b. helps control internal fogging c. increases user time d. makes breathing easier: b. helps control internal fogging 125. Atmospheres are classified as O2 deficient when they fall below percent O2 a. 25 b. 19.5 c. 16 d. 13.5: b. 19.5 126. What type of SCBA is most commonly used for structral firefighting a. closed-circuit b. Open-circuit c. Multi-circuit d. rebreather: b. Open-circuit 127. All SCBA should be inspected a. bi-weekly b. quarterly c. after each use d. semi-anually: c. after each use 128. The low alarm of the SCBA will sound when percent of the cylinder's air supply is remaining a. 15 b. 18 c. 33 d. 30: c. 33 129. NFPA 1971 covers a. structural PPE b. hazardous materials PPE c. firefighter safety standards d. physical abilities requirements: a. structural PPE 130. The universal air rescue connection is a. the female quick fill inlet sound on the back of a SCBA by the cylinder valve b. used to refill cylinders normally c. the term used for a short section of hose used to share air between users' masks d. used to refill a cylinder of a firefighter running out of air.: d. used to refill a cylinder of a firefighter running out of air. 131. What does NFPA 1981 address a. Open-circuit SCBA emergency services b. Station/work uniforms c. Fire department occupational safety and health program d. structural firefighter ensembles: a. Open-circuit SCBA emergency services 132. How long does it take for the PASS device to alarm if the wearer becomes inactive a. 20 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 45 seconds d. 60 seconds: b. 30 seconds 133. If apparatus sirens and noise levels exceed decibels, firefighters should wear hearing protection a. 30-40 b. 50-60 c. 70-80 d. 90: d. 90 134. Which statement regarding work uniforms is correct a. NFPA 1975 standard outlines manufactures' guidelines and requirements b. uniforms can be made of approved synthetic c. A uniform that meets NFPA standards is designed to protect the wearer in immediately dangerous to life health atmospheres d. a work uniform that meets NFPA standards is also designed to protect the wearer from IDLH atmospheres of structure fires: a. NFPA 1975 standard outlines manufactures' guidelines and requirements 135. Which is true regarding structural fire helmets ? a. faceshields should be tinted to reduce glare b. faceshields alone provide sufficient protection from flying debris c. they must have earflaps or neck covers d. chin straps are optional selections: c. they must have earflaps or neck covers 136. What normal body cooling mechanism is lost when wearing ppe a. radiation from the head b. radiation from the body c. internal cooling from ingestion d. evaporation of perspiration: d. evaporation of perspiration 137. The byproduct of the combustion of plastics and polyurethane foam that acts to prevent the body from using oxygen at the cellular level is a. actaldehyde b. asbstos c. carbon dioxide d. hydrogen cyanide: d. hydrogen cyanide 138. AFFF extinguishers are suitable for use on fires a. class B & C b. class A & B c. class D d. class A, B, and C: b. class A & B 139. Worn, damaged, and deteriorated parts of a SCBA must be replaced accord- ing to a. past practice b. NISH/OSHA respiratory protection act c. manufactures instructions d. the wearer's recommendation: c. manufactures instructions 140. Steel and aluminum cylinders for breathing apparatus should by hydrosta- tically tested after each year period a. two b. three c. four d. five: d. five 141. A class A fire is fueled by a. electricity b. ordinary combustible materials c. liquids d. gases: b. ordinary combustible materials 142. With respect to fuels, ordinary combustible materials include a. gasoline and oil b. plastics c. wood and paper d. animal fur: c. wood and paper 143. A dry chemical extinguisher rated 60-B is capable of extinguishing a flammable liquid pan fire. a. 40 sq ft b. 60 sq ft c. 120 sq ft d. 150 sq ft: b. 60 sq ft 144. What advantage does CO2 have over a dry chemical extinguisher a. Co2 is not a hazard in an enclosed area b. CO2 does not leave a residue or corrode electrical contacts c. CO2 will prevent re-ignition longer than dry chemical extinguisher d. CO2 is effective at a greater distance: b. CO2 does not leave a residue or corrode electrical contacts 145. A blue circle with a letter designation in the center would indicate an extinguisher is rated for for use on fires a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D: c. Class C 146. Class B fires involve fuels such as a. flammable liquids b. energized electrical equipment c. combustible metals d. ordinary combustibles: a. flammable liquids 147. A green triangle containing a letter would indicate extinguisher to be used on fires a. class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D: a. class A 148. Energized electrical equipment and the surrounding area have to be pro- tected with extinguishers that have a rating a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D: c. Class C 149. The preferred method of applying dry chemical agents to flammable liquid spill fires is to a. direct the stream into the flame and allow it to settle b. deflect the stream a minimum of 5 feet in front of the spill to prevent agitation c. direct the stream up-wind and allow it to be blown onto the fire d. direct the stream at the base of the fire using a sweeping motion: d. direct the stream at the base of the fire using a sweeping motion 150. Carbon dioxide extinguishers are generally rated for fires a. Class A and B b. Class B and C c. Class C and D d. Class B and D: b. Class B and C 151. An electric motor fire is best extinguished by using CO2 because it a. freezes the components and prevents re-ignition b. leaves no residue c. can be applied from 25 ft away from the equipment d. provides a smothering blanket of soft foam that does not effect electrical equipment: b. leaves no residue 152. Extinguishers suitable for Class B fires can be identified by a containing the letter B a. blue circle b. green triangle c. red square d. yellow star: c. red square 153. The proper type of extinguisher for a fire involving magnesium, titanium, or sodium is a. dry chemical b. CO2 c. dry powder d. water: c. dry powder 154. A class D fire involves a. combustible metals b. flammable liquids c. electrical equipment d. ordinary combustible: a. combustible metals 155. Fires involving flammable liquids and gases where applied foam and/or dry chemical agents will be needed are fires a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D: b. Class B 156. Extinguishers suitable for class D fires can be identified by a containing the letter D a. blue circle b. yellow star c. green triangle d. red square: b. yellow star 157. Dry powder extinguishers are rated for use on fires a. class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D: d. Class D 158. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is least likely to expose the operator to electrical shock a. dry chemical b. pressurized water c. Stored pressure AFFF d. Film-forming fluoroprotein: a. dry chemical 159. Class K fires involve a. atomic material b. computer network equipment c. hazardous waste d. high temp cooking oils, such as vegetable or animal oils and fats: d. high temp cooking oils, such as vegetable or animal oils and fats 160. The greatest concern associated with selecting too small of an extinguisher is that a. the contents will expel too quickly b. delicate equipment could be damaged by over application c. the operator has to get to close to the fire d. excessive amounts of dry chemical result in poor visibility: c. the operator has to get to close to the fire 161. Regular dry chemicals (sodium bicarbonate-based and potassium-based) work on fires a. only class D b. Class K c. Only Class B d. Classes B and C: d. Classes B and C 162. The acronym for the 4-step process for proper use of a fire extinguishers is a. PASS b. RACE c. PACE d. DUMP: a. PASS 163. the AFFF portable extinguishers use what means for expelling their con- tents a. springs b. vacuum c. Compressed air d. Gravity: c. Compressed air 164. Which is true regarding fire extinguishers a. firefighters should only rely on fire extinguishers carried on fire apparatus b. firefighters should only rely on fire extinguishers found in occupancies c. NFPA 1901 requires one fire extinguisher d. NFPA 1901 requires a pressurized water fire extinguisher: a. firefighters should only rely on fire extinguishers carried on fire apparatus 165. Water-mist fire extinguishers are safe to use on energized electrical equip- ment because the water they use is a. Deionized b. ordinary c. distilled d. sterile: a. Deionized 166. There are two basic designs for handheld dry chemical extinguishers a. cartridge and stored pressure b. pressurized and non pressurized c. stored pressure and upright d. non pressurized and cartridge: a. cartridge and stored pressure 167. The organization charged for independently testing and certifying fire ex- tinguishers is a. American national standards institute (ANSI) b. NFPA c. State fire Marshal or its designated authority having jurisdiction d. Underwriters Laboratories (UL): d. Underwriters Laboratories (UL) 168. AFFF extinguishing agents are applicable to fires a. Class C b. Class D c. both Class A and B d. Class A,B, and C: c. both Class A and B 169. When applying dry powder to a class D fire, the operator will need to a. use large amounts of dry powder to completely cover the burning metal b. apply the powder in small amounts to avoid spreading the fire c. apply carbon dioxide to cool the metal first, then apply dry powder d. place the burning metal in a fireproof container such as a metal garbage can.: a. use large amounts of dry powder to completely cover the burning metal 170. What best describes a bight ? a. the part of the rope used for the work b. the part of the rope used for hoisting or pulling c. reversing the rope back upon itself, while keeping the two sides of the rope parallel d. forming a loop around to a plane parallel with the other side: c. reversing the rope back upon itself, while keeping the two sides of the rope parallel 171. at room temperature, combustion is supported at O2 concentrations as low as percent a. 5-7 b. 10-12 c. 14-16 d. 18-20: c. 14-16 172. Utility rope should be used for a. rappeling b. belaying c. hoisting tools d. life safety: c. hoisting tools 173. The kern of a kernmantle rope is the a. core b. sheath c. end d. weave: a. core 174. About how much of a kernmantle rope's strength is provided by the mantle a. 10-15% b. 25-30% c. 45-50% d. 60-75%: b. 25-30% 175. The application of a safety knot is to a. finish the other basic knots b. keep a rope from running completely through the pulley or eye c. form a loop that does not tighten d. connect two ropes together: a. finish the other basic knots 176. The kind of loop that a figure 8 on a bight creates is a a. secure, closed loop in the end of a rope b. loop that will tighten at the standing end c. sliding loop at the running end d. double loop at both ends: a. secure, closed loop in the end of a rope 177. The primary use of the is to attach a rope to a round object a. rescue knot b. becket/sheet bend c. bowline d. clove hitch: d. clove hitch 178. The part of the rope that is used for hoisting or pulling is called the a. working end b. round turn c. running end d. standing part: c. running end 179. The knot used to tie two ropes of unequal diameter together is the a. , clove hitch b. square knot c. becket/sheet bend d. half hitch: c. becket/sheet bend 180. A bowline is used primarily to a. join two ropes of unequal size b. form a loop around an object c. join tow ropes of the same size together d. connect and tighten a rope between two objects: b. form a loop around an object 181. A class 1 harness, used during technical rescues, is known as a a. chest harness b. full body harness c. leg harness d. seat harness: d. seat harness 182. When hoisting a ladder, the rope should be threaded and secured through the ladder the distance from the top. a. 1/6 b. 1/5 c. 1/3 d. 1/2: c. 1/3 183. Elements for forming a knot are a. bight, loop, and round turn b. loop, bend, and crown c. round turn, standing, and running d. standing, bight, and hitch: a. bight, loop, and round turn 184. A tag line should be used to a. minimize the number of personnel to hoist object b. eliminate the need for a safety knot c. reduce strain on life safety rope d. prevent equipment from striking the structure: d. prevent equipment from striking the structure 185. Which is an advantage of sythetic kermantle ropes a. very strong, thin and heavy weight b. fibers making up the rope are not continuous from end to end c. excellent strength and requires extensive maintenance d. well suited for rescue work: d. well suited for rescue work 186. Which is the best choice for rescue rope a. braided b. laid (twisted) c. Polypropylene d. Kernmantle: d. Kernmantle 187. Which is true regarding hoisting tools and equipment a. use hand over hand method to control rope when hoisting b. fire extinguishers and SCBA should never be hoisted c. use with webbing over sharp edges to prevent physical damage to rope d. when working with heights, use additional ropes for added safety: b. fire extinguishers and SCBA should never be hoisted 188. The core of kernmantle rope is made of high-strength fibers which account for percent of the total strength of the rope a. 60-65 b. 70-75 c. 80-85 d. 90-95: b. 70-75 189. Escape rope should a. be constructed like utility rope b. exceed specification for life safety rop c. be thoroughly inspected after use d. used once: d. used once 190. Two types of rope used in life-safety situations a. dynamic and static rope b. utility and kernmantle rope c. dynamic and utility rope d. twisted and braided rope: a. dynamic and static rope 191. Life safety rope for firefighters should a. be able to tolerate high heat and direct flame impingement use after use b. be subjected to repeated impact loads c. use continuous filament fiber d. pass and annual inspection by the manufacturer: c. use continuous filament fiber 192. WHich describes a Class 1 harness a. fastens around the waist and thighs or under buttocks and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load up to 600 lbs b. fastens around waist and thighs or under buttocks and over the shoulders and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load of 300lbs c. fastens around the waist and around the thighs or under the buttocks and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load of up to 300 lbs: c. fastens around the waist and around the thighs or under the buttocks and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load of up to 300 lbs 193. Which is an unacceptable method of choice for drying ropes a. hose dryer b. suspended in hose tower c. direct sunlight d. spread on hose rack: c. direct sunlight 194. When inspecting a kernmantle rope, what finding should alert the fire fighters to possible damage of the rope a. color change of the kern b. dampness of the mantle c. depressions of the kern d. stiffness in the mantle: c. depressions of the kern 195. When choosing a route along which to respond to a reported hazardous materials incident, how should the approach be planned? A. From upwind and upgrade B. From upwind and downgrade C. From downwind and upgrade D. From downwind and downgrade: A. From upwind and upgrade 196. On which type of hazardous materials incident should early responders establish a plan for decontamination? A. On incidents involving gases or vapors B. On incidents where direct contact with the material is likely C. On incidents involving offensive operations D. On all incidents: D. On all incidents 197. Which is a commonly used resource to determine the size of a vapor cloud? A. A scientific functions-capable calculator B. Specialized computer software C. Preincident plan D. GPS triangulation: B. Specialized computer software 198. Which is a critical factor in determining the appropriate level of PPE? A. The experience of the fire fighters on hand B. The availability of protective gear available C. The physical state and characteristics of the material D. The responders' experience with this material: C. The physical state and characteristics of the material 199. Which is a defensive action? A. Plugging B. Patching C. Diking D. Product transfer: C. Diking 200. Which function should occur in the warm zone? A. Command post B. Decontamination corridor C. Triage area D. Staging area: B. Decontamination corridor 201. What does the R stand for in ERG? A. Radiological B. Response C. Region D. Rules: B. Response 202. What is the first priority on any hazardous material incident? A. Safety of responders B. Rescue of victims C. Stop leak D. Confine material: A. Safety of responders 203. Which is a critical factor in determining the decontamination methods employed for a specific incident? A. Level of PPE B. Area exposed C. Specific hazard(s) involved D. Incident commander's preference: C. Specific hazard(s) involved 204. What can be used to determine the pH of a hazardous material? A. Litmus paper B. Organic paper C. M-8 paper D. M-9 tape: A. Litmus paper 205. What does the abbreviation TLV stand for? A. Type limit variable B. Total limit viability C. Time length variable D. Threshold limit value: D. Threshold limit value 206. Which value is the maximum concentration to which an adult can be ex- posed 8 hours per day, 40 hours per week? A. Time-weighted average B. Long-term exposure limit C. Working exposure limit D. Ceiling level: A. Time-weighted average 207. is an atmospheric concentration of any substance that poses an immediate threat to life. A. Ceiling level B. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) C. Short-term exposure limit D. Maximum exposure limit: B. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) 208. Which Threshold Limit Value sets a maximum concentration above which no exposure of any duration should be permitted? A. Ceiling B. Maximum exposure limit C. Short-term exposure limit D. Permissible exposure limit: A. Ceiling 209. Which threshold limit value is the maximum concentration at which expo- sure should not exceed 15 minutes and should not be repeated more than four times per day? A. Time-weighted average B. Immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) C. Short-term exposure limit D. Permissible exposure limit: C. Short-term exposure limit 210. In the yellow and blue-bordered sections of the ERG, how are materials that are included in the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Distances identified? A. They are in bold print. B. They are italicized. C. They are highlighted. D. They are underlined: C. They are highlighted. 211. Materials are listed in the green section of the ERG because of their: A. flammability or explosion hazard. B. toxicity. C. reactivity. D. instability.: B. toxicity. 212. In the ERG, the Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances are found on pages that have borders. A. red B. yellow C. blue D. green: D. green 213. The ERG refers to the as the area downwind of the spill or leak where steps must be taken to protect the public. A. evacuation area B. protective action distance C. initial isolation zone D. exclusion zone: B. protective action distance 214. What term does the ERG use for the distance from a spill or leak that all persons should be evacuated in all directions? A. Exclusion zone B. Protective area C. Contaminated area D. Initial isolation zone: D. Initial isolation zone 215. As it applies to hazardous materials response strategy, what does the term "isolation" mean? A. Taking steps to control the direction of a material release and minimize downwind exposures B. Use of appropriate personal protective equipment to prevent direct contact with the material C. Preventing spread of a material beyond a specified zone or perimeter D. Keeping responders and the public a safe distance away from the hazard: D. Keeping responders and the public a safe distance away from the hazard 216. What is the most effective way to maintain the security of an isolation perimeter? A. Posting security personnel B. Placing traffic cones, signage, and barrier tape C. Erecting barricades D. Using emergency vehicles to block access points: A. Posting security personnel 217. If it is necessary to isolate a hazardous materials incident, it will also be necessary to: A. take protective actions. B. deny entry. C. contain the material. D. evacuate.: B. deny entry. 218. Relocation of people who are threatened by a potential hazard is called: A. evacuation. B. isolation. C. decontamination. D. rescue.: A. evacuation. 219. How can a thermal imaging camera be useful at a hazardous materials spill? A. To detect the direction of travel of a plume B. To predict the direction of travel of vapor or smoke C. To indicate the level of material remaining in a container D. To assist in material identification: C. To indicate the level of material remaining in a container 220. What is the term for the amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of solution? A. Dispersion B. Concentration C. Diffusion D. pH: B. Concentration 221. How is the concentration of a gas typically expressed? A. PPM B. As a percentage C. pH D. Units of weight per unit of volume: B. As a percentage 222. What is the purpose of a secondary device? A. Initiate detonation of the primary device B. Kill and injure emergency personnel C. Backup in case of failure of the primary device D. Create misdirection or a diversion: B. Kill and injure emergency personnel 223. What does the A stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Avoid touching anything that might conceal an explosive device. B. Assist victims cautiously. C. Assess the scene for likely locations of secondary devices. D. Assume the presence of a secondary device at all scenes.: B. Assist victims cautiously. 224. What does the EVADE acronym address? A. Decontamination B. Nerve agent poisoning C. Scene assessment D. Secondary devices: D. Secondary devices 225. What does the D stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Deny entry. B. Do not become part of the problem. C. Designate and enforce scene control zones. D. Dike, dam, dilute, and divert.: C. Designate and enforce scene control zones. 226. Diversion of material is an example of which mode of operation? A. Offensive B. Confinement C. Combined D. Defensive: D. Defensive 227. Dilution of material is an example of which mode of operation? A. Offensive B. Confinement C. Combined D. Defensive: D. Defensive 228. What service does the NFPA perform with regard to hazardous materials PPE? A. Creates standards B. Testing and certification C. Recommendations for usage D. All of the above.: A. Creates standards 229. Where will you find recommendations for levels of hazardous materials PPE to be used under specific conditions? A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B B. Emergency Response Guide (ERG) C. NFPA standards D. Material safety data sheets: A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B 230. For which situation will structural firefighting protective clothing provide you with adequate protection? A. You will be exposed to splashes of the material. B. You will have to handle the material. C. There are high atmospheric concentrations of the material. D. None of the above: D. None of the above 231. What is a proximity suit designed for? A. Limited exposures to high temperatures B. Protection from radiological hazards C. Protection from both chemical and heat hazards D. Hazardous materials support work, such as decontamination: A. Limited exposures to high temperatures 232. Which term describes when a chemical passes through a material on a molecular level? A. Degradation B. Permeation C. Infiltration D. Impregnation: B. Permeation 233. Signs that chemical protective clothing is undergoing the process of include discoloration, charring, swelling, and shrinking. A. degradation B. corrosion C. decomposition D. deterioration: A. degradation 234. An EPA Level chemical-protective suit is one that is designed to protect the wearer from gases, vapors, and liquids. A. A B. B C. C D. D: A. A 235. Which EPA level of protective equipment is required when working with highly toxic vapors? A. A B. B C. C D. D: A. A 236. You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a sub- stance that has been positively identified. It is determined that this substance is harmful by inhalation but not by skin contact. What is the minimum EPA level of PPE for this situation? A. A B. B C. C D. D: B. B 237. What is the highest level of EPA chemical protective clothing that permits the use of an air-purifying respirator? A. A B. B C. C D. D: C. C 238. The use of EPA Level protective clothing should only be used in situa- tions where there is no atmospheric hazard. A. A B. B C. C D. D: D. D 239. Which form of decontamination typically consists of removing contaminat- ed clothing and dousing the victim with large volumes of water? A. Technical B. Mass C. Emergency D. Forma: C. Emergency 240. A victim of a motor vehicle accident involving hazardous materials is trans- ported by ambulance to a hospital. This action will result in of ambu- lance personnel and the medical care facility. A. exposure B. contamination C. secondary contamination D. infection: C. secondary contamination 241. Which is the best example of secondary contamination? A. Exposure to alpha radiation from broken transport packaging B. Contact occurring during operations by emergency personnel to resolve the incident C. Contact with material outside of its containment vessel or packaging D. Contact with runoff from firefighting operations on an ignited material: D. Contact with runott from firefighting operations on an ignited material 242. At a hazardous materials incident, what are the hot, warm, and cold zones? A. Control zones B. Isolation perimeters C. Protective action distances D. Groups or divisions: A. Control zones 243. For hazardous materials responders, what is the most important element of personal protective equipment? A. Vapor protection B. Respiratory protection C. Splash protection D. Thermal protection: B. Respiratory protection 244. Which is one of the three general types of IDLH atmospheres? A. Corrosive B. Oxygen-deficient C. Oxygen-enriched D. Combustible: B. Oxygen-deficient 245. Which statement about positive-pressure SCBA is correct? A. They are also known as "rebreathers." B. They filter and condition atmospheric air for breathing. C. They prevent exposure by ingestion as well as by inhalation. D. They use compressed or liquid oxygen.: C. They prevent exposure by ingestion as well as by inhalation. 246. What is a primary advantage of a supplied-air respirator? A. Reduced weight and bulk for the wearer B. Greater mobility C. Less susceptible to mechanical damage D. Eliminates the need to carry an air cylinder: A. Reduced weight and bulk for the wearer 247. Which statement about air-purifying respirators is correct? A. They are supplied by a low-pressure hose connected to a remote air supply. B. A filter must be selected based on the specific contaminant. C. They use a closed-circuit system. D. The catalytic type may be used in low-oxygen atmospheresThere are three general IDLH atmospheres: toxic, flammable, and oxygen-deficient. Individuals ex- posed to There are three general IDLH atmospheres: toxic, flammable, and oxygen-de- ficient. Individuals exposed to There are three general IDLH atmospheres: toxic, flam- mable, and oxygen-deficient. Individuals exposed to.: B. A filter must be selected based on the specific contaminant. 248. How does a closed-circuit SCBA operate? A. Fresh air is supplied by one tank and exhaled air is stored in another tank. B. Exhaled carbon dioxide reacts with a catalyst to produce oxygen. C. Exhaled breath is released to the atmosphere. D. All inhaled and exhaled gas stays within the system.: D. All inhaled and exhaled gas stays within the system. 249. What does the C in CBRN stand for? A. Chemical B. Communication C. Corrosive D. Contac: A. Chemical 250. Which type of breathing apparatus is equipped with an escape cylinder? A. Supplied-air respirator B. Powered air-purifying respirator C. Closed-circuit SCBA D. Open-circuit SCBA: A. Supplied-air respirator 251. A person has a radioactive material on their clothing. What is the term for this? A. Exposure B. Contamination C. Absorption D. Contact: B. Contamination 252. A fully encapsulated suit is part of EPA Level protective clothing. A. A B. B C. C D. D: A. A 253. Preincident plans should be available to a. the highest ranking field supervisor b. units that respond to that location c. the first due unit only d. staff officers only: b. units that respond to that location 254. When calling a Mayday, you should a. transmit your location b. stay off the radio and listen for instructions c. throw your helmet out of a window to signal your location d. continued to talk until you are found: a. transmit your location 255. Which best describes the technique to use when exiting through restricted passages while using SCBA a. completely remove the SCBA backpack and harness assembly while keeping the facepiece in place and dragging the backpack behind you b. loosen the SCBA waist strap and remove one shoulder strap. Maintain control of the regulator side of the SCBA and sling the SCBA to one side to reduce your profile c. Completely remove the SCBA backpack and harness assembly while keeping the facepiece in place and pushing the backpack in front of you.: b. loosen the SCBA waist strap and remove one shoulder strap. Maintain control of the regulator side of the SCBA and sling the SCBA to one side to reduce your profile 256. What hould a firefighter do if their SCBA becomes dmaged or malfuncitons ? a. use the protective hood as filter b. deactivate the PASS device c. Remain calm and stay with their team d. run for the nearest exit as quickly as possible: c. Remain calm and stay with their team 257. Firefighters should practice reduced profile maneuvers with SCBA, but they must realize that this procedure a. should be used at every fire b. should be used as a last resort for an emergency escape c. does not require much practice to attain proficiency d. is best left to the chief officers: b. should be used as a last resort for an emergency escape 258. While inside the IDLH atmosphere, the technique of buddy breathing is a. considered unreliable by the NFPA and the NIOSH b. acceptable and should be implemented immediately c. required to be initiated by the rapid intervention crew d. unsafe unless performed by trained personnel: a. considered unreliable by the NFPA and the NIOSH 259. Which is true regarding the physical limits of wearing a SCBA a. physical and emotional stress has little effect on firefighters wearing SCBA's b. different firefighters consume air at the same rates based on physical activ- ities c. company officer should assign strenuous activites to the youngest FF to help older FF conserve air d. firefighters consume air at different rates based on their aerobic fitness: d. firefighters consume air at ditterent rates based on their aerobic fitness 260. What is one source of facts about a structure a. eyewitness accounts b. caller information c. a preincident plan d. Generalized assumption: c. a preincident plan 261. The three crucial fireground ops that must go hand in hand to keep the operation as safe as possible are a. fire attack, search and rescue, and ventilation b. command, operations, and planning c. overhaul, salvage, and ventilation d. direct, indirect, and combination attacks: a. fire attack, search and rescue, and ventilation 262. Once overhead doors have been forced they should be a. removed b. unlocked to prevent re-locking c. locked d. blocked open: d. blocked open 263. If you become trapped inside a burning building, which would be the best safe haven ? a. the basement b. clothes closet c. a linen closet d. a room with a door and a window: d. a room with a door and a window 264. In the term LUNAR, the L stands for a. location b. low on air c. lead firefighter is coming out d. ladder side A for firefighter coming out: a. location 265. LUNAR for mayday calls stands for: Location, Unit, Name, Assignment and Resources 266. In the term LUNAR the R stands for a. resources needed b. real low on air c. relay critical info d. respond now: a. resources needed 267. OSHA regulations require that when firefighters are inside a structure fire, at least trained and equipped firefighters must be standing outside. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6: c. 4 268. When entering a burning building to perform a primary search, the first priority is the ? a. search exposure b. bedrooms c. highest floor d. the most severely threatened section: d. the most severely threatened section 269. Which are characteristics of a primary search a. rapid and systematic b. slow and deliberate c. accomplished only with a charged hose line d. begun only after top-side ventilation is provided: a. rapid and systematic 270. Primary search crews should always carry a. extra SCBA b. a positive pressure device c. a portable radio d. utility rope for lifeline: c. a portable radio 271. The buddy system in search and rescue means ? a. all floors must be searched simultaneously b. it is done by teams of firefighters c. one firefighter should accomplish the task d. it is not recommended in large structures: b. it is done by teams of firefighters 272. In what condition is the victim when the exit assist is appropriate ? a. unresponsive and unable to walk b. unresponsive, but able to walk c. responsive, but unable to walk d. responsive and able to walk: d. responsive and able to walk 273. When is the secondary search performed ? a. after the fire is under control b. immediately upon completion of the primary search c. Only when the primary search discovered no victims d. Only when the primary search discovered victims.: a. after the fire is under control 274. When finding a victim during a search and rescue at a structure fire, you should a. contact EMS and have them meet you at the front door b. communicate to Operations that you found a victim c. notify Command immediately d. pass the victim off to the raped intervention crew: c. notify Command immediately 275. What type of drag provides a faster removal from a dangerous area than some other drags a. clothes drag b. blanket drag c. lower extremities drag d. webbing sling drag: d. webbing sling drag 276. In the extremity carry a. both firefighters face each other b. both firefighters fac