HESI PN PHARMACOLOGY| PN PHARM HESI V2 TEST
BANK EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ACCURATE
DETAILED ANSWERS VERIFIED ANSWERS
1) A client is being treated for hyperthyridism with propylthiouracil
(PTU). The LPN/LVN knows that the action of this drug is to:
A. decrease the amount of thyroid stimulating hormone circulating in
the blood.
B. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in
the blood.
C. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced
by the thyroid.
D. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.
D. PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by
inhibiting production of thyroid hormones. It is often prescribed in prep
for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy
2) A female client with RA takes ibuprofen (motrin) 600mg PO 4xday.
To preven GI bleeding, misoprostol (cytotec) 100mcg PO is
prescribed. Which information is most important for the nurse to
include in client teaching?
A. use contraception during intercourse
B. ensure the cytotec is taken on an empty stomach
C. encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation
D. take cytotec 30min prior to motrin
A. Use contraception during intercourse.
Cytotec, a synthetic form of prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy
category X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be
instructed to use contraception during intercourse to prevent loss of early
pregnancy
3) Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is an emergency drug most commonly
prescribed for a client with which condition?
A) Shock.
B) Asthma.
C) Hypotension.
,D) Heart failure
D. Heart Failure
Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that is indicated for short term
use in cardiac decompensation or heart failure (D) related to reduced
cardiac contractility due to organic heart disease or cardiac surgical
procedures. Alpha and beta adrenergic agonists, such as epinephrine and
dopamine, are sympathomimetics used in the treatment of shock (A).
Other selective beta-2 adrenergic agonists, such as terbutaline and
isoproterenol, are indicated in the treatment of asthma (B). Although
dobutamine improves cardiac output, it is not used to treat hypotension
(C).
4) Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking
while receiving an opioid analgesic?
A. Antacids.
B. Benzodiasepines
C. Antihypertensives
D. Oral antidiabetics
B. B. Benzodiasepines
Respiratory depression increases with the concurrent use of opioid
analgesics and other cns depressant agents, such as alcohol, barbiturates,
and benzodiasepines
5) Which client should the LPN/LVN identify as being at the highest
risk for complications during the use of an opioid analgesic?
A. an older client with type 2 diabetes
B. A client with chronic rheumatoid arthritis
C. A client with a open compound fracture
D. A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease
D. A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease
6) Which change in data indicates to the nurse the desired effect of the
angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan (Diovan) has been achieved
A. Dependent edema reduced form +3 to +1
B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55mg/dl
C. PUlse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/min
, D. Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130.80
D. D. Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130.80
angiotensin II receptor antagonist (blocker), prescribed from treatment of
HTN. The desired effect is a decrease in blood pressure.
7) A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone).
Which information is most important for the LPN/LVN to provide to the
client about diet modifications?
A) Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
C) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
D) Increase intake of milk and milk products.
B.
Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-
sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B),
including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia.
Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C)
or increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this
prescription.
8) The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy
for an 88-year-old client with arthritis. The client reports that she can't
hear the nurse's questions because her ears are ringing. What action
should the nurse implement?
A) Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing.
B) Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin
therapy.
C) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
D) Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam.
C. Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
Tinnitus is an early sign of salicylate toxicity. The healthcare provider
should be notified immediately (C), and the medication discontinued. (A
and D) are not needed, and (B) is inaccurate.
9) The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily
BANK EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ACCURATE
DETAILED ANSWERS VERIFIED ANSWERS
1) A client is being treated for hyperthyridism with propylthiouracil
(PTU). The LPN/LVN knows that the action of this drug is to:
A. decrease the amount of thyroid stimulating hormone circulating in
the blood.
B. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in
the blood.
C. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced
by the thyroid.
D. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.
D. PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by
inhibiting production of thyroid hormones. It is often prescribed in prep
for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy
2) A female client with RA takes ibuprofen (motrin) 600mg PO 4xday.
To preven GI bleeding, misoprostol (cytotec) 100mcg PO is
prescribed. Which information is most important for the nurse to
include in client teaching?
A. use contraception during intercourse
B. ensure the cytotec is taken on an empty stomach
C. encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation
D. take cytotec 30min prior to motrin
A. Use contraception during intercourse.
Cytotec, a synthetic form of prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy
category X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be
instructed to use contraception during intercourse to prevent loss of early
pregnancy
3) Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is an emergency drug most commonly
prescribed for a client with which condition?
A) Shock.
B) Asthma.
C) Hypotension.
,D) Heart failure
D. Heart Failure
Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that is indicated for short term
use in cardiac decompensation or heart failure (D) related to reduced
cardiac contractility due to organic heart disease or cardiac surgical
procedures. Alpha and beta adrenergic agonists, such as epinephrine and
dopamine, are sympathomimetics used in the treatment of shock (A).
Other selective beta-2 adrenergic agonists, such as terbutaline and
isoproterenol, are indicated in the treatment of asthma (B). Although
dobutamine improves cardiac output, it is not used to treat hypotension
(C).
4) Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking
while receiving an opioid analgesic?
A. Antacids.
B. Benzodiasepines
C. Antihypertensives
D. Oral antidiabetics
B. B. Benzodiasepines
Respiratory depression increases with the concurrent use of opioid
analgesics and other cns depressant agents, such as alcohol, barbiturates,
and benzodiasepines
5) Which client should the LPN/LVN identify as being at the highest
risk for complications during the use of an opioid analgesic?
A. an older client with type 2 diabetes
B. A client with chronic rheumatoid arthritis
C. A client with a open compound fracture
D. A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease
D. A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease
6) Which change in data indicates to the nurse the desired effect of the
angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan (Diovan) has been achieved
A. Dependent edema reduced form +3 to +1
B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55mg/dl
C. PUlse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/min
, D. Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130.80
D. D. Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130.80
angiotensin II receptor antagonist (blocker), prescribed from treatment of
HTN. The desired effect is a decrease in blood pressure.
7) A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone).
Which information is most important for the LPN/LVN to provide to the
client about diet modifications?
A) Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
C) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
D) Increase intake of milk and milk products.
B.
Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-
sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B),
including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia.
Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C)
or increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this
prescription.
8) The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy
for an 88-year-old client with arthritis. The client reports that she can't
hear the nurse's questions because her ears are ringing. What action
should the nurse implement?
A) Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing.
B) Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin
therapy.
C) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
D) Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam.
C. Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
Tinnitus is an early sign of salicylate toxicity. The healthcare provider
should be notified immediately (C), and the medication discontinued. (A
and D) are not needed, and (B) is inaccurate.
9) The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily
