Test Bank for Porth's Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States 11th Edition by
Tommie L. Norris - Chapter 1 to 52 - Complete Guide - Latest Edition 2024-2025
Test Generator Questions, Chapter 01: Concepts
1.
ofWhile attending
Health andan international
Diseasenursing conference, many discussions and
breakout sessions focused on the World Health Organization's (WHO) views on
health. Of the following comments made by nurses during a discussion session,
which statement(s) would be considered a good representation of the WHO
definition? Select all that apply.
A. Interests in keeping the older adult population engaged in such activities as book
reviews and word games during social time.
B. Increase in the number of chair aerobics classes provided in the skilled care
facilities.
C. Interventions geared toward keeping the older adult population diagnosed with
diabetes mellitus under tight blood glucose control by providing in-home cooking
classes.
D. Providing transportation for clients receiving renal dialysis to and from their
hemodialysis sessions.
E. Providing handwashing education to a group of young children.
Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: WHO definition of health is defined as “a state of complete physical,
mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity.”
Engaging in book reviews facilitates mental and social well-being; chair aerobics
helps facilitate physical well-being; and assisting with tight control of diabetes helps
with facilitating physical well-being even though the person has a chronic disease.
Handwashing is vital in the prevention of disease and spread of germs.
Question format: Multiple Select
,Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Reference: p. 3
2. A community health nurse is teaching a group of recent graduates about the
large variety of factors that influence an individual's health or lack thereof. The
nurse is referring to the Healthy People 2030 report from the U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services as a teaching example. Of the following aspects
discussed, which would be considered a determinant of health that is outside the
focus of this report?
A. The client has a diverse background by being of Asian and Native American
descent and practices various alternative therapies to minimize effects of stress.
B. The client has a family history of cardiovascular disease related to
hypercholesterolemia and remains noncompliant with their treatment regimen.
C. The client has a good career with exceptional preventive healthcare benefits.
D. The client lives in an affluent, clean, suburban community with access to many
healthcare facilities.
Answer: B
Rationale: In Healthy People 2030, the focus is to have healthcare and education
access and quality (such as using alternative therapies to minimize effects of
stress), economic stability (which includes having good healthcare benefits), and
social and community context (which includes living in a clean community with
good access to healthcare). Being noncompliant with treatments to control high
cholesterol levels with a family history to cardiovascular disease does not meet the
“neighborhood and built environment.”
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
,Reference: p. 3
3. A member of the healthcare team is researching the etiology and pathogenesis of
a number of clients who are under their care in a hospital context. Which client
situation best characterizes pathogenesis rather than etiology?
A. A client who has been exposed to the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacterium
B. A client who is having increasing serum ammonia levels due to liver cirrhosis
C. A client who was admitted with the effects of methyl alcohol poisoning
D. A client with multiple skeletal injuries secondary to a motor vehicle accident
Answer: B
Rationale: Pathogenesis refers to the progressive and evolutionary course of
disease, such as the increasing ammonia levels that accompany liver disease.
Bacteria, poisons, and traumatic injuries are examples of etiologic factors.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 3-5
4. A client newly diagnosed with myocardial infarction requires angioplasty and
stent placement. The client has arrived to their first cardiac rehabilitation
appointment. In this first session, a review of the pathogenesis of coronary artery
disease is addressed. Which statement by the client verifies to the nurse that they
have understood the nurse's teachings about coronary artery disease?
A. “All I have to do is stop smoking and then I will not have any more heart
attacks.”
B. “My artery was clogged by fat so I will need to stop eating fatty foods like French
fries every day.”
C. “Sounds like this began because of inflammation inside my artery that made it
easy to form fatty streaks, which led to my clogged artery.”
,D. “ If I do not exercise regularly to get my heart rate up, blood pools in the veins
causing a clot, which stops blood flow to the muscle and I can have a heart attack.”
Answer: C
Rationale: The true etiology/cause of coronary artery disease (CAD) is unknown;
however, the pathogenesis of the disorder relates to the progression of the
inflammatory process from a fatty streak to the occlusive vessel lesion seen in
clients with CAD. Risk factors for CAD include cigarette smoking, diet high in fat,
and lack of exercise.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 4-5
5. A 77-year-old man is a hospital inpatient admitted for exacerbation of chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and a respiratory therapist (RT) is
assessing the client for the first time. Which aspect of the client's current state of
health is best characterized as a symptom rather than a sign?
A. The client’s oxygen saturation is 83% by pulse oximetry.
B. The client notes that they have increased work of breathing when lying supine.
C. The RT hears diminished breath sounds to the client’s lower lung fields
bilaterally.
D. The client’s respiratory rate is 31 breaths per minute.
Answer: B
Rationale: Symptoms are subjective reports by the client experiencing the health
problem, such as a report of breathing difficulty. Oxygen levels, listening to breath
sounds, and respiratory rate are all objective, observable signs of disease.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
,Cognitive Level: Understand
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 5
6. Which situation(s) are classified as a complication of a disease or outcome from
the treatment regimen? Select all that apply.
A. Massive pulmonary emboli following diagnosis of new-onset atrial fibrillation.
B. Burning, intense incision pain following surgery to remove a portion of colon due
to intestinal aganglionosis.
C. Development of pulmonary fibrosis following treatment with bleomycin, an
antibiotic chemotherapy agent used in treatment of lymphoma.
D. Gradual deterioration in ability to walk unassisted for a client diagnosed with
Parkinson disease.
E. Loss of short-term memory in a client diagnosed with Alzheimer disease.
Answer: A, C
Rationale: Development of pulmonary emboli and pulmonary fibrosis following
chemotherapy are both examples of a complication (adverse extensions of a
disease or outcome from treatment). It is normal to expect incisional pain following
surgery. As Parkinson disease progresses, gradual loss of the ability to walk
independently is expected. This is a normal progression for people diagnosed with
Parkinson disease. Loss of short-term memory in a client diagnosed with Alzheimer
disease is an expected finding.
Question format: Multiple Select
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 10
,7. Laboratory testing is ordered for a male client during a clinic visit for routine
follow-up assessment of hypertension. When interpreting laboratory values, the
nurse knows:
A. a normal value represents the test results that fall within the bell curve.
B. if the result is above the 50% distribution, the result is considered elevated.
C. all laboratory values are adjusted for gender and weight.
D. if the result of a very sensitive test is negative, that does not mean the client is
free of disease.
Answer: A
Rationale: What is termed a normal value for a laboratory test is established
statistically from results obtained from a selected sample of people. A normal value
represents the test results that fall within the bell curve or the 95% distribution.
Some laboratory values (like hemoglobin) are adjusted for gender, other
comorbidities, or age. If the result of a very sensitive test is negative, it tells us the
person does not have the disease and the disease has been ruled out or excluded.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Understand
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 5-6
8. The laboratory technologists are discussing a new blood test that helps establish
a differential diagnosis between shortness of breath with a cardiac etiology and
shortness of breath with a respiratory/pulmonary etiology. A positive result is
purported to indicate a cardiac etiology. The marketers of the test report that
99.8% of clients who have confirmed cardiac etiologies test positive in the test.
However, 1.3% of clients who do not have cardiac etiologies for their shortness of
breath also test positive. Which statement best characterizes this blood test?
A. Low validity; high reliability
B. High sensitivity; low specificity
,C. High specificity; low reliability
D. High sensitivity; low reliability
Answer: B
Rationale: A large number of clients would receive the correct positive diagnosis
(high sensitivity), while a significant number would receive a false-positive
diagnosis (low specificity). The information given does not indicate low reliability or
low validity.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Understand
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 5-6
9. As part of a screening program for prostate cancer, men at a senior citizen's
center are having their blood levels of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) measured.
Which statement best characterizes high positive predictive value but low negative
predictive value for this screening test?
A. All of the men who had high PSA levels developed prostate cancer; several men
who had low PSA levels also developed prostate cancer.
B. All of the men who had low PSA levels were cancer-free; several men who had
high levels also remained free of prostate cancer.
C. Men who had low PSA levels also displayed false-positive results for prostate
cancer; men with high levels were often falsely diagnosed with prostate cancer.
D. The test displayed low sensitivity but high specificity.
Answer: A
Rationale: The test’s inability to rule out cancer with a low prostate-specific antigen
(PSA) level indicates low negative predictive value. Answer B suggests high
,negative predictive value, while answer C indicates low positive predictive value.
High positive predictive value is associated with high sensitivity.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Analyze
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Reference: p. 6
10. An international business traveler has returned from a trip to Indonesia. While
being there, the traveler hired a prostitute for companionship and engaged in
unprotected sex on more than one occasion. Unbeknownst to the traveler, this
prostitute harbored the hepatitis C virus. Upon return to the United States, the
traveler exhibited no symptoms and returned to usual activities. During this period
of no outward symptoms, the disease would be classified as being in:
A. the preclinical stage of disease.
B. remission and unlikely to develop hepatitis C.
C. the clinical disease stage of hepatitis C.
D. the chronic phase of hepatitis C.
Answer: A
Rationale: During the preclinical stage, the disease is not clinically evident but is
destined to progress to clinical disease.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Understand
Client Needs: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation
Reference: p. 6-7
11. As of Nov. 1, there were a total of 10 confirmed cases of hantavirus infection in
people who were recent visitors (mid-June to end of August, same year) to
Yosemite National Park. Three visitors with confirmed cases died. Health officials
,believe that 9 out of the 10 cases of hantavirus were exposed while staying in Curry
Village in the Signature Tent Cabins. This is an example of:
A. What the anticipated mortality rate would be if a family of five were planning to
vacation in Yosemite National Park.
B. The prevalence of hantavirus one can anticipate if they are going to vacation in
Yosemite National Park.
C. The low rate of morbidity one can expect while traveling to Yosemite National
Park.
D. The incidence of people who are at risk for developing hantavirus while staying
in Yosemite National Park.
Answer: D
Rationale: The incidence reflects the number of new cases arising in a population at
risk during a specified time.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
Reference: p. 8
12. A particular disease has a debilitating effect on the ability of sufferers to
perform their activities of daily living and is a significant cause of decreased quality
of life. However, few people die as a result of the disease's direct effects. There are
hundreds of thousands of people living with the disease but relatively few new
cases in recent years. Which statement best conveys an accurate epidemiologic
characterization of the disease?
A. Low mortality; high morbidity; low prevalence; high incidence
B. Low mortality; high morbidity; high incidence; low prevalence
C. High mortality; low morbidity; high incidence; low prevalence
D. High morbidity; low mortality; high prevalence; low incidence
Answer: D
, Rationale: Morbidity is associated with quality of life, whereas mortality is indicative
of causation of death. In this case, morbidity is high and mortality low. Prevalence
refers to the number of cases present in a population, whereas incidence refers to
the number of new cases. In this case, prevalence is high and incidence is low.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Analyze
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 8
13. An epidemiologist is conducting a program of research aimed at identifying
factors associated with incidence and prevalence of congenital cardiac defects in
infants. The researcher has recruited a large number of birthing parents whose
infants were born with cardiac defects as well as birthing parents whose infants
were born with healthy hearts. The researcher is comparing the nutritional habits of
all the birthing parents while their infants were in utero. Which type of study is the
epidemiologist most likely conducting?
A. Cohort study
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Case-control study
D. Risk factor study
Answer: C
Rationale: In this study, the birthing parents with infants with cardiac defects would
be the case group, and the birthing parent of infants with health hearts would serve
as a control. This study does not possess the characteristics of a cohort or cross-
sectional study, and risk factor study is not an existing methodology.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Understand
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Tommie L. Norris - Chapter 1 to 52 - Complete Guide - Latest Edition 2024-2025
Test Generator Questions, Chapter 01: Concepts
1.
ofWhile attending
Health andan international
Diseasenursing conference, many discussions and
breakout sessions focused on the World Health Organization's (WHO) views on
health. Of the following comments made by nurses during a discussion session,
which statement(s) would be considered a good representation of the WHO
definition? Select all that apply.
A. Interests in keeping the older adult population engaged in such activities as book
reviews and word games during social time.
B. Increase in the number of chair aerobics classes provided in the skilled care
facilities.
C. Interventions geared toward keeping the older adult population diagnosed with
diabetes mellitus under tight blood glucose control by providing in-home cooking
classes.
D. Providing transportation for clients receiving renal dialysis to and from their
hemodialysis sessions.
E. Providing handwashing education to a group of young children.
Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: WHO definition of health is defined as “a state of complete physical,
mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity.”
Engaging in book reviews facilitates mental and social well-being; chair aerobics
helps facilitate physical well-being; and assisting with tight control of diabetes helps
with facilitating physical well-being even though the person has a chronic disease.
Handwashing is vital in the prevention of disease and spread of germs.
Question format: Multiple Select
,Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Reference: p. 3
2. A community health nurse is teaching a group of recent graduates about the
large variety of factors that influence an individual's health or lack thereof. The
nurse is referring to the Healthy People 2030 report from the U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services as a teaching example. Of the following aspects
discussed, which would be considered a determinant of health that is outside the
focus of this report?
A. The client has a diverse background by being of Asian and Native American
descent and practices various alternative therapies to minimize effects of stress.
B. The client has a family history of cardiovascular disease related to
hypercholesterolemia and remains noncompliant with their treatment regimen.
C. The client has a good career with exceptional preventive healthcare benefits.
D. The client lives in an affluent, clean, suburban community with access to many
healthcare facilities.
Answer: B
Rationale: In Healthy People 2030, the focus is to have healthcare and education
access and quality (such as using alternative therapies to minimize effects of
stress), economic stability (which includes having good healthcare benefits), and
social and community context (which includes living in a clean community with
good access to healthcare). Being noncompliant with treatments to control high
cholesterol levels with a family history to cardiovascular disease does not meet the
“neighborhood and built environment.”
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
,Reference: p. 3
3. A member of the healthcare team is researching the etiology and pathogenesis of
a number of clients who are under their care in a hospital context. Which client
situation best characterizes pathogenesis rather than etiology?
A. A client who has been exposed to the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacterium
B. A client who is having increasing serum ammonia levels due to liver cirrhosis
C. A client who was admitted with the effects of methyl alcohol poisoning
D. A client with multiple skeletal injuries secondary to a motor vehicle accident
Answer: B
Rationale: Pathogenesis refers to the progressive and evolutionary course of
disease, such as the increasing ammonia levels that accompany liver disease.
Bacteria, poisons, and traumatic injuries are examples of etiologic factors.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 3-5
4. A client newly diagnosed with myocardial infarction requires angioplasty and
stent placement. The client has arrived to their first cardiac rehabilitation
appointment. In this first session, a review of the pathogenesis of coronary artery
disease is addressed. Which statement by the client verifies to the nurse that they
have understood the nurse's teachings about coronary artery disease?
A. “All I have to do is stop smoking and then I will not have any more heart
attacks.”
B. “My artery was clogged by fat so I will need to stop eating fatty foods like French
fries every day.”
C. “Sounds like this began because of inflammation inside my artery that made it
easy to form fatty streaks, which led to my clogged artery.”
,D. “ If I do not exercise regularly to get my heart rate up, blood pools in the veins
causing a clot, which stops blood flow to the muscle and I can have a heart attack.”
Answer: C
Rationale: The true etiology/cause of coronary artery disease (CAD) is unknown;
however, the pathogenesis of the disorder relates to the progression of the
inflammatory process from a fatty streak to the occlusive vessel lesion seen in
clients with CAD. Risk factors for CAD include cigarette smoking, diet high in fat,
and lack of exercise.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 4-5
5. A 77-year-old man is a hospital inpatient admitted for exacerbation of chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and a respiratory therapist (RT) is
assessing the client for the first time. Which aspect of the client's current state of
health is best characterized as a symptom rather than a sign?
A. The client’s oxygen saturation is 83% by pulse oximetry.
B. The client notes that they have increased work of breathing when lying supine.
C. The RT hears diminished breath sounds to the client’s lower lung fields
bilaterally.
D. The client’s respiratory rate is 31 breaths per minute.
Answer: B
Rationale: Symptoms are subjective reports by the client experiencing the health
problem, such as a report of breathing difficulty. Oxygen levels, listening to breath
sounds, and respiratory rate are all objective, observable signs of disease.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
,Cognitive Level: Understand
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 5
6. Which situation(s) are classified as a complication of a disease or outcome from
the treatment regimen? Select all that apply.
A. Massive pulmonary emboli following diagnosis of new-onset atrial fibrillation.
B. Burning, intense incision pain following surgery to remove a portion of colon due
to intestinal aganglionosis.
C. Development of pulmonary fibrosis following treatment with bleomycin, an
antibiotic chemotherapy agent used in treatment of lymphoma.
D. Gradual deterioration in ability to walk unassisted for a client diagnosed with
Parkinson disease.
E. Loss of short-term memory in a client diagnosed with Alzheimer disease.
Answer: A, C
Rationale: Development of pulmonary emboli and pulmonary fibrosis following
chemotherapy are both examples of a complication (adverse extensions of a
disease or outcome from treatment). It is normal to expect incisional pain following
surgery. As Parkinson disease progresses, gradual loss of the ability to walk
independently is expected. This is a normal progression for people diagnosed with
Parkinson disease. Loss of short-term memory in a client diagnosed with Alzheimer
disease is an expected finding.
Question format: Multiple Select
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 10
,7. Laboratory testing is ordered for a male client during a clinic visit for routine
follow-up assessment of hypertension. When interpreting laboratory values, the
nurse knows:
A. a normal value represents the test results that fall within the bell curve.
B. if the result is above the 50% distribution, the result is considered elevated.
C. all laboratory values are adjusted for gender and weight.
D. if the result of a very sensitive test is negative, that does not mean the client is
free of disease.
Answer: A
Rationale: What is termed a normal value for a laboratory test is established
statistically from results obtained from a selected sample of people. A normal value
represents the test results that fall within the bell curve or the 95% distribution.
Some laboratory values (like hemoglobin) are adjusted for gender, other
comorbidities, or age. If the result of a very sensitive test is negative, it tells us the
person does not have the disease and the disease has been ruled out or excluded.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Understand
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 5-6
8. The laboratory technologists are discussing a new blood test that helps establish
a differential diagnosis between shortness of breath with a cardiac etiology and
shortness of breath with a respiratory/pulmonary etiology. A positive result is
purported to indicate a cardiac etiology. The marketers of the test report that
99.8% of clients who have confirmed cardiac etiologies test positive in the test.
However, 1.3% of clients who do not have cardiac etiologies for their shortness of
breath also test positive. Which statement best characterizes this blood test?
A. Low validity; high reliability
B. High sensitivity; low specificity
,C. High specificity; low reliability
D. High sensitivity; low reliability
Answer: B
Rationale: A large number of clients would receive the correct positive diagnosis
(high sensitivity), while a significant number would receive a false-positive
diagnosis (low specificity). The information given does not indicate low reliability or
low validity.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Understand
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 5-6
9. As part of a screening program for prostate cancer, men at a senior citizen's
center are having their blood levels of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) measured.
Which statement best characterizes high positive predictive value but low negative
predictive value for this screening test?
A. All of the men who had high PSA levels developed prostate cancer; several men
who had low PSA levels also developed prostate cancer.
B. All of the men who had low PSA levels were cancer-free; several men who had
high levels also remained free of prostate cancer.
C. Men who had low PSA levels also displayed false-positive results for prostate
cancer; men with high levels were often falsely diagnosed with prostate cancer.
D. The test displayed low sensitivity but high specificity.
Answer: A
Rationale: The test’s inability to rule out cancer with a low prostate-specific antigen
(PSA) level indicates low negative predictive value. Answer B suggests high
,negative predictive value, while answer C indicates low positive predictive value.
High positive predictive value is associated with high sensitivity.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Analyze
Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Reference: p. 6
10. An international business traveler has returned from a trip to Indonesia. While
being there, the traveler hired a prostitute for companionship and engaged in
unprotected sex on more than one occasion. Unbeknownst to the traveler, this
prostitute harbored the hepatitis C virus. Upon return to the United States, the
traveler exhibited no symptoms and returned to usual activities. During this period
of no outward symptoms, the disease would be classified as being in:
A. the preclinical stage of disease.
B. remission and unlikely to develop hepatitis C.
C. the clinical disease stage of hepatitis C.
D. the chronic phase of hepatitis C.
Answer: A
Rationale: During the preclinical stage, the disease is not clinically evident but is
destined to progress to clinical disease.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Understand
Client Needs: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation
Reference: p. 6-7
11. As of Nov. 1, there were a total of 10 confirmed cases of hantavirus infection in
people who were recent visitors (mid-June to end of August, same year) to
Yosemite National Park. Three visitors with confirmed cases died. Health officials
,believe that 9 out of the 10 cases of hantavirus were exposed while staying in Curry
Village in the Signature Tent Cabins. This is an example of:
A. What the anticipated mortality rate would be if a family of five were planning to
vacation in Yosemite National Park.
B. The prevalence of hantavirus one can anticipate if they are going to vacation in
Yosemite National Park.
C. The low rate of morbidity one can expect while traveling to Yosemite National
Park.
D. The incidence of people who are at risk for developing hantavirus while staying
in Yosemite National Park.
Answer: D
Rationale: The incidence reflects the number of new cases arising in a population at
risk during a specified time.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Apply
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
Reference: p. 8
12. A particular disease has a debilitating effect on the ability of sufferers to
perform their activities of daily living and is a significant cause of decreased quality
of life. However, few people die as a result of the disease's direct effects. There are
hundreds of thousands of people living with the disease but relatively few new
cases in recent years. Which statement best conveys an accurate epidemiologic
characterization of the disease?
A. Low mortality; high morbidity; low prevalence; high incidence
B. Low mortality; high morbidity; high incidence; low prevalence
C. High mortality; low morbidity; high incidence; low prevalence
D. High morbidity; low mortality; high prevalence; low incidence
Answer: D
, Rationale: Morbidity is associated with quality of life, whereas mortality is indicative
of causation of death. In this case, morbidity is high and mortality low. Prevalence
refers to the number of cases present in a population, whereas incidence refers to
the number of new cases. In this case, prevalence is high and incidence is low.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Analyze
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Reference: p. 8
13. An epidemiologist is conducting a program of research aimed at identifying
factors associated with incidence and prevalence of congenital cardiac defects in
infants. The researcher has recruited a large number of birthing parents whose
infants were born with cardiac defects as well as birthing parents whose infants
were born with healthy hearts. The researcher is comparing the nutritional habits of
all the birthing parents while their infants were in utero. Which type of study is the
epidemiologist most likely conducting?
A. Cohort study
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Case-control study
D. Risk factor study
Answer: C
Rationale: In this study, the birthing parents with infants with cardiac defects would
be the case group, and the birthing parent of infants with health hearts would serve
as a control. This study does not possess the characteristics of a cohort or cross-
sectional study, and risk factor study is not an existing methodology.
Question format: Multiple Choice
Chapter 1: Concepts of Health and Disease
Cognitive Level: Understand
Client Needs: Safe, Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
