WGU D115 Objective Assessment Final Exam Newest Actual Exam Preparation
With Complete 300 Questions And Correct Answers With Rationales | Already
Graded A+||Brand New Version!!
Question 1
A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic untreated hypertension presents to the clinic. An
echocardiogram reveals significant thickening of the left ventricular wall. Which cellular
adaptation is primarily responsible for this finding?
A) Atrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Metaplasia
E) Dysplasia
Correct Answer: C) Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is defined as an increase in the size of individual cells, which leads
to an increase in the size of the affected organ. In the case of the heart, myocardial cells are
permanent cells and cannot undergo mitosis to increase in number (hyperplasia).
Therefore, when faced with an increased workload (afterload) due to systemic
hypertension, the cardiac myocytes synthesize more proteins and filaments to increase their
contractile force, resulting in a thickened ventricular wall. This is a compensatory
mechanism that can eventually lead to heart failure if the workload is not reduced.
Question 2
During an ischemic event, such as a myocardial infarction, the lack of oxygen leads to a decrease
in mitochondrial ATP production. Which of the following is the most immediate consequence of
this ATP depletion at the cellular level?
A) Activation of the complement system
B) Failure of the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+) pump
C) Increased protein synthesis in the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Decrease in intracellular osmotic pressure
E) Immediate rupture of the nuclear membrane
Correct Answer: B) Failure of the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+) pump
Rationale: The Na+/K+ ATPase pump requires ATP to maintain the concentration gradients
, 2
of sodium outside the cell and potassium inside the cell. When ATP levels fall due to
hypoxia, the pump fails, allowing sodium to accumulate inside the cell and potassium to
leak out. Because "water follows salt," the high intracellular sodium concentration creates
an osmotic gradient that pulls water into the cell, leading to acute cellular swelling
(oncosis). This is one of the earliest reversible signs of cell injury.
Question 3
A patient presents with a chronic cough and is found to have a history of smoking two packs of
cigarettes a day for 30 years. A bronchial biopsy reveals that the normal ciliated columnar
epithelium has been replaced by stratified squamous epithelium. This is an example of:
A) Dysplasia
B) Anaplasia
C) Neoplasia
D) Metaplasia
E) Hyperplasia
Correct Answer: D) Metaplasia
Rationale: Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by
another adult cell type. This is often an adaptive response to chronic irritation. In the
airways of smokers, the fragile ciliated columnar cells are replaced by tougher stratified
squamous cells to withstand the irritation of smoke. However, while the new cells are more
durable, the loss of cilia and mucus secretion impairs the "mucociliary escalator,"
increasing the risk of respiratory infections. Metaplasia can also be a precursor to
cancerous changes if the irritant persists.
Question 4
Which type of cellular death is characterized by the regulated activation of "death genes" and the
subsequent shrinkage of the cell without an inflammatory response?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
, 3
D) Apoptosis
E) Autolysis
Correct Answer: D) Apoptosis
Rationale: Apoptosis is programmed cell death or "cellular suicide." It is a highly regulated,
energy-dependent process used to remove unwanted, damaged, or aged cells. Unlike
necrosis, which involves cell swelling, membrane rupture, and the release of intracellular
contents that trigger inflammation, apoptosis involves cell shrinkage and the formation of
apoptotic bodies that are quietly removed by phagocytes. This process is essential for
normal embryonic development and for maintaining homeostasis in adult tissues.
Question 5
A 4-year-old child is diagnosed with Cystic Fibrosis. The healthcare provider explains to the
parents that this condition is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene and follows an autosomal
recessive inheritance pattern. If both parents are asymptomatic carriers, what is the probability
that their next child will have the disease?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
/E) 100%
Correct Answer: B) 25%
Rationale: In an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, an individual must inherit two
copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to express the disease. If both parents
are carriers (heterozygous, Aa), the Punnett square yields: 25% unaffected non-carriers
(AA), 50% asymptomatic carriers (Aa), and 25% affected individuals (aa). This probability
remains the same for every single pregnancy, regardless of the health status of previous
children.
Question 6
Which of the following genetic disorders is characterized by a karyotype of 45,X and results in
clinical features such as short stature, webbing of the neck, and lack of secondary sexual
, 4
characteristics?
A) Klinefelter Syndrome
B) Down Syndrome
C) Turner Syndrome
D) Cri-du-chat Syndrome
E) Fragile X Syndrome
Correct Answer: C) Turner Syndrome
Rationale: Turner Syndrome occurs when a female is missing all or part of one X
chromosome (monosomy X). This results in a total of 45 chromosomes. The absence of the
second X chromosome leads to gonadal dysgenesis (non-functional ovaries) and various
physical abnormalities. Klinefelter Syndrome (Option A) is 47,XXY (males with an extra
X), and Down Syndrome (Option B) is Trisomy 21 (an extra 21st chromosome). Turner
Syndrome is unique in that it is the only monosomy compatible with life, though many
cases result in miscarriage.
Question 7
A patient is admitted with severe dehydration and a laboratory report shows a serum sodium
level of 158 mEq/L (Normal: 135–145). Which of the following physiological responses would
you expect the body to initiate to correct this hypernatremia?
A) Inhibition of the thirst center
B) Release of Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
C) Secretion of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
D) Increased excretion of water by the kidneys
E) Decreased secretion of aldosterone
Correct Answer: C) Secretion of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Rationale: Hypernatremia (high sodium) increases serum osmolality. This is sensed by
osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus, which triggers the posterior pituitary to release ADH
(vasopressin). ADH acts on the collecting ducts of the kidneys to increase water
reabsorption back into the blood. This conserves water, dilutes the serum sodium, and
With Complete 300 Questions And Correct Answers With Rationales | Already
Graded A+||Brand New Version!!
Question 1
A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic untreated hypertension presents to the clinic. An
echocardiogram reveals significant thickening of the left ventricular wall. Which cellular
adaptation is primarily responsible for this finding?
A) Atrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Metaplasia
E) Dysplasia
Correct Answer: C) Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is defined as an increase in the size of individual cells, which leads
to an increase in the size of the affected organ. In the case of the heart, myocardial cells are
permanent cells and cannot undergo mitosis to increase in number (hyperplasia).
Therefore, when faced with an increased workload (afterload) due to systemic
hypertension, the cardiac myocytes synthesize more proteins and filaments to increase their
contractile force, resulting in a thickened ventricular wall. This is a compensatory
mechanism that can eventually lead to heart failure if the workload is not reduced.
Question 2
During an ischemic event, such as a myocardial infarction, the lack of oxygen leads to a decrease
in mitochondrial ATP production. Which of the following is the most immediate consequence of
this ATP depletion at the cellular level?
A) Activation of the complement system
B) Failure of the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+) pump
C) Increased protein synthesis in the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Decrease in intracellular osmotic pressure
E) Immediate rupture of the nuclear membrane
Correct Answer: B) Failure of the sodium-potassium (Na+/K+) pump
Rationale: The Na+/K+ ATPase pump requires ATP to maintain the concentration gradients
, 2
of sodium outside the cell and potassium inside the cell. When ATP levels fall due to
hypoxia, the pump fails, allowing sodium to accumulate inside the cell and potassium to
leak out. Because "water follows salt," the high intracellular sodium concentration creates
an osmotic gradient that pulls water into the cell, leading to acute cellular swelling
(oncosis). This is one of the earliest reversible signs of cell injury.
Question 3
A patient presents with a chronic cough and is found to have a history of smoking two packs of
cigarettes a day for 30 years. A bronchial biopsy reveals that the normal ciliated columnar
epithelium has been replaced by stratified squamous epithelium. This is an example of:
A) Dysplasia
B) Anaplasia
C) Neoplasia
D) Metaplasia
E) Hyperplasia
Correct Answer: D) Metaplasia
Rationale: Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one adult cell type is replaced by
another adult cell type. This is often an adaptive response to chronic irritation. In the
airways of smokers, the fragile ciliated columnar cells are replaced by tougher stratified
squamous cells to withstand the irritation of smoke. However, while the new cells are more
durable, the loss of cilia and mucus secretion impairs the "mucociliary escalator,"
increasing the risk of respiratory infections. Metaplasia can also be a precursor to
cancerous changes if the irritant persists.
Question 4
Which type of cellular death is characterized by the regulated activation of "death genes" and the
subsequent shrinkage of the cell without an inflammatory response?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis
, 3
D) Apoptosis
E) Autolysis
Correct Answer: D) Apoptosis
Rationale: Apoptosis is programmed cell death or "cellular suicide." It is a highly regulated,
energy-dependent process used to remove unwanted, damaged, or aged cells. Unlike
necrosis, which involves cell swelling, membrane rupture, and the release of intracellular
contents that trigger inflammation, apoptosis involves cell shrinkage and the formation of
apoptotic bodies that are quietly removed by phagocytes. This process is essential for
normal embryonic development and for maintaining homeostasis in adult tissues.
Question 5
A 4-year-old child is diagnosed with Cystic Fibrosis. The healthcare provider explains to the
parents that this condition is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene and follows an autosomal
recessive inheritance pattern. If both parents are asymptomatic carriers, what is the probability
that their next child will have the disease?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
/E) 100%
Correct Answer: B) 25%
Rationale: In an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, an individual must inherit two
copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to express the disease. If both parents
are carriers (heterozygous, Aa), the Punnett square yields: 25% unaffected non-carriers
(AA), 50% asymptomatic carriers (Aa), and 25% affected individuals (aa). This probability
remains the same for every single pregnancy, regardless of the health status of previous
children.
Question 6
Which of the following genetic disorders is characterized by a karyotype of 45,X and results in
clinical features such as short stature, webbing of the neck, and lack of secondary sexual
, 4
characteristics?
A) Klinefelter Syndrome
B) Down Syndrome
C) Turner Syndrome
D) Cri-du-chat Syndrome
E) Fragile X Syndrome
Correct Answer: C) Turner Syndrome
Rationale: Turner Syndrome occurs when a female is missing all or part of one X
chromosome (monosomy X). This results in a total of 45 chromosomes. The absence of the
second X chromosome leads to gonadal dysgenesis (non-functional ovaries) and various
physical abnormalities. Klinefelter Syndrome (Option A) is 47,XXY (males with an extra
X), and Down Syndrome (Option B) is Trisomy 21 (an extra 21st chromosome). Turner
Syndrome is unique in that it is the only monosomy compatible with life, though many
cases result in miscarriage.
Question 7
A patient is admitted with severe dehydration and a laboratory report shows a serum sodium
level of 158 mEq/L (Normal: 135–145). Which of the following physiological responses would
you expect the body to initiate to correct this hypernatremia?
A) Inhibition of the thirst center
B) Release of Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
C) Secretion of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
D) Increased excretion of water by the kidneys
E) Decreased secretion of aldosterone
Correct Answer: C) Secretion of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Rationale: Hypernatremia (high sodium) increases serum osmolality. This is sensed by
osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus, which triggers the posterior pituitary to release ADH
(vasopressin). ADH acts on the collecting ducts of the kidneys to increase water
reabsorption back into the blood. This conserves water, dilutes the serum sodium, and
