Page 1 of 144
“GERONTOLOGY HESI “ NEWEST UPDATED EXAM 2025 – 2026 SOLVED QUESTIONS
& ANSWERS VERIFIED 100% GRADED A+ (LATEST VERSION) WELL REVISED AND
HIGHLY RECOMMENDALE 100% GUARANTEE PASS
GERONTOLOGY HESI
You determine your patient is suffering from hyperinsulinemia. He asks what
that means. What do you tell him?
Too much insulin in the blood.
High blood pressure.
Too much thyroid hormone.
Too much sugar in the blood.
Too much insulin in the blood.
An important part of being a GNP is not just assessing, diagnosing, and treating
patients. GNPs must be knowledgeable of medical terminology and be eloquent in
defining said terminology for patients.
What is the first-line drug intervention in an anaphylatic episode?
oral prednisone therapy
parental epinephrine
inhaled epinephrine
oral diphenhydramine
parental epinephrine
Parental epinephrine and diphenhydramine are priority medication interventions in
anaphylaxis. Oral prednisone is often given once the patient is stable to decrease
the inflammatory response. Inhaled epinephrine is not the standard of care. Oral
diphenhydramine may be used after stabilization for symptom relief purposes.
, Page 2 of 144
You perform a rectal examination on a 73-year old man and find an
abnormality of his prostate gland. You suspect prostate cancer due to these
findings. The findings are described as:
a rubber, enlarged prostatic lobe
a boggy gland
profound tenderness
an area of prostatic induration
an area of prostatic induration
Choice D is the right answer. Prostate cancer is the most commonnon cutaneous
cancer in men n the United States. Most are asymptomatic until the disease is
advanced. An area of induration on the gland would alert the GNP of possible
prostate cancer, which cannot be confirmed without biopsy.
You are treating a 68-year-old African-American female who has multiple risk
factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following is NOT one of these risk
factors?
her age
her excessive alcohol intake
her smoking
her race
her race
All of the choices are risk factors except her race. African-American race is not a risk
factor. Caucasian and Asian race ARE risk factors.
A 65-year-old Caucasian female is in the office with rosacea. She is asking
about treatment options. You have discussed nonpharmacologic care. What is
the recommended treatment for her?
topical 5-fluorouracil
low-dose tetracycline
oral ketoconazole
oral hydrocortisone
, Page 3 of 144
low-dose tetracycline
Treatment with systemic low-dose tetracycline is a very effective measure for
rosacea; topical treatment with metronidazole or a low-dose steroid cream may also
be helpful. Topical 5-fluorouracil is used to treat actinic keratosis.
When treating a patient who has an extremely high P.T. level from coumadin
(warfarin) usage, the GNP understands that which of the following is the
antidote?
Vitamin K
Vitamin C
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
The antidote for coumadin (warfarin) toxicity is Vitamin K. It is often given in injection
form with extremely elevated P.T. levels. Dietary sources of Vitamin K include green
leafy vegetables.
An 82 year old female patient who is on long-term anti-inflammatory
medication is at risk for which of the following conditions?
Gastrointestinal bleeding.
Dehydration.
Stroke.
Depression.
Gastrointestinal bleeding.
Elderly patients who are on long-term anti-inflammatories are at increased risk for GI
bleeding and anemia. They should be monitored regularly for these conditions.
You prescribe a medication for your elderly patient and note it should be taken
a.c. What does this mean?
Twice a day.
At bedtime.
, Page 4 of 144
When needed.
Before meals.
Before meals.
p.r.n. - When needed a.c. - Before meals b.i.d. - Twice a day h.s. - At bedtime
One of the theories of development is Piaget's (1969) Cognitive Development
Theory. This theory focuses on intellectual changes and the way they relate to
the environment. Which of the following is NOT a stage of this continuous
interaction sequential manner?
Abstract Operations
Concrete Operations
Preoperational Thinking
Formal Operations
Abstract Operations
The stages are listed in this order:
1-Sensorimotor (infancy)
2-Preoperational Thinking
3-Concrete Operations
4-Formal Operations
There is no Abstract Operations stage in this theory model.
As a GNP you understand that older adults have bone loss. At what age does
this bone loss start?
40
50
60
70
40
Bone loss begins at about age 40. Bone loss is more common in women than in men
and so osteoporosis occurs more often in women.
“GERONTOLOGY HESI “ NEWEST UPDATED EXAM 2025 – 2026 SOLVED QUESTIONS
& ANSWERS VERIFIED 100% GRADED A+ (LATEST VERSION) WELL REVISED AND
HIGHLY RECOMMENDALE 100% GUARANTEE PASS
GERONTOLOGY HESI
You determine your patient is suffering from hyperinsulinemia. He asks what
that means. What do you tell him?
Too much insulin in the blood.
High blood pressure.
Too much thyroid hormone.
Too much sugar in the blood.
Too much insulin in the blood.
An important part of being a GNP is not just assessing, diagnosing, and treating
patients. GNPs must be knowledgeable of medical terminology and be eloquent in
defining said terminology for patients.
What is the first-line drug intervention in an anaphylatic episode?
oral prednisone therapy
parental epinephrine
inhaled epinephrine
oral diphenhydramine
parental epinephrine
Parental epinephrine and diphenhydramine are priority medication interventions in
anaphylaxis. Oral prednisone is often given once the patient is stable to decrease
the inflammatory response. Inhaled epinephrine is not the standard of care. Oral
diphenhydramine may be used after stabilization for symptom relief purposes.
, Page 2 of 144
You perform a rectal examination on a 73-year old man and find an
abnormality of his prostate gland. You suspect prostate cancer due to these
findings. The findings are described as:
a rubber, enlarged prostatic lobe
a boggy gland
profound tenderness
an area of prostatic induration
an area of prostatic induration
Choice D is the right answer. Prostate cancer is the most commonnon cutaneous
cancer in men n the United States. Most are asymptomatic until the disease is
advanced. An area of induration on the gland would alert the GNP of possible
prostate cancer, which cannot be confirmed without biopsy.
You are treating a 68-year-old African-American female who has multiple risk
factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following is NOT one of these risk
factors?
her age
her excessive alcohol intake
her smoking
her race
her race
All of the choices are risk factors except her race. African-American race is not a risk
factor. Caucasian and Asian race ARE risk factors.
A 65-year-old Caucasian female is in the office with rosacea. She is asking
about treatment options. You have discussed nonpharmacologic care. What is
the recommended treatment for her?
topical 5-fluorouracil
low-dose tetracycline
oral ketoconazole
oral hydrocortisone
, Page 3 of 144
low-dose tetracycline
Treatment with systemic low-dose tetracycline is a very effective measure for
rosacea; topical treatment with metronidazole or a low-dose steroid cream may also
be helpful. Topical 5-fluorouracil is used to treat actinic keratosis.
When treating a patient who has an extremely high P.T. level from coumadin
(warfarin) usage, the GNP understands that which of the following is the
antidote?
Vitamin K
Vitamin C
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
The antidote for coumadin (warfarin) toxicity is Vitamin K. It is often given in injection
form with extremely elevated P.T. levels. Dietary sources of Vitamin K include green
leafy vegetables.
An 82 year old female patient who is on long-term anti-inflammatory
medication is at risk for which of the following conditions?
Gastrointestinal bleeding.
Dehydration.
Stroke.
Depression.
Gastrointestinal bleeding.
Elderly patients who are on long-term anti-inflammatories are at increased risk for GI
bleeding and anemia. They should be monitored regularly for these conditions.
You prescribe a medication for your elderly patient and note it should be taken
a.c. What does this mean?
Twice a day.
At bedtime.
, Page 4 of 144
When needed.
Before meals.
Before meals.
p.r.n. - When needed a.c. - Before meals b.i.d. - Twice a day h.s. - At bedtime
One of the theories of development is Piaget's (1969) Cognitive Development
Theory. This theory focuses on intellectual changes and the way they relate to
the environment. Which of the following is NOT a stage of this continuous
interaction sequential manner?
Abstract Operations
Concrete Operations
Preoperational Thinking
Formal Operations
Abstract Operations
The stages are listed in this order:
1-Sensorimotor (infancy)
2-Preoperational Thinking
3-Concrete Operations
4-Formal Operations
There is no Abstract Operations stage in this theory model.
As a GNP you understand that older adults have bone loss. At what age does
this bone loss start?
40
50
60
70
40
Bone loss begins at about age 40. Bone loss is more common in women than in men
and so osteoporosis occurs more often in women.
