NR 508 > Final Exam Latest Guide Questions & Answers with Rationale - Already Graded A+
1. A patient who has diabetes reports intense discomfort when needing to void. A urinalysis is normal. To treat this, the primary care NP should consider prescribing:
2. A patient reports difficulty returning to sleep after getting up to go to the bathroom every night. A physical examination and a sleep hygiene history are noncontributory. The primary care NP should prescribe:
3. A 5-year-old child who has no previous history of otitis media is seen in clinic with a temperature of 100° F. The primary care NP visualizes bilateral erythematous, nonbulging, intact tympanic membranes. The child is taking fluids well and is playing with toys in the examination room. The NP should:
4. An 80-year-old patient with congestive heart failure has a viral upper respiratory infection. The patient asks the primary care NP about treating the fever, which is 38.5° C. The NP should:
5. A patient who takes levodopa and carbidopa for Parkinson’s disease reports experiencing freezing episodes between doses. The primary care NP should consider using:
6. A patient is being tapered from long-term therapy with prednisolone and reports weight loss and fatigue. The primary care NP should counsel this patient to:
7. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) sees a 50-year-old woman who reports frequent leakage of urine. The NP learns that this occurs when she laughs or sneezes. She also reports having an increased urge to void even when her bladder is not full. She is not taking any medications. The NP should:
8. A 7-year-old patient who has severe asthma takes oral prednisone daily. At a well-child examination, the primary care NP notes a decrease in the child’s linear growth rate. The NP should consult the child’s asthma specialist about:
9. A patient who is taking isoniazid and rifampin for latent TB is seen by the primary care NP for a routine follow-up visit. The patient reports having nausea, vomiting, and a decreased appetite. The NP should:
10. A primary care NP sees a child with asthma to evaluate the child’s response to the prescribed therapy. The child uses an ICS twice daily and an albuterol metered-dose inhaler as needed. The child’s symptoms are well controlled. The NP notes slowing of the child’s linear growth on a standardized growth chart. The NP should change this child’s medication regimen to a:
11. A patient is newly diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease stage 6 on the Global Deterioration Scale. The primary care NP should prescribe:
12. The primary care NP sees a 12-month-old infant who needs the MMR, Varivax, influenza, and hepatitis A vaccines. The child’s mother tells the NP that she is pregnant. The NP should:
13. A parent brings a 5-year-old child to a clinic for a hospital follow-up appointment. The child is taking a medication at a dose equal to an adult dose. The parent reports that the medication is not producing the desired effects. The NP should:
14. An NP orders an inhaled corticosteroid 2 puffs twice daily and an albuterol metered-dose inhaler 2 puffs every 4 hours as needed for cough or wheezing for a 65-year-old patient with recent onset of reactive airways disease who reports symptoms occurring every 1 or 2 weeks. At a follow-up appointment several months later, the patient reports no change in frequency of symptoms. The NP’s initial action should be to:
15. A patient is diagnosed with a condition that causes chronic pain. The primary care NP prescribes an opioid analgesic and should instruct the patient to:
16. A patient tells the primary care NP that he has difficulty getting and maintaining an erection. The NP’s initial response should be to:
17. A 55-year-old patient develops Parkinson’s disease characterized by unilateral tremors only. The primary care NP will refer the patient to a neurologist and should expect initial treatment to be:
18. A patient who has migraine headaches without an aura reports difficulty treating the migraines in time because they come on so suddenly. The patient has been using over-the-counter NSAIDs. The primary care NP should prescribe:
19. A woman tells a primary care NP that she is considering getting pregnant. During a health history, the NP learns that the patient has seasonal allergies, asthma, and epilepsy, all of which are well controlled with a second-generation antihistamine daily, an inhaled steroid daily with albuterol as needed, and an antiepileptic medication daily. The NP should counsel this patient to:
20. A patient who has partial seizures has been taking phenytoin (Dilantin). The patient has recently developed thrombocytopenia. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) should contact the patient’s neurologist to discuss changing the patient’s medication to:
21. A patient is taking dicloxacillin (Dynapen) 500 mg every 6 hours to treat a severe penicillinase-resistant infection. At a 1-week follow-up appointment, the patient reports nausea, vomiting, and epigastric discomfort. The primary care NP should:
22. A 75-year-old patient who lives alone will begin taking a narcotic analgesic for pain. To help ensure patient safety, the NP prescribing this medication should:
23. A patient has been taking intramuscular (IM) meperidine 75 mg every 6 hours for 3 days after surgery.When the patient is discharged from the hospital, the primary care NP should expect the patient to receive a prescription for _____ mg orally every _____ hours:
24. A patient who is obese and has hypertension is taking a thiazide diuretic and develops gouty arthritis, which is treated with probenecid. At a follow-up visit, the patient’s serum uric acid level is 7 mg/dL, and the patient denies any current symptoms. The primary care NP should discontinue the probenecid and:
25. A mother brings her a college-age son to the primary care NP and asks the NP to talk to him about alcohol use. He reports binge drinking on occasion and drinking only beer on weekends. The NP notes diaphoresis, tachycardia, and an easy startle reflex. The NP should:
26. A primary care NP sees a patient who has fever, flank pain, and dysuria. The patient has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) and completed a course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) the week before. A urine test is positive for leukocyte esterase. The NP sends the urine for culture and should treat this patient empirically with:
27. A patient who takes carbamazepine (Tegretol) has been seizure-free for 2 years and asks the primary care NP about stopping the medication. The NP should:
28. A primary care NP has been working with a young woman who wants to quit smoking before she begins having children.She has made several attempts to quit using nicotine replacement therapy and is feeling discouraged. She does not want to take medication at this time. The NP should:
29. A primary care NP prescribes a nonselective NSAID for a patient who has osteoarthritis. The patient expresses concerns about possible side effects of this medication. When counseling the patient about the medication, the NP should tell this patient:
30. A patient has been taking a COX-2 selective NSAID to treat pain associated with a recent onset of RA. The patient tells the primary care NP that the pain and joint swelling are becoming worse. The patient does not have synovitis or extraarticular manifestations of the disease. The NP will refer the patient to a rheumatologist and should expect the specialist to prescribe:
31. A patient has been taking an opioid analgesic for 2 weeks after a minor outpatient procedure. At a follow-up clinic visit, the patient tells the primary care NP that he took extra doses for the past 2 days because of increased pain and wants an early refill of the medication. The NP should suspect:
32. An elderly patient with dementia exhibits hostility and uncooperativeness. The primary care NP prescribes clozapine (Clozaril) and should counsel the family about:
33. A patient who was hospitalized for an infection was treated with an aminoglycoside antibiotic. The patient asks the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) why outpatient treatment wasn’t an option. The NP should tell the patient that aminoglycoside antibiotics
34. A woman who is pregnant tells an NP that she has been taking sertraline for depression for several years but is worried about the effects of this drug on her fetus. The NP will consult with this patient’s psychiatrist and will recommend that she:
35. A patient who has HIV is being treated with Emtriva. The patient develops hepatitis B. The primary care NP should contact the patient’s infectious disease specialist to discuss:
36. A patient who was in a motor vehicle accident has been treated for lower back muscle spasms with metaxalone (Skelaxin) for 1 week and reports decreased but persistent pain. A computed tomography scan is normal. The primary care NP should:
37. A primary care NP sees a patient who has dysuria, fever, and urinary frequency. The NP orders a urine dipstick, which is positive for nitrates and leukocyte esterase, and sends the urine to the laboratory for a culture. The patient is allergic to sulfa drugs. The NP should:
38. A patient comes to the clinic several days after an outpatient surgical procedure complaining of swelling and pain at the surgical site. The primary care NP notes a small area of erythema but no abscess or induration. The NP should:
39. A patient who has genital herpes has frequent outbreaks. The patient asks the primary care NP why it is necessary to take oral acyclovir all the time and not just for acute outbreaks.The NP should explain that oral acyclovir may:
40. A patient is taking isoniazid, pyrazinamide, rifampin, and streptomycin to treat TB. The primary care NP should routinely perform:
41. A primary care NP sees a patient who was recently hospitalized for infection and treated with gentamicin for 10 days. The patient tells the NP that the drug was discontinued early because “my blood level was too high.” The NP should order:
42. A 40-year-old woman asks the primary care NP what she can do to minimize her risk of osteoporosis. She takes 800 mg of calcium and drinks 2 cups of skim milk each day. The NP should recommend that she:
43. A patient has a sore throat with fever. The primary care NP observes erythematous 4 tonsils with white exudate.A rapid antigen strep test is negative, and a culture is pending. The NP orders amoxicillin as empiric treatment. The patient calls the next day to report a rash. The NP should suspect:
44. A patient is taking sulfisoxazole. The patient calls the primary care NP to report abdominal pain, nausea, and insomnia. The NP should
45. A patient is in the clinic with acute symptoms of anxiety. The patient is restless and has not slept in 3 days.The primary care NP observes that the patient is irritable and has moderate muscle tension. The patient’s spouse reports that similar symptoms have occurred before in varying degrees for several years. The NP should refer the patient to a psychologist and should prescribe which drug for short-term use?
46. A woman who takes oral contraceptive pills develops vaginal candidiasis. The primary care NP prescribes a single dose of fluconazole. When counseling the patient about this drug, the NP should tell her:
47. A patient in the clinic reports taking a handful of acetaminophen extra-strength tablets about 12 hours prior. The patient has nausea, vomiting, malaise, and drowsiness. The patient’s aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase are mildly elevated. The primary care NP should:
48. An NP sees a preschooler in clinic for the first time. When obtaining a medication history, the NP notes that the child is taking a medication for which safety and effectiveness in children has not been established in drug information literature. The NP should:
49. A patient who has Parkinson’s disease who takes levodopa and carbidopa reports having drooling episodes that are increasing in frequency. The primary care NP should order:
50. The primary care NP sees a 6-month-old infant for a routine physical examination and notes that the infant has a runny nose and a cough. The parents report a 2-day history of a temperature of 99° F to 100° F and two to three loose stools per day. Other family members have similar symptoms. The infant has had two sets of immunizations at 2 and 4 months of age. The NP should:
51. A patient who was recently hospitalized and treated with gentamicin tells the primary care NP, “My kidney function test was abnormal and they stopped the medication.” The patient is worried about long-term effects. The NP should:
52. A patient has begun treatment for HIV. The primary care NP should monitor the patient’s complete blood count (CBC) at least every _____ months.
53. A patient who was recently diagnosed with COPD comes to the clinic for a follow-up evaluation after beginning therapy with a SABA as needed for dyspnea. The patient reports occasional mild exertional dyspnea but is able to sleep well. The patient’s FEV1 in the clinic is 85% of predicted, and oxygen saturation is 96%. The primary care NP should recommend:
54. A patient who takes 150 mg of clozapine (Clozaril) twice daily calls the primary care NP at 10:00 AM one day to report forgetting to take the 8:00 AM dose. The NP should counsel the patient to:
55. A patient has been taking fluoxetine 20 mg every morning for 5 days and calls the primary care NP to report decreased appetite, nausea, and insomnia. The NP should:
56. A female patient presents with grayish, odorous vaginal discharge. The primary care NP performs a gynecologic examination and notes vulvar and vaginal erythema. Testing of the discharge reveals a pH of 5.2 and a fishy odor when mixed with a solution of 10% potassium hydroxide. The NP should:
57. An 80-year-old patient has a diagnosis of glaucoma, and the ophthalmologist has prescribed timolol (Timoptic) and pilocarpine eye drops. The primary care NP should counsel this patient:
58. An 18-month-old child who attends day care has head lice and has been treated with permethrin 1% (Nix). The parent brings the child to the clinic 1 week later, and the primary care NP notes live bugs on the child’s scalp. The NP should order:
59. An adult patient who has a viral upper respiratory infection asks the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) about taking acetaminophen for fever and muscle aches. To help ensure against possible drug toxicity, the NP should first:
60. The primary care NP follows a patient who is being treated for RA with methotrexate. The patient asks the NP why the medication does not seem to alleviate pain. The NP tells the patient that:
61. A patient has a UTI and will begin treatment with an antibiotic. The patient reports moderate to severe suprapubic pain. The primary care NP should prescribe:
62. The parent of an 8-year-old child recently diagnosed with AD/HD verbalizes concerns about giving the child stimulants. The primary care NP should recommend:
63. The primary care NP is performing a medication reconciliation on a patient who takes digoxin for congestive heart failure and learns that the patient uses ibuprofen as needed for joint pain. The NP should counsel this patient to:
64. A patient who takes valproic acid for a seizure disorder is preparing to have surgery. The primary care NP should order:
65. A patient who has Alzheimer’s disease is taking 10 mg of donepezil daily and reports difficulty sleeping. The primary care NP should recommend:
66. A child has been taking methylphenidate 5 mg at 8 AM, 12 PM, and 4 PM for 30 days after a new diagnosis of AD/HD and comes to the clinic for evaluation. The child’s mother reports that the child exhibits some nervousness and insomnia but is doing much better in school. The primary care NP should suggest:
67. A 60-year-old woman is in the clinic for an annual well-woman examination. She has been taking alendronate (Fosamax) 10 mg daily for 4 years. Her last bone density test yielded a T-score of 2.0. Her urine NTx level today is 22. She walks daily. Her fracture risk is low. The primary care NP should recommend that she:
68. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) is seeing a patient who reports chronic lower back pain. The patient reports having difficulty sleeping despite taking ibuprofen at bedtime each night. The NP should prescribe:
69. A patient reports smoking two or more packs of cigarettes per day and expresses a desire to quit smoking. The primary care NP learns that the patient smokes heavily during breaks at work and during the evening but with no established schedule. The NP should recommend:
70. A patient is seen in the clinic with a 1-week history of frequent watery stools. The primary care NP learns that a family member had gastroenteritis a week prior. The patient was treated for a UTI with a sulfonamide antibiotic 2 months prior. The NP should suspect:
71. A female patient has vaginal candidiasis and has taken a single dose of fluconazole without resolution of the infection. The primary care NP obtains a culture and should order:
72. A patient reports difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep every night and has difficulty staying awake during the commute to work every day. The NP should:
73. A patient who is newly diagnosed with schizophrenia is overweight and has a positive family history for type 2 diabetes mellitus. The primary care NP should consider initiating antipsychotic therapy with
74. A patient asks an NP about using an oral over-the-counter decongestant medication for nasal congestion associated with a viral upper respiratory illness. The NP learns that this patient uses loratadine (Claritin), a ?-adrenergic blocker, and an intranasal corticosteroid. The NP would be concerned about which adverse effects?
75. A patient has been taking paroxetine (Paxil) for major depressive symptoms for 8 months. The patient tells the primary care NP that these symptoms improved after 2 months of therapy. The patient is experiencing weight gain and sexual dysfunction and wants to know if the medication can be discontinued. The NP should:
NR 508 > Ground Rounds week 6 - Case Study Presentation Guide, Graded A _ Chamberlain College of Nursing.
Ground Rounds: Asthma
NR 508: Advanced Pharmacology
Chamberlain College of Nursing
BIS 245 - Final Exam (latest) > DeVry University, New York - Already Graded A+
BIS 245 Final Exam
(CO 1) A foreign key is
A field in one table that is also the primary key of another table.
Another name for a candidate key.
A value that can connect two tables simultaneously.
A unique value that identifies each row within a table.
(CO 1) In what situation would Access be a better choice than Excel?
You have an extensive amount of data.
You need to conduct extensive statistical analyses on your data.
You have a limited amount of data.
You require a flat file view of your data.
(CO 1) The number of sections Access creates for a report is
(CO 2) Which of the following is NOT a database system?
(CO 3) All of the following describe a caption property except
The caption appears in datasheet, report, and form views.
Can take the place of a field name in datasheet view.
Can be used in place of a field name in an expression.
Allows for placing spaces between words.
(CO 3) Which of the following does NOT apply to the following description of an image?
Three tables are pictured: Table 1: Suppliers with a primary key of SupplierID and fields: CompanyName, ContactName, ContactTitle, Address, City, Region, PostalCode, Country, Phone, Fax, and HomePage. Table 2: Products with a primary key of ProductID and fields: ProductName, SupplierID, CategoryID, QuantityPerUnit, UnitPrice, UnitsInStock, UnitsOnOrder, ReorderLevel, and Discontinued. Table 3: Categories had a primary key of CategoryID and fields: Categoryname, Description, and Picture. There is a relationship labeled 1 attached to Table 1 or suppliers and an infinity symbol attached to Table 2 or products.
One table is not joined to the other two tables.
A join exists on two primary keys.
A one-to-many relationship is applied.
The display is showing the design view of relationships.
(CO 5) All of the following describe form usage except
a form can show data from only one table.
you can create Access forms to match paper forms.
a form user should have less input errors than a table user.
forms restrict data entry to one record at a time.
(CO 5) Clicking on the form tool will open a(n)
Wizard to design a form.
New form in layout view.
New form in design view.
(CO 6) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about a query?
Instructions on which data to display are saved within a query.
Data is not saved within a query.
Changing data values in a query will not change data values in a table.
Instructions on the format to display data are saved within a query.
(CO 9) All of the following are drawbacks to normalization, except
Less tables and larger columns.
(CO 8) The _____ interface displays a menu that provides the ability to open the various objects within the database and to move easily from one object to another.
Switchboard form or navigation form
(CO 9) All of the following describe a digital signature certification authority except
Certification authority companies establish their own rules and regulations that users must follow.
A certification authority company provides a digital signature when a high level of security is needed to protect the contents of a database.
A certification authority is a commercial company that is highly regulated in most countries.
A fee is charged for the service of issuing and validating identities using a digital signature.
(CO 1) All of the following are Access objects except
(CO 1) Which of the following means not equal to 30?
(CO 1) Which of the following is NOT an Access interface element?
(CO 1) Which of the following is NOT a report section?
(CO 1) A report creation tool that will automatically pull in the fields from a table or query is the
(CO 2) A field that uniquely identifies each record in a table is
(CO 2) SQL is a fourth-generation language that is
Table oriented and nonprocedural.
Procedural and record oriented.
Flat-file oriented and nonprocedural.
Oriented toward static data.
(CO 3) Which relationship is used most commonly within the database environment?
A one-to-many relationship.
(CO 3) Attributes are better defined as
a characteristic of an entity.
a description of an entity.
All of the above
(CO 3) Which of the following is NOT true of indexed property?
Setting the index requires each record to be scanned sequentially and saves time searching data.
Primary keys must be indexed.
Indexing a table speeds the retrieval time.
An example of a setting is yes (no duplicates).
(CO 4) In terms of data types and their uses, which one of the following is NOT correct?
The TEXT data type can be used for Last Name.
The Date/Time data type can be used for 10/31/2012.
The Currency data type can be used for Account balance.
The AutoNumber data type can be used for Customer Name.
(CO 5) Which form type displays records in a tabular format similar to a datasheet view but has more editing options, such as adding graphics?
Multiple items form
(CO 5) A calculated control
Is an unbound box that the user will fill in with a numeric value.
Is a text box containing a description.
Is a bound box.
Contains a formula that displays the result.
(CO 6) Which of the following is a term used to describe a calculated field?
(CO 6) Data aggregate functions
Cannot be used on a row.
Return multiple values.
Are used to perform calculations on individual records in a table or query.
Perform calculations on entire columns of data.
(CO 9) Default normalization form 4 takes place
When all candidate keys are identified.
When all tables are related.
When third normal-form includes several candidate keys.
When third normal-form has one and only one candidate key, which is a primary key.
(CO 2) A required field that is used in entering data is a field that
Cannot be left blank.
Can be left blank.
Is selected from a list of values.
Appears with a specific value.
(CO 8) All of the following describe how a Navigation Form is used except
Is another term for a specific report.
Helps users open forms and reports.
Has the look and feel of a web form.
Click the create tab and then navigation in the forms group to create a navigation form.
(CO 9) Of the following security techniques available in Microsoft Access to keep a database application safe, which choice would make the database virtually impossible to break into?
Digitally signing and publishing the database
Creating a menu system
Encrypting and password-protecting the database
Saving the database as an ACCDE file
(CO 9) Database security is a specialty within computer security that protects a database application from unintended use. Unintended use includes
Unauthorized viewing of data.
All of the above
Inadvertent mistakes made by employees.
(CO 10) The table analyzer tool does this for your database.
Make suggestions to create another query
Will not improve the database
Make suggestions to create another report
Make suggestions to minimize duplication of data
(CO 4) Which of the following is NOT true of a ship date field?
A ship date would be defined as a date/time field.
A ship date would be defined as a calculated field.
Date arithmetic can be applied to a ship date field.
A ship date is considered a constant.
(CO 1) Explain the benefits an organization gains by using a relational database?
(CO 2) Explain entity integrity and referential integrity. Give an example of each.
(CO 4) From first normal form, second normal form, or third normal form, select one of these forms and explain how that normal form is often violated by inexperienced database designers and how to correct such a violation of that normal form.
(CO 4) When constructing a database, two rules are followed by the database designer to ensure the integrity of keys. Describe each rule, and discuss common violations.
(CO 1) Which object would you use to enter, delete, or modify data? (Points : 5)
(CO 1) What Microsoft Access feature would give a United Parcel Service (UPS) manager the ability to ask questions like “How many UPS tubes were shipped Monday?” and “What was the total revenue generated from UPS Express Box Large in November 2013?” (Points : 5)
(CO 1) When creating a report in Access what report tool best outlines the following description: This report tool asks a series of questions and helps the designer create a report most suitable based on the answers the designer has given. (Points : 5)
Tabular Layout Report
Blank Report Tool
(CO 1) A filter in Access (Points : 5)
Creates a new table with matching criteria.
Deletes unique records from the database.
Allows the user to edit specific records.
Displays a subset of records based on specified criteria.
(CO 1) A report creation tool that will automatically pull in the fields from a table or query is the (Points : 5)
(CO 2) A field that uniquely identifies each record in a table is a (Points : 5)
(CO 2) A symbol used in ER diagrams for an entity is a (Points : 5)
(CO 3) All of the following apply to the relationships image found below EXCEPT
Image Description: Three Tables are pcitured: Table 1: Suppliers with a primary key of SupplierID and fields: CompanyName, ContactName, ContactTitle, Address, City, Region, PostalCode, Country, Phone, Fax, and HomePage. Table 2: Products with a primary key of ProductID and fields: ProductName, SupplierID, CategoryID, QuantityPerUnit, UnitPrice, UnitsInStock, UnitsOnOrder, ReorderLevel, and Discontinued. Table 3: Categories had a Primary key of CategoryID and fields: Categoryname, Description and Picture. There is a relationship labeled 1 attached to Table 1 or Suppliers and an infinity symbol attached to Table 2 or Products. (Points : 5)
A one-to-many relationship is found between the Suppliers table and the Products table.
A relationship exists between the two primary keys of the Suppliers table and the Products table.
One table is not joined to the two other tables.
The primary key for the Categories table is CategoryID.
(CO 3) All of the following applies to data redundancy EXCEPT (Points : 5)
It requires updating in two locations.
Data is always linked in two tables.
Output could be incorrect if the first and second locations of the same data are not updated.
The same data exists in two tables.
(CO 3) Which of the following does NOT apply to the following relationship image?
Image Description: Three Tables are pictured: Table 1: Suppliers with a primary key of SupplierID and fields: CompanyName, ContactName, ContactTitle, Address, City, Region, PostalCode, Country, Phone, Fax, and HomePage. Table 2: Products with a primary key of ProductID and fields: ProductName, SupplierID, CategoryID, QuantityPerUnit, UnitPrice, UnitsInStock, UnitsOnOrder, ReorderLevel, and Discontinued. Table 3: Categories had a primary key of CategoryID and fields: Categoryname, Description, and Picture. There is a relationship labeled 1 attached to Table 1 or Suppliers and an infinity symbol attached to Table 2 or Products. (Points : 5)
A one-to-many relationship is applied.
The display is showing the Design view of relationships.
One table is not joined to the other two tables.
A join exists on two primary keys.
(CO 4) When building a calculated field, formulas can be created using the (Points : 5)
(CO 5) Which form type displays records in a tabular format similar to a Datasheet view but has more editing options, such as adding graphics? (Points : 5)
Multiple Items Form
(CO 5) A bound control (Points : 5)
Always contains a label.
Contains text and number values entered by the user.
Is unique and contains a data field from another underlying source.
Must contain a formula.
(CO 6) Queries are objects in a database based on one or more underlying (Points : 5)
(CO 6) The benefit of a relationship is to (Points : 5)
Efficiently combine data from related tables.
Facilitate how Access will manage the relationship.
Determine which fields to include in each table.
Minimize data redundancy.
(CO 9) Default normalization form 4 takes place (Points : 5)
when third normal-form has one and only one candidate key, which is a primary key.
when third normal-form includes several candidate keys.
when all candidate keys are identified.
when all tables are related.
(CO 2) A validation rule (Points : 5)
Can prohibit values from being entered that may not meet a criterion.
Compares a field to a table.
Is an error message that appears when a value is incorrectly entered into a field.
Makes a value entered into a field appear in a particular format.
(CO 8) The _____ interface displays a menu that provides the ability to open the various objects within the database, and to move easily from one object to another. (Points : 5)
(CO 9) Open Exclusive means that (Points : 5)
A password is required to open the Access database.
Only one person has access to the Access database at any time.
Only selected persons can have access to the Access database.
Two or more people cannot open the same Access database at the same time.
(CO 9) All of the following are true when a user creates his or her own self-signed digital signature EXCEPT (Points : 5)
A time stamp is not required to go through a commercial service or local server for processing.
A time stamp will prove when the file was last used.
It is created through another software application.
It will prove that the creator owns the database.
(CO 10) After creating an ACCDE file, you (Points : 5)
Can convert it back to its source format.
Will see a “file already in use” message that continues to display to all other users.
Will be able to modify forms and reports but not tables.
Will need to go back to the original file if an underlying object requires a change.
(CO 4) Which statement below is NOT true of the one-to-many relationships?
Image Description: Three Tables are pictured: Table 1: Order Details with primary keys of OrderID and ProductID and fields: UnitPrice, Quantity, and Discount. Table 2: Orders with an OrderID primary key and fields of CustomerID, EmployeeID, OrderDate, RequiredDate, ShippedDate, ShipVia, Freight, ShipName, ShipAddress, ShipCity, ShipRegion, ShipPostalCode, and ShipCountry. Table 3: Customer has a primary key of CustomerID, Fields: CompanyName, ContactName, ContactTitle, Address, City, Region, PostalCode, Country, Phone, and Fax. There is a relationship labeled with the infinity symbol attached to the OrderDetails (Table 1) and also attached with a number 1 to the Orders table (Table 2). There is also a relationship with the infinity symbol beginning at Orders table (Table 2) and connected to the Customers table (Table 2) using a 1. (Points : 5)
It is the least used type of relationship.
OrderID is a unique identification number that would be used in the Orders table and Order Details table.
Each record in the Orders table may match one, more than one, or no records in the Order Details table.
Each record in an Orders table matches only one record in the Customers table.
(CO 1) What role do databases play in today’s business world and why are they important? Provide two specific examples of how a database might be used by a business. 40 pts
(CO 1) Explain the organization of data in relational databases in terms of tables, records (rows), and fields (columns). Give an example of a table and specify its fields. Which field(s) would you choose as the primary key of that table? (Points : 40)
(CO 2) Explain the terms entity, relationship, and attributes. Describe how they are used in a database. (Points : 40)
(CO 4) Explain the importance of determining relationships before establishing primary keys in the design sequence. (Points : 40)
(CO 4) What is a relational database management system and how does it relate to a database administrator? (Points : 40)
NR 508 - Test bank>Pharmacology (2019) - Chapter 1 to Chapter 73 > Rated A+
Chamberlain College of Nursing
NR 508 -Test bank-pharmacology. (new latest complete guide) with all the correct Answers !
Chapter 01: Prescriptive Authority and Role Implementation: Tradition vs. Change to Chapter 73: Vitamins and Minerals.
Translated in Spainish copy of CONSCIOUSNESS notes
This is exactly the same as the original only its translated in Spanish so that you can better understand it if spainsh is your first language
Translated in spanish copy of BIO PSYCH
Exact same as the original only its translated in Spanish for anyone with spanish as their first language this will help make it easier to understand
NSG > 6005 Week 4 Study Guide - South University, Savannah - Newest - Graded A+
Chapter 17. Drugs Affecting the Respiratory System
____ 1. Digoxin levels need to be monitored closely when the following medication is started:
____ 2. Patients with pheochromocytoma should avoid which of the following classes of drugs because of the possibility of developing hypertensive crisis?
____ 3. Harold, a 42-year-old African American, has moderate persistent asthma. Which of the following asthma medications should be used cautiously, if at all?
1. Betamethasone, an inhaled corticosteroid
2. Salmeterol, an inhaled long-acting beta-agonist
3. Albuterol, a short-acting beta-agonist
4. Montelukast, a leukotriene modifier
____ 4. Long-acting beta-agonists (LTBAs) received a Black Box Warning from the U.S. Food and Drug Administration due to the:
1. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
2. Increased incidence of cardiac events when LTBAs are used
3. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when LTBAs are used
4. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
____ 5. The bronchodilator of choice for patients taking propranolol is:
____ 6. James is a 52-year-old overweight smoker taking theophylline for his persistent asthma. He tells his provider he is going to start the Atkin’s diet for weight loss. The appropriate response would be:
1. Congratulate him on making a positive change in his life.
2. Recommend he try stopping smoking instead of the Atkin’s diet.
3. Schedule him for regular testing of serum theophylline levels during his diet due to increased excretion of theophylline.
4. Decrease his theophylline dose because a high-protein diet may lead to elevated theophylline levels.
____ 7. Li takes theophylline for his persistent asthma and calls the office with a complaint of nausea, vomiting, and headache. The best advice for him would be to:
1. Reassure him this is probably a viral infection and should be better soon
2. Have him seen the same day for an assessment and theophylline level
3. Schedule him for an appointment in 2 to 3 days, which he can cancel if he is better
4. Order a theophylline level at the laboratory for him
____ 8. Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:
1. Used for the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
2. Used in the treatment of asthma
3. Combined with albuterol for treatment of asthma exacerbations
4. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
____ 9. Christy has exercise-induced and mild persistent asthma and is prescribed two puffs of albuterol 15 minutes before exercise and as needed for wheezing. One puff per day of beclomethasone (QVAR) is also prescribed. Teaching regarding her inhalers includes:
1. Use one to two puffs of albuterol per day to prevent an attack with no more than eight puffs per day
2. Beclomethasone needs to be used every day to treat her asthma
3. Report any systemic side effects she is experiencing, such as weight gain
4. Use the albuterol metered-dose inhaler (MDI) immediately after her corticosteroid MDI to facilitate bronchodilation
____ 10. When prescribing montelukast (Singulair) for asthma, patients or parents of patients should be instructed:
1. Montelukast twice a day is started when there is an asthma exacerbation.
2. Patients may experience weight gain on montelukast.
3. Aggression, anxiety, depression, and/or suicidal thoughts may occur when taking montelukast.
4. Lethargy and hypersomnia may occur when taking montelukast.
____ 11. Montelukast (Singulair) may be prescribed for:
1. A 6-year-old child with exercise-induced asthma
2. A 2-year-old child with moderate persistent asthma
3. An 18-month-old child with seasonal allergic rhinitis
4. None of the above; montelukast is not approved for use in children
____ 12. The known drug interactions with the inhaled corticosteroid beclomethasone (QVAR) include:
2. MMR vaccine
4. None of the above
____ 13. When educating patients who are starting on inhaled corticosteroids, the provider should tell them that:
1. They need to get any live vaccines before starting the medication.
2. Inhaled corticosteroids need to be used daily during asthma exacerbations to be effective.
3. Patients should rinse their mouths out after using the inhaled corticosteroid to prevent thrush.
4. They can triple the dose number of inhalations of medication during colds to prevent needing systemic steroids.
____ 14. Patients with allergic rhinitis may benefit from a prescription of:
1. Fluticasone (Flonase)
2. Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
3. OTC cromolyn nasal spray (Nasalcrom)
4. Any of the above
____ 15. Howard is a 72-year-old male who occasionally takes diphenhydramine for his seasonal allergies. Monitoring for this patient taking diphenhydramine would include assessing for:
1. Urinary retention
2. Cardiac output
3. Peripheral edema
4. Skin rash
____ 16. First-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they are:
1. More effective than first-generation antihistamines
2. Less sedating than the first-generation antihistamines
3. Prescription products, therefore are covered by insurance
4. Able to be taken with central nervous system (CNS) sedatives, such as alcohol
____ 17. When recommending dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) to treat motion sickness, patients should be instructed to:
1. Take the dimenhydrinate after they get nauseated
2. Drink lots of water while taking the dimenhydrinate
3. Take the dimenhydrinate 15 minutes before it is needed
4. Double the dose if one tablet is not effective
____ 18. Decongestants such as pseudoephedrine (Sudafed):
1. Are Schedule III drugs in all states
2. Should not be prescribed or recommended for children under 4 years of age
3. Are effective in treating the congestion children experience with the common cold
4. May cause drowsiness in patients of all ages
____ 19. Cough and cold medications that contain a sympathomimetic decongestant such as phenylephrine should be used cautiously in what population:
1. Older adults
2. Hypertensive patients
4. All of the above
____ 20. Martin is a 60-year-old patient with hypertension. The first-line decongestant to prescribe would be:
1. Oral pseudoephedrine
2. Oral phenylephrine
3. Nasal oxymetazoline
4. Nasal azelastine
____ 21. The first-line treatment for cough related to an upper respiratory tract infection (URI) in a 5-year-old child is:
1. Fluids and symptomatic care
Chapter 30. Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
____ 1. Prior to developing a plan for the treatment of asthma, the patient’s asthma should be classified according to the NHLBI Expert Panel 3 guidelines. In adults mild-persistent asthma is classified as asthma symptoms that occur:
2. Daily and limit physical activity
3. Less than twice a week
4. More than twice a week and less than once a day
____ 2. In children age 5 to 11 years mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:
1. At nighttime one to two times a month
2. At nighttime three to four times a month
3. Less than twice a week
____ 3. One goal of asthma therapy outlined by the NHLBI Expert Panel 3 guidelines is:
1. Ability to use albuterol daily to control symptoms
2. Minimize exacerbations to once a month
3. Keep nighttime symptoms at a maximum of twice a week
4. Require infrequent use of beta 2 agonists (albuterol) for relief of symptoms
____ 4. A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:
1. Begins with determining the severity of asthma and assessing asthma control
2. Is used when asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
3. Allows for each provider to determine their personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
4. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics, but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
____ 5. Treatment for mild intermittent asthma is:
1. Daily inhaled medium-dose corticosteroids
2. Short-acting beta-2-agonists (albuterol) as needed
3. Long-acting beta-2-agonists every morning as a preventative
4. Montelukast (Singulair) daily
____ 6. The first-line therapy for mild-persistent asthma is:
1. High-dose montelukast
3. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids
4. Long-acting beta-2-agonists
____ 7. Monitoring a patient with persistent asthma includes:
1. Monitoring how frequently the patient has an upper respiratory infection (URI) during treatment
2. Monthly in-office spirometry testing
3. Determining if the patient has increased use of his or her long-acting beta-2-agonist due to exacerbations
4. Evaluating the patient every 1 to 6 months to determine if the patient needs to step up or down in their therapy
____ 8. Asthma exacerbations at home are managed by the patient by:
1. Increasing frequency of beta-2-agonists and contacting their provider
2. Doubling inhaled corticosteroid doses
3. Increasing frequency of beta-2-agonists
4. Starting montelukast (Singulair)
____ 9. Patients who are at risk of a fatal asthma attack include patients:
1. With moderate persistent asthma
2. With a history of requiring intubation or ICU admission for asthma
3. Who are on daily inhaled corticosteroid therapy
4. Who are pregnant
____ 10. Pregnant patients with asthma may safely use ________ throughout their pregnancy.
1. Oral terbutaline
3. Inhaled corticosteroids (budesonide)
4. Montelukast (Singulair)
____ 11. One goal of asthma management in children is:
1. They independently manage their asthma
2. Participation in school and sports activities
3. No exacerbations
4. Minimal use of inhaled corticosteroids
____ 12. Medications used in the management of patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include:
1. Inhaled beta-2-agonists
2. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
3. Inhaled corticosteroids
4. All of the above
____ 13. Patients with a COPD exacerbation may require:
1. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
2. Systemic corticosteroid burst
3. Continuous inhaled beta-2-agonists
4. Leukotriene therapy
____ 14. Patients with COPD require monitoring of:
1. Beta-2-agonist use
2. Serum electrolytes
3. Blood pressure
4. Neuropsychiatric effects of montelukast
____ 15. Education of patients with COPD who use inhaled corticosteroids includes:
1. Doubling the dose at the first sign of a URI
2. Using their inhaled corticosteroid first and then their bronchodilator
3. Rinsing their mouth after use
4. Abstaining from smoking for at least 30 minutes after using
____ 16. Education for patients who use an inhaled beta-agonist and an inhaled corticosteroid includes:
1. Use the inhaled corticosteroid first, followed by the inhaled beta-agonists.
2. Use the inhaled beta-agonist first, followed by the inhaled corticosteroid.
3. Increase fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
NSG 6005 > WEEK 3 Quiz Q Bank (Latest) - Already Graded A.
Chapter 24: Drugs Used in Treating Infectious Diseases
____ 1. Factors that place a patient at risk of developing an antimicrobial resistant organism include:
____ 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of developing antibiotic-resistant infections due to:
____ 3. Providers should use an antibiogram when prescribing. An antibiogram is:
____ 4. There is often cross-sensitivity and cross-resistance between penicillins and cephalosporins due to:
____ 5. Jonathan has been diagnosed with strep throat and needs a prescription for an antibiotic. He says the last time he had penicillin he developed a red, blotchy rash. The appropriate antibiotic to prescribe would be:
____ 6. Sarah is a 25-year-old female who is 8 weeks pregnant and has a urinary tract infection. What would be the appropriate antibiotic to prescribe for her?
____ 7. Pong-tai is a 12 month old who is being treated with amoxicillin for acute otitis media. His parents call the clinic and say he has developed diarrhea. The appropriate action would be to:
____ 8. Lauren is a 13 year old who comes to clinic with a 4-day history of cough, low grade fever, and rhinorrhea. When she blows her nose or coughs the mucous is greenish-yellow. The appropriate antibiotic to prescribe would be:
C. TMP/SMZ (Septra)
____ 9. Joanna had a small ventricle septal defect (VSD) repaired when she was 3 years old and has no residual cardiac problems. She is now 28 and is requesting prophylactic antibiotics for an upcoming dental visit. The appropriate antibiotic to prescribe according to current American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association guidelines is:
____ 10. To prevent further development of antibacterial resistance it is recommended fluoroquinolones be reserved for treatment of:
____ 11. Fluoroquinolones have a Black Box warning regarding ____ even months after treatment.
____ 12. Janet was recently treated with clindamycin for an infection. She calls the advice nurse because she is having frequent diarrhea that she thinks may have blood in it. What would be the appropriate care for her?
____ 13. Keng has chronic hepatitis that has led to mildly impaired liver function. He has an infection that would be best treated by a macrolide. Which would be the best choice for a patient with liver dysfunction?
____ 14. Jamie has glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) and requires an antibiotic. Which class of antibiotics should be avoided in this patient?
____ 15. If a patient is allergic to sulfonamide antibiotics, he or she will most likely have cross-sensitivity to:
A. Loop diuretics
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. All of the above
____ 16. Tetracyclines such as minocycline are safe to use in:
____ 17. Tetracyclines should not be prescribed to children younger than 8 years due to:
____ 18. Nicole is a 16 year old who is taking minocycline for acne. She comes to the clinic complaining of a headache. What would be the plan of care?
____ 19. Patricia has been prescribed doxycycline for a Chlamydia infection. She is healthy and her only medication is an oral combined contraceptive. Patricia’s education would include:
____ 20. To prevent the development of peripheral neuropathy in patients taking isoniazid for tuberculosis the patient is also prescribed:
____ 21. Sadie is an 82-year-old patient who has herpes zoster (shingles) and would benefit from an antiviral such as valacyclovir. Prior to prescribing valacyclovir she will need assessment of:
____ 22. When prescribing acyclovir, patients should be educated regarding:
____ 23. Nicholas has been diagnosed with Type A influenza. Appropriate prescribing of oseltamivir (Tamiflu) would include:
____ 24. Monitoring for patients who are on long-term antifungal therapy with ketoconazole includes:
____ 25. When prescribing metronidazole (Flagyl) to treat bacterial vaginosis, patient education would include:
Chapter 26: Drugs Used in Treating Eye and Ear Disorders
____ 1. The Centers for Disease Control recommends all newborn infants receive prophylactic administration of ____ within 1 hour of birth.
____ 2. Conjunctivitis in a child that is accompanied by acute otitis media is treated with:
____ 3. Twenty-year-old Annie comes to clinic complaining of copious yellow-green eye discharge. Gram stain indicates she most likely has gonococcal conjunctivitis. While awaiting the culture results, the plan of care should be:
____ 4. Education of women who are being treated with ophthalmic antibiotics for conjunctivitis includes:
____ 5. Sadie was prescribed betaxolol ophthalmic drops by her ophthalmologist to treat her glaucoma. Oral beta blockers should be avoided in patients who use ophthalmic beta blockers due to:
____ 6. David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eye drops. The education regarding using cromolyn eye drops includes:
____ 7. Ciprofloxacin otic drops are contraindicated in:
____ 8. ____ is prescribed to prevent swimmer’s ear.
____ 9. Patient education regarding the use of ciprofloxacin-hydrocortisone (Cipro HC otic) ear drops includes:
____ 10. Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:
Chapter 37: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Disease and Acquired Immunodefiency Syndrome
____ 1. The goals of treatment when prescribing antiretroviral medication to patients with HIV include:
A. Prevent vertical HIV transmission
B. Improve quality of life
C. Prolong survival
____ 2. A challenge faced with antiretroviral therapy (ART) is:
____ 3. Predictors for successful treatment with antiretroviral therapy (ART) in HIV-positive patients include:
____ 4. The goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in HIV-positive patients is:
____ 5. Pregnant women who are HIV positive:
____ 6. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended for HIV-positive patients with:
A. A history of AIDS-defining illness
B. Pregnant women
C. Hepatitis B co-infection
D. All of the above
____ 7. If considering starting a patient on the nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)abacavir, the following testing is recommended prior to prescribing:
____ 8. Suzanne is pregnant and has tested HIV positive. Which antiretroviral drug should be avoided in women who are pregnant?
____ 9. The cost of HIV treatment can be prohibitive for any patient. Patients can receive assistance from the:
____ 10. Resistance to antiretroviral therapy (ART) is measured by:
____ 11. Phenotype assays are used to measure ____ of antiretroviral therapy (ART).
____ 12. Patient factors that contribute to antiretroviral therapy (ART) failure include:
____ 13. Patients who are taking antiretroviral therapy (ART) need to have the following monitored:
____ 14. Successful antiretroviral therapy (ART) in an HIV-positive patient is determined by:
ANT254 : Language and Culture Homework Assignment #4
This homework assignment contains aspects of human language and between aspects of language and culture. Topics such as: descriptive and comparative linguistics, structuralism, language and thought, sociolinguistics, bilingualism, culture change and linguistic changes.
Translated in spanish copy of psych notes chapter 1
These notes are the same as the original just in Spanish so it is easier for you to understand if your main language is Spanish.