TCFP prep Latest Study set with complete Questions and 100% correct Answers

TCFP prep Latest Study set with complete Questions and 100% correct Answers the NFPA requires that, at minimum ppe clothing should be cleaned every _______ months a. 12 b. 6 c. 9 d. 14 - correct answer- b. 6 National Fire Protection 1001 is ? A. Standard for firefighting professional qualifications B. Standard for Industrial Fire Brigades C. Standard for fire department occupational safety and health program D. standard for Blood Borne Pathogen training - correct answer- A. Standard for firefighting professional qualifications Historically, the standard operating unit of a fire department is ? A. the firefighter B. The company C. the battalion D. a platoon/shift - correct answer- B. The company Where are medical requirements for firefighters specified ? A. NFPA 1582 B. NFPA 1001 C. NFPA 1500 D. NFPA 1501 - correct answer- A. NFPA 1582 Directions: Read the following statements and choose the correct answer from alternatives A-D Statement 1: A policy is a guide to thinking or decision making Statement 2: a procedure is a detailed plan of action Statement 3: Standard operating procedures apply to both emergency and non-emergency situations A. st. 1 is true; st 2 and 3 are false B. st 1 and 2 are false; st 3 is true C. St 1 is false; st 2 and 3 are true D. all statements are true - correct answer- D. all statements are true Which is true regarding NFPA standards A. they are regarded as law B. they consensus documents C. they are adopted at the federal levelD. they identify the maximum allowable by law. - correct answer- B. they consensus documents What is the difference in a dept's SOP's as opposed to the SOG's ? A. SOP's are specific, and SOG's are not B. SOP's and SOG's are exactly alike C. SOP's are not as strict as SOG's D. Both are required to meet NFPA 1500 requirements. - correct answer- A. SOP's are specific, and SOG's are not Life safety, incident stabilization, and ___________ are the three most important orginization duties for FD's to pursue. A. Building inspections B. public information C. Property conservation D. Resource management - correct answer- C. Property conservation What is the principle called that says each firefighter answers to only one supervisor ? A. Span of responsibility B. Organizational accountability C. Unity of command D. Delegation of duty - correct answer- C. Unity of command What is generally the upper limit of span of control ? a. 25 B. 9 C.13 D. 7 - correct answer- D. 7 the process of dividing large jobs into smaller jobs to make them more manageable is described as ? a. chain of command b. division of labor c. span of control d. unity of command - correct answer- b. division of labor Division of labor is necessary in the fire service in order to? a. determine who will be the incident commander b. separate union and administration c. determine chain of command d. make specific and clear-cut assignments - correct answer- d. make specific and clear-cut assignments One of the basic duties of an engine company is? a. attack and extinguish fires b. forcible entry c. perform technical rescue d. perform search and rescue - correct answer- a. attack and extinguish fires In the fire service, the basic definition of the word rescue is ? a. looking for victims who are in dangerb. removing a victim from a hazardous situation to safety c. performing CPR on a victim d. stabilizing a victim before transport - correct answer- b. removing a victim from a hazardous situation to safety Which is considered one of the basic tasks of a traditional ladder company crew ? a. Securing a water source b. deploying hand lines c. Forcible entry d. high angle operations - correct answer- c. Forcible entry What is the term for a rescue situation requiring specialized knowledge or training such as highangle rescue or trench rescue ? a. Class 1 rescue b. technical rescue c. barrel rescue d. second stage resuce - correct answer- b. technical rescue Which statement regarding NFPA standards is true ? a. they are viewed as regulations. b. they are viewed as consensus documents c. they are law and, therefore, must be implemented d. they are adopted by OSHA - correct answer- b. they are viewed as consensus documents Fire Department employee assistance programs provide ____________ help with problems that might affect performance. a. instantaneous b. confidential c. all-encompassing d. common knowledge - correct answer- B. confidential NFPA 1500 provides guidance for which program to benefit firefighters ? a. employee assistance programs b. collective bargaining agreements c. professional certifications d. Disciplinary plan - correct answer- a. Employee assistance programs Which would be considered a program offered by an Employee assistance program? a. Driving course for adolescents b. dealing with physical problems c. junior firefighter programs d. Juvenile arson setter program - correct answer- b. dealing with physical problems st. 1 Federal OSHA authority and regulations apply mainly to private sector and do not cover employees of state and local goverments st.2 Federal OSHA has jurisdiction over every state in the U.S. st.3 Agencies must adopt OSHA as recognized national standards a. statements 1 and 2 are true;3 is false b. statements 1 is false; 2 and 3 are truec. Statement 1 is true ; statements 2 and 3 are false d. All three statements are true. - correct answer- C. What topic is covered by NFPA 1500 a. salvage ops b electrical safety req C. budgeting req d. Safety programs - correct answer- d. safety programs toxic atmospheres due to smoke and heat are called? a. FF hazardous environments b immediately dangerous to life and health c. carcinogenic hazard areas d. exclusionary zones - correct answer- b. immediately dangerous to life and health Following notification of an emergency response, when should firefighters don PPE a. immediately upon mounting the apparatus at the scene b. while on the apparatus en route to the call' c. while on the apparatus, prior to pulling out of the station d. Prior to mounting the apparatus - correct answer- d. Prior to mounting the apparatus when parking the apparatus at the emergency scene, the firefighters should? a. park and walk with their back to traffic b. set out flares 10 ft from the truck c. turn off lights that face opposing traffic to avoid blinding other drivers d. close at least two lanes of traffic to operate more safely - correct answer- c. turn off lights that face opposing traffic to avoid blinding other drivers to maintain scene security, the FF may use control zones using which of the following guidlines? a. tape should be tied to the emergency vehicles to anchor the scene b. the FF will need to determine the appropriate distance from the scene of the area c. FF should only operate in the cold zone d. media are authorized to work in the warm zone - correct answer- b. the FF will need to determine the appropriate distance from the scene of the area When dismounting the apparatus on the roadside, firefighters should a. turn lights to face opposing traffic so they will detour the incident b. never walk with their backs to the traffic c. block as many lanes as possible to ensure firefighter safety d. establish isolation zone of at least 200ft. - correct answer- b. never walk with their backs to the traffic The process of comparing the positive results that can be achieved in an action with the probability and severity of potential negative consequences is called? a. quid pro quo b. risk-benefit analysis c. validated needs assessment d. job task analysis - correct answer- b. risk-benefit analysis What is the key part of the rehabilitation process? a. assimilationb. re invigoration c. re initiation d. revitalization - correct answer- d. revitalization Over the last two decades, an average of more than __________ U.S. firefighters die each year in the line of duty. a. 150 b. 100 c. 300 d. 200 - correct answer- b. 100 according to statistics compiled by the USFA approx. ______ firefighter injuries are reported each yea. a. 1,000-3,000 b. 10,000-20,000 c. 70,000-100,000 d. more than 1,000,000 - correct answer- c. 70,000-100,000 Which is true regarding employee assistance programs (EAPs)? a. confidentiality does not apply in this circumstance b. services are available to firefighters and their families c. they are mandated by federal law d. attendance at programs is always mandatory - correct answer- b. services are available to firefighters and their families The leading cause of firefighter fatalities is ? a. cardiac arrest b. internal trauma c. asphyxiation d. crushing injuries - correct answer- a. cardiac arrest the most common injuries for firefighters are ? a. strains b. Bruises c. burns d. fractures - correct answer- a. strains All F.D. radio operations must follow rules of the ? a. NFPA b. DoT c. FCC d. code of Federal regulations - correct answer- C. FCC The term used for the facility where the emergency call is routed is called the ? a. public safety answering point (PSAP) b. unified command (UC) c. emergency collection points(ECP) d. emergency operations center (EOC) - correct answer- a. public safety answering point (PSAP) What is the difference between basic 911 and enhanced 911a. enhanced systems have the capability to provide the callers telephone number and address b. enhanced systems are used only in the rural areas c. basic systems are more reliable than enhanced d. basic systems have the capability to provide the caller's telephone number and address - correct answer- a. enhanced systems have the capability to provide the callers telephone number and address What does the Automatic Number Identification (ANI) feature of enhanced 911 do ? a. provide the callers identity b. lock the callers phone open c. show the caller phone number d. provide access to real-time language translation - correct answer- c. show the caller phone number The primary purpose of a public fire service communication system is to a. accept reports of emergencies and dispatch emergency b. accept reports of emergencies and generate supportive data c. dispatch and communicate with emergency units d. communicate with emergency units and generate supportive data - correct answer- a. accept reports of emergencies and dispatch emergency Hearing impaired citizens may report an emergency via a ? a. task assist team b. teletype c. push to talk d. regional hearing system - correct answer- b. teletype What is the configuration when a fire dept switches from a duplex channel to a simplex channel for on-scene communications called? a. a talk around channel b. a repeater system c. an On scene communication switch d. a trunking system - correct answer- a. a talk around channel A trunked digital radio system allows? a. only one agency on the system b. different agencies on different systems c. different agencies on the same system d. less users to communicate - correct answer- c. different agencies on the same system Radio signals are either ? a. simple or duplex b. analog or digital c. simple or complex d. private or public - correct answer- b. analog or digital When operating on a digital radio system, end users should expect? a. a minor time delay between transmitting and receiving b. overlapping transmissions bleeding into one another c. an increase in the amount of static or interferenced. the need for vehicle-mounted repeaters - correct answer- a. a minor time delay between transmitting and receiving ________ is the transition between the growth and fully developed stages of fire. a. ignition temperature b. flash point c. backdraft d. flashover - correct answer- d. flashover Thermal layering is ? a. a column of heat rising from a source b. a process in which the molecules of a liquid are liberated into the atmosphere at a rate at which the molecules return to a liquid c. the configuration of heat with higher temperatures at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. - correct answer- c. the configuration of heat with higher temperatures at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels When establishing a collapse zone around a building, the minimum distance from the building must extend a. the height of the building b. dependent on the buildin'g construction type c. 1-1/2 times the height of the building d. whatever the safety officer decides is safe - correct answer- c. 1-1/2 times the height of the building the least desirable point to force entry into a structure is a. a check rail window b. a swinging door c. plate glass d. a revolving door - correct answer- d. a revolving door Fire doors are operated a. manually, mechanically, electrically b. electrically, hydraulically, battery supplied c. by portable or fixed power units d. by manual or electrical power - correct answer- a. manually, mechanically, electrically Slab doors are constructed in two configurations a. slab and panel b. solid core and hollow core c. raised and flat d. ledge and framed - correct answer- b. solid core and hollow core Which is true regarding fire walls a. they are used for structural support so they are load bearing b. masonry is commonly used due to its noncombustible quality c. fire walls do not provide any fire rating d. stones are a good source of fire walls as they do not spall - correct answer- b. masonry is commonly used due to its noncombustible qualitythe reaction of wood to fire conditions depends mainly on two factors a. where it is pressure treated and its diameter b. if it is interior or exterior and if synthetics were added c. where it is load bearing and it's placement d. size of the wood and it's moisture content - correct answer- d. size of the wood and it's moisture content The measure of how long structural assemblies will maintain their load-bearing ability under fire conditions is known as a. fire code approved b. noncombustible construction c. fire resistance rating d. NFPA rated - correct answer- c. fire resistance rating In type 1 construction, the fire hazard is a. the occupants b. the contents c. the building materials d. exterior finishes - correct answer- b. the contents What should be expected in type 1 construction a. difficult to ventilate b. structural members have little or no fire resistance c. roofs are extremely hard to penetrate d. timbers provide for structural stability - correct answer- c. roofs are extremely hard to penetrate the main difference between types 1 and II construction is that. a. the occupants in type 1 are the main hazard b. type 1 is more prone to building collapse c. roofs in type ll are more stable d. structural components in type ll construction lack insulation and protection - correct answer- d. structural components in type ll construction lack insulation and protection The type of construction where the exterior walls and structral members are made of noncombustible or limited combustible materials and the interior is completely or partially mad of wood is a. type I b. type II c. type III d. type IV - correct answer- c. type III the primary concern of ordinary construction is a. the exterior buildings materials b. fire and smoke spreading through concealed spaces c. early wall collapse d. combustible contents and building materials - correct answer- b. fire and smoke spreading through concealed spaces the primary concern of Type IV construction isa. the exterior buildings materials b. fire and smoke spreading through concealed spaces c. early wall collapse d. combustible contents and building materials - correct answer- d. combustible contents and building materials The type of construction that presents the most hazard due to use of plywood I-beams is a. Type II b. Type III c. Type IV d. Type V - correct answer- d. Type V Concealed spaces can be created when a second roof is constructed over an older roof. The second roof is called a a. support roof b. rain roof c. secondary roof d. trial roof - correct answer- b. rain roof The term for the open space between the ceiling of the top floor and the underside of the roof of a building is the a. roof chase b. cockloft c. head space d. mantle - correct answer- b. cockloft Type V construction is a. fire resistive b. wood frame c. all masonry d. masonry and synthetics - correct answer- a. fire resistive A definition of _______ moisture in concrete is heated to steam and expands causing parts of the concrete to break away a. delamination b. depolymerization c. spalling d. stressing - correct answer- c. spalling When exposed to intense heat, a lightweight metal truss can a. maintain its structural integrity b. often contain a fire specific to the area c. be expected to fail in 5-10 minutes d. be expected to support firefighting ops for at least 20 mins - correct answer- c. be expected to fail in 5-10 minutes What type of construction, found on some older wooden building, provides a path of rapid fire extension a. side split b. bungalow c. slate roofd. Balloon frame - correct answer- d. Balloon frame Type 1 is ___________construction a. non combustible b. heavy timber c. ordinary d. fire resistive - correct answer- d. fire resistive The weight of the building materials and any part of the building permanently attached or built in, such as heating, ventilation, and air conditioning units or water tanks, is the definition of a(n) _________ load a. impact b. fire c. design d. dead - correct answer- d. dead At ______ Fahrenheit the length of a steel structural member will begin to elongate. a. 800 b. 1100 c. 1400 d. 1000 - correct answer- d. 1000 indications of building collapse include a. decorative stars b. closed compartments c. deteriorating mortar d. yellowish, puffing smoke - correct answer- c. deteriorating mortar a chord is ? a beam or joist b. the main member of a truss, the top or bottom structural element c. a framing member that supports floor or roof decking d. a large structural member used to support beams or joist - correct answer- b. the main member of a truss, the top or bottom structural element a parapet wall is best described as a. exterior wall extending above the roof line b. fire resistant c. attached to the building by its floors or columns d. supports its on weight and the weight of the walls and floors above it - correct answer- a. exterior wall extending above the roof line Modern wood-frame construction uses a technique that builds one floor at a time and inserts a plate between each floor that acts as a fire stop. the technique is called a. flitich plate b. platform frame c. balustrade d. awning - correct answer- b. platform frame the term that refers to how a building is used a. ownershipb. occupancy c. design type d. residence - correct answer- b. occupancy What is another name for a lamella arched roof a. bowstring truss arched roof b. buttressed arched roof c. parapet arched roof d. diagonal grid - correct answer- d. diagonal grid Which describes a horizontal member between arches that supports a type of trussless arched roof a. purlin b. parapet c. Lamella d. bowstring - correct answer- a. purlin A poisonous gas with the odor of almonds is a. sulphur dioxide b.Hydrogen cyanide c. propane d. chlorine - correct answer- b.Hydrogen cyanide Which is true regarding smoke a. complete combustion results in dark black smoke b. the lighter the smoke, the more fuel it contains c. the color of smoke does not indicate fuel content d. the denser the smoke, the more fuel it contains - correct answer- d. the denser the smoke, the more fuel it contains What method of fire suppression is most widely used on Class A combustibles a. cooling b. removing of fuel c. smothering d. inhibition of chain reaction - correct answer- a. cooling What does the E stand for in Lower _____ Limit (LEL) a. endothermic b. energetic c. explosive d. evolution - correct answer- c. explosive what is classified as carcinogen a. carbon dioxide b. pyrolysis c. formaldehyde d. glucose - correct answer- c. formaldehyde Convection is the transfer of heat through a. space by infrared rays b. a solid mediumc. friction or compression d. liquid gases by circulating currents - correct answer- d. liquid gases by circulating currents the mixture of fuel vapor to air that will ignite when subjected to an ignition source is known as the a. flash point b. vapor/fuel density c. explosive/flammable range d. burning point - correct answer- c. explosive/flammable range the transfer of heat by the movement of gases or liquid is known as a. conduction b. radiation c. convection d. direct-flame contact - correct answer- c. convection heat transfer that takes place in the form of electromagnetic waves is known as a. convection b. radiation c. conduction d. flame contact - correct answer- b. radiation Which stage of the fire is influenced by the environment and amount of ventilation a. ignition b. fully developed c. growth d. raped oxidation - correct answer- c. growth in the fire tetrahedron, what is the reducing agent a. fuel b. heat c. oxygen d. chemical reaction - correct answer- a. fuel _____________ is described as the direct contact of transmission of heat energy from one body to another a. conduction b. radiation c. convection - correct answer- a. conduction the chemical decomposition of a substance through the action of heat best denies as a. oxidation b. pyrolysis c. boiling point d. heat of decompression - correct answer- b. pyrolysis The stage of fire development that is influenced by the configuration of the compartment and the amount of ventilation is a. growth b. incipient c. fully developedd. decay - correct answer- a. growth the stages/phases of fire development are a. initial, growth, developed, and decline b. incipient/ignition, growth, fully developed, and decay c. origin, intermediate, growth, and decline d. spontaneous, incipient, growth/development, and decay - correct answer- b. incipient/ignition, growth, fully developed, and decay the movement of heat through a steel beam to an unexposed part of a building where it can start another fire is an example of a. conduction b. radiation c. convection d. direct-flame contact - correct answer- a. conduction Besides the growth stage, in what other stage is the fire fuel controlled a. incipent/ignition stage b. fully developed stage c. decay - correct answer- c. decay the amount of heat energy released per unit of time as a given fuel burns is called a. ignition rate b. heat release rate c. heat energy rate d. rate of combustion - correct answer- b. heat release rate Pyrolysis is defined as a. a physical reaction that produces heat b. the concentration level of a substance at which it will support ignition and continuous burning c. a state where a balance has occurred in a mixture d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. - correct answer- d. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat. The temperature at which a liquid fuel produces sufficient vapors to support combustion is the a. fire point b. flash point c. ignition point d. vapor density - correct answer- a. fire point the ratio of the mass of a given volume of a liquid compared with the mass of an equal volume of water at the same temperature is a. specific gravity b. vapor density c. flash point d. surface to mass ratio - correct answer- a. specific gravity Rollover occurs when a. there is spontaneous ignition of combustible gases b. everything in a confined area ignites at almost the same time c. unburned smoke is heated in the absence of O2d. pressurized smoke rises to the ceiling and then begins to rapidly bank down - correct answer- a. there is spontaneous ignition of combustible gases Backdraft is .... A. a boiling liquid/expanding vapor explosion b. a layer of air that has the same temperature c. the rapid ignition of smoke/unburned gases d. sudden ignition of all of the combustible objects within a compartment - correct answer- c. the rapid ignition of smoke/unburned gases A British Thermal Unit (BTU) is a. the amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit b. a substance or an agent that causes two or more objects or parts to bind c. decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by light the concentration level of a substance at which it will burn - correct answer- a. the amount of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit There are two types of ignition a. exothermic and endothermic b. piloted ignition and autoignition c. pryolysis and spontaneous d, internal and external - correct answer- b. piloted ignition and autoignition Autoignition temperature is a. the term used to denote a place where heat is drained away from a source b. the temperature at which a material sustains combustion a catalyst in the breakdown of molecules d. a chemical reaction that absorbs heat - correct answer- b. the temperature at which a material sustains combustion Which material is a poor conductor of heat ? a. wood b. steel c. aluminum d. copper - correct answer- a. wood Which has the wider flammable range a. propane b. Methane c. Diesel d. carbon monoxide - correct answer- d. carbon monoxide In which physical state is a material easiest to ignite ? a. gas b. liquid c, solid d. neutrons - correct answer- a. gas the minimum temp at which combustion can be initiated under specific conditions is called a. heat rise b. fire pointc. ignition temp d. heat release rate. - correct answer- c. ignition temp The mass of an object and its surface area influence heat absorption in what way ? a. the larger the mass-to-surface ration, the faster heat is absorbed b. the larger the surface-to-mass ratio, the slower heat is absorbed c. the larger the mass, the slower the heat is absorbed. d. The larger the surface-to-mass ratio, the easier it is for heat to be absorbed - correct answer- d. The larger the surface-to-mass ratio, the easier it is for heat to be absorbed Flash point is the minimum temp at which an ignitable liquid will? a. start to vaporize an ignitable gas b. give off a sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air c. sustain a continual flame from vaporization d. give off sufficient vapors to sustain flames - correct answer- b. give off a sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air Vapor density is used to describe the density of a a. mist b. gas c. liquid d. solid - correct answer- c. liquid What are the four commonly accepted types of energy a. mechanical, electrical, nuclear, and solar b. Fusion, decomposition, flame, and friction c. Mechanical, electrical, nuclear, and chemical d. Chemical, mechanical, nuclear, and spontaneous - correct answer- c. Mechanical, electrical, nuclear, and chemical Convection is the transfer of heat by a. direct contact b. light waves through air c. Gas, such as liquids, air, or flames d. solid media, such as steel, copper, and direct flame - correct answer- c. Gas, such as liquids, air, or flames Which is a warning signal of possible backdraft conditions a. smoke stained windows b. smoke observed pouring out a burned-through opening in the roof c. front door unaccountably wide open d. upper windows observed to be open or shattered - correct answer- a. smoke stained windows The chemical reaction between two or more materials that changes the materials and produces heat, flames, and toxic smoke a. endothermic heat reaction b. exothermic heat reaction c. pyrolysis d. chemical free radicals - correct answer- b. exothermic heat reactionWhile no exact temp is associated with flashover, a range from approximately _______degrees Fahrenheit is widely accepted. a. 400-900 b.900-1200 c. d. - correct answer- b.900-1200 Extinguishing agents safe for use on fires in or near energized electrical equipment include a. dry powder, carbon dioxide, and AFFF b. carbon dioxide and dry chemical c. dry chemical, pressurized foam, and carbon dioxide d. AFFF, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical - correct answer- b. carbon dioxide and dry chemical What is the term for water-soluble flammable liquids such as alcohols, acetone, and others a. Volatile fuels b. Polar solvents c. flammable surfactants d. Three-dimensional liquids - correct answer- b. Polar solvents Fiberglass and kevlar self-contained breathing apparatus cylinders must be hydrostatically tested every ? a. year b. three years c. six years d. ten years - correct answer- b. three years When donning a SCBA, the firefighters should check to ensure that the cylinder is at what minimum specified percentage of its capacity of air ? a. 90 percent b. 75 percent c. 50 percent d. 10 percent - correct answer- a. 90 percent When tightening the straps on a SCBA facepiece the _______straps should always be tightened first a. lower b. temple c. upper d. harness - correct answer- a. lower Four hazardous atmospheres that firefighters are likely to encounter at a fire are a. super-heated air, toxic gases, o2 deficiency, and smoke b. toxic gases, hyperventilation, o2 deficiency, and heat c. Heat, smoke, and chemical reaction d. carbon monoxide, ammonia, water, hydrogen sulfide - correct answer- a. super-heated air, toxic gases, o2 deficiency, and smoke The purpose of the barriers found in structural firefighting PPE is to a. keep the skin from drying outb. increase perspiration from the body from evaporating and allows the transfer of fluids c. keep steam evolved from the body from escaping. nt fluids from transferring to the skin and acts as an insulating barrier. - correct answer- nt fluids from transferring to the skin and acts as an insulating barrier. Which type of breathing apparatus recycles the user's exhaled breath after removing carbon dioxide and adding supplemental o2 a. open-circuit b. closed-circuit c. special assisted respirator d. positive pressure - correct answer- b. closed-circuit What are the two general types of SCBA a. Demand and pressure-demand b. Open-circuit and closed-circuit c. OSHA approved and NIOSH approved d. compressed air and liquid O2 - correct answer- b. Open-circuit and closed-circuit An advantage of a face-piece nose-cup is that it a. assist in communication b. helps control internal fogging c. increases user time d. makes breathing easier - correct answer- b. helps control internal fogging Atmospheres are classified as O2 deficient when they fall below _________ percent O2 a. 25 b. 19.5 c. 16 d. 13.5 - correct answer- b. 19.5 What type of SCBA is most commonly used for structral firefighting a. closed-circuit b. Open-circuit c. Multi-circuit d. rebreather - correct answer- b. Open-circuit All SCBA should be inspected a. bi-weekly b. quarterly c. after each use d. semi-anually - correct answer- c. after each use The low alarm of the SCBA will sound when ____ percent of the cylinder's air supply is remaining a. 15 b. 18 c. 33 d. 30 - correct answer- c. 33 NFPA 1971 covers a. structural PPEb. hazardous materials PPE c. firefighter safety standards d. physical abilities requirements - correct answer- a. structural PPE The universal air rescue connection is a. the female quick fill inlet sound on the back of a SCBA by the cylinder valve b. used to refill cylinders normally c. the term used for a short section of hose used to share air between users' masks d. used to refill a cylinder of a firefighter running out of air. - correct answer- d. used to refill a cylinder of a firefighter running out of air. What does NFPA 1981 address a. Open-circuit SCBA emergency services b. Station/work uniforms c. Fire department occupational safety and health program d. structural firefighter ensembles - correct answer- a. Open-circuit SCBA emergency services How long does it take for the PASS device to alarm if the wearer becomes inactive a. 20 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 45 seconds d. 60 seconds - correct answer- b. 30 seconds If apparatus sirens and noise levels exceed _____decibels, firefighters should wear hearing protection a. 30-40 b. 50-60 c. 70-80 d. 90 - correct answer- d. 90 Which statement regarding work uniforms is correct a. NFPA 1975 standard outlines manufactures' guidelines and requirements b. uniforms can be made of approved synthetic c. A uniform that meets NFPA standards is designed to protect the wearer in immediately dangerous to life health atmospheres d. a work uniform that meets NFPA standards is also designed to protect the wearer from IDLH atmospheres of structure fires - correct answer- a. NFPA 1975 standard outlines manufactures' guidelines and requirements Which is true regarding structural fire helmets ? a. faceshields should be tinted to reduce glare b. faceshields alone provide sufficient protection from flying debris c. they must have earflaps or neck covers d. chin straps are optional selections - correct answer- c. they must have earflaps or neck covers What normal body cooling mechanism is lost when wearing ppe a. radiation from the head b. radiation from the body c. internal cooling from ingestiond. evaporation of perspiration - correct answer- d. evaporation of perspiration The byproduct of the combustion of plastics and polyurethane foam that acts to prevent the body from using oxygen at the cellular level is a. actaldehyde b. asbstos c. carbon dioxide d. hydrogen cyanide - correct answer- d. hydrogen cyanide AFFF extinguishers are suitable for use on _______fires a. class B & C b. class A & B c. class D d. class A, B, and C - correct answer- b. class A & B Worn, damaged, and deteriorated parts of a SCBA must be replaced according to a. past practice b. NISH/OSHA respiratory protection act c. manufactures instructions d. the wearer's recommendation - correct answer- c. manufactures instructions Steel and aluminum cylinders for breathing apparatus should by hydrostatically tested after each ______year period a. two b. three c. four d. five - correct answer- d. five A class A fire is fueled by a. electricity b. ordinary combustible materials c. liquids d. gases - correct answer- b. ordinary combustible materials With respect to fuels, ordinary combustible materials include a. gasoline and oil b. plastics c. wood and paper d. animal fur - correct answer- c. wood and paper A dry chemical extinguisher rated 60-B is capable of extinguishing a ________ flammable liquid pan fire. a. 40 sq ft b. 60 sq ft c. 120 sq ft d. 150 sq ft - correct answer- b. 60 sq ft What advantage does CO2 have over a dry chemical extinguisher a. Co2 is not a hazard in an enclosed area b. CO2 does not leave a residue or corrode electrical contacts c. CO2 will prevent re-ignition longer than dry chemical extinguisherd. CO2 is effective at a greater distance - correct answer- b. CO2 does not leave a residue or corrode electrical contacts A blue circle with a letter designation in the center would indicate an extinguisher is rated for for use on ______fires a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D - correct answer- c. Class C Class B fires involve fuels such as a. flammable liquids b. energized electrical equipment c. combustible metals d. ordinary combustibles - correct answer- a. flammable liquids A green triangle containing a letter would indicate extinguisher to be used on __________ fires a. class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D - correct answer- a. class A Energized electrical equipment and the surrounding area have to be protected with extinguishers that have a ______rating a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D - correct answer- c. Class C The preferred method of applying dry chemical agents to flammable liquid spill fires is to a. direct the stream into the flame and allow it to settle b. deflect the stream a minimum of 5 feet in front of the spill to prevent agitation c. direct the stream up-wind and allow it to be blown onto the fire d. direct the stream at the base of the fire using a sweeping motion - correct answer- d. direct the stream at the base of the fire using a sweeping motion Carbon dioxide extinguishers are generally rated for _______fires a. Class A and B b. Class B and C c. Class C and D d. Class B and D - correct answer- b. Class B and C An electric motor fire is best extinguished by using CO2 because it a. freezes the components and prevents re-ignition b. leaves no residue c. can be applied from 25 ft away from the equipment d. provides a smothering blanket of soft foam that does not effect electrical equipment - correct answer- b. leaves no residue Extinguishers suitable for Class B fires can be identified by a _________ containing the letter B a. blue circleb. green triangle c. red square d. yellow star - correct answer- c. red square The proper type of extinguisher for a fire involving magnesium, titanium, or sodium is a. dry chemical b. CO2 c. dry powder d. water - correct answer- c. dry powder A class D fire involves a. combustible metals b. flammable liquids c. electrical equipment d. ordinary combustible - correct answer- a. combustible metals Fires involving flammable liquids and gases where applied foam and/or dry chemical agents will be needed are ________ fires a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D - correct answer- b. Class B Extinguishers suitable for class D fires can be identified by a ___________ containing the letter D a. blue circle b. yellow star c. green triangle d. red square - correct answer- b. yellow star Dry powder extinguishers are rated for use on ______ fires a. class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D - correct answer- d. Class D Which type of portable fire extinguisher is least likely to expose the operator to electrical shock a. dry chemical b. pressurized water c. Stored pressure AFFF d. Film-forming fluoroprotein - correct answer- a. dry chemical Class K fires involve a. atomic material b. computer network equipment c. hazardous waste d. high temp cooking oils, such as vegetable or animal oils and fats - correct answer- d. high temp cooking oils, such as vegetable or animal oils and fats The greatest concern associated with selecting too small of an extinguisher is that a. the contents will expel too quicklyb. delicate equipment could be damaged by over application c. the operator has to get to close to the fire d. excessive amounts of dry chemical result in poor visibility - correct answer- c. the operator has to get to close to the fire Regular dry chemicals (sodium bicarbonate-based and potassium-based) work on _________ fires a. only class D b. Class K c. Only Class B d. Classes B and C - correct answer- d. Classes B and C The acronym for the 4-step process for proper use of a fire extinguishers is a. PASS b. RACE c. PACE d. DUMP - correct answer- a. PASS the AFFF portable extinguishers use what means for expelling their contents a. springs b. vacuum c. Compressed air d. Gravity - correct answer- c. Compressed air Which is true regarding fire extinguishers a. firefighters should only rely on fire extinguishers carried on fire apparatus b. firefighters should only rely on fire extinguishers found in occupancies c. NFPA 1901 requires one fire extinguisher d. NFPA 1901 requires a pressurized water fire extinguisher - correct answer- a. firefighters should only rely on fire extinguishers carried on fire apparatus Water-mist fire extinguishers are safe to use on energized electrical equipment because the water they use is a. Deionized b. ordinary c. distilled d. sterile - correct answer- a. Deionized There are two basic designs for handheld dry chemical extinguishers a. cartridge and stored pressure b. pressurized and non pressurized c. stored pressure and upright d. non pressurized and cartridge - correct answer- a. cartridge and stored pressure The organization charged for independently testing and certifying fire extinguishers is a. American national standards institute (ANSI) b. NFPA c. State fire Marshal or its designated authority having jurisdiction d. Underwriters Laboratories (UL) - correct answer- d. Underwriters Laboratories (UL) AFFF extinguishing agents are applicable to _____________ firesa. Class C b. Class D c. both Class A and B d. Class A,B, and C - correct answer- c. both Class A and B When applying dry powder to a class D fire, the operator will need to a. use large amounts of dry powder to completely cover the burning metal b. apply the powder in small amounts to avoid spreading the fire c. apply carbon dioxide to cool the metal first, then apply dry powder d. place the burning metal in a fireproof container such as a metal garbage can. - correct answer- a. use large amounts of dry powder to completely cover the burning metal What best describes a bight ? a. the part of the rope used for the work b. the part of the rope used for hoisting or pulling c. reversing the rope back upon itself, while keeping the two sides of the rope parallel d. forming a loop around to a plane parallel with the other side - correct answer- c. reversing the rope back upon itself, while keeping the two sides of the rope parallel at room temperature, combustion is supported at O2 concentrations as low as _____ percent a. 5-7 b. 10-12 c. 14-16 d. 18-20 - correct answer- c. 14-16 Utility rope should be used for a. rappeling b. belaying c. hoisting tools d. life safety - correct answer- c. hoisting tools The kern of a kernmantle rope is the a. core b. sheath c. end d. weave - correct answer- a. core About how much of a kernmantle rope's strength is provided by the mantle a. 10-15% b. 25-30% c. 45-50% d. 60-75% - correct answer- b. 25-30% The application of a safety knot is to a. finish the other basic knots b. keep a rope from running completely through the pulley or eye c. form a loop that does not tighten d. connect two ropes together - correct answer- a. finish the other basic knots The kind of loop that a figure 8 on a bight creates is aa. secure, closed loop in the end of a rope b. loop that will tighten at the standing end c. sliding loop at the running end d. double loop at both ends - correct answer- a. secure, closed loop in the end of a rope The primary use of the _______is to attach a rope to a round object a. rescue knot b. becket/sheet bend c. bowline d. clove hitch - correct answer- d. clove hitch The part of the rope that is used for hoisting or pulling is called the a. working end b. round turn c. running end d. standing part - correct answer- c. running end The knot used to tie two ropes of unequal diameter together is the a., clove hitch b. square knot c. becket/sheet bend d. half hitch - correct answer- c. becket/sheet bend A bowline is used primarily to a. join two ropes of unequal size b. form a loop around an object c. join tow ropes of the same size together d. connect and tighten a rope between two objects - correct answer- b. form a loop around an object A class 1 harness, used during technical rescues, is known as a a. chest harness b. full body harness c. leg harness d. seat harness - correct answer- d. seat harness When hoisting a ladder, the rope should be threaded and secured through the ladder _________the distance from the top. a. 1/6 b. 1/5 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 - correct answer- c. 1/3 Elements for forming a knot are a. bight, loop, and round turn b. loop, bend, and crown c. round turn, standing, and running d. standing, bight, and hitch - correct answer- a. bight, loop, and round turn A tag line should be used to a. minimize the number of personnel to hoist objectb. eliminate the need for a safety knot c. reduce strain on life safety rope d. prevent equipment from striking the structure - correct answer- d. prevent equipment from striking the structure Which is an advantage of sythetic kermantle ropes a. very strong, thin and heavy weight b. fibers making up the rope are not continuous from end to end c. excellent strength and requires extensive maintenance d. well suited for rescue work - correct answer- d. well suited for rescue work Which is the best choice for rescue rope a. braided b. laid (twisted) c. Polypropylene d. Kernmantle - correct answer- d. Kernmantle Which is true regarding hoisting tools and equipment a. use hand over hand method to control rope when hoisting b. fire extinguishers and SCBA should never be hoisted c. use with webbing over sharp edges to prevent physical damage to rope d. when working with heights, use additional ropes for added safety - correct answer- b. fire extinguishers and SCBA should never be hoisted The core of kernmantle rope is made of high-strength fibers which account for ______ percent of the total strength of the rope a. 60-65 b. 70-75 c. 80-85 d. 90-95 - correct answer- b. 70-75 Escape rope should a. be constructed like utility rope b. exceed specification for life safety rop c. be thoroughly inspected after use d. used once - correct answer- d. used once Two types of rope used in life-safety situations a. dynamic and static rope b. utility and kernmantle rope c. dynamic and utility rope d. twisted and braided rope - correct answer- a. dynamic and static rope Life safety rope for firefighters should a. be able to tolerate high heat and direct flame impingement use after use b. be subjected to repeated impact loads c. use continuous filament fiber d. pass and annual inspection by the manufacturer - correct answer- c. use continuous filament fiber WHich describes a Class 1 harnessa. fastens around the waist and thighs or under buttocks and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load up to 600 lbs b. fastens around waist and thighs or under buttocks and over the shoulders and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load of 300lbs c. fastens around the waist and around the thighs or under the buttocks and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load of up to 300 lbs - correct answer- c. fastens around the waist and around the thighs or under the buttocks and is intended to be used for emergency escape with a load of up to 300 lbs Which is an unacceptable method of choice for drying ropes a. hose dryer b. suspended in hose tower c. direct sunlight d. spread on hose rack - correct answer- c. direct sunlight When inspecting a kernmantle rope, what finding should alert the fire fighters to possible damage of the rope a. color change of the kern b. dampness of the mantle c. depressions of the kern d. stiffness in the mantle - correct answer- c. depressions of the kern When choosing a route along which to respond to a reported hazardous materials incident, how should the approach be planned? A. From upwind and upgrade B. From upwind and downgrade C. From downwind and upgrade D. From downwind and downgrade - correct answer- A. From upwind and upgrade On which type of hazardous materials incident should early responders establish a plan for decontamination? A. On incidents involving gases or vapors B. On incidents where direct contact with the material is likely C. On incidents involving offensive operations D. On all incidents - correct answer- D. On all incidents Which is a commonly used resource to determine the size of a vapor cloud? A. A scientific functions-capable calculator B. Specialized computer software C. Preincident plan D. GPS triangulation - correct answer- B. Specialized computer software Which is a critical factor in determining the appropriate level of PPE? A. The experience of the fire fighters on hand B. The availability of protective gear available C. The physical state and characteristics of the material D. The responders' experience with this material - correct answer- C. The physical state and characteristics of the material Which is a defensive action?A. Plugging B. Patching C. Diking D. Product transfer - correct answer- C. Diking Which function should occur in the warm zone? A. Command post B. Decontamination corridor C. Triage area D. Staging area - correct answer- B. Decontamination corridor What does the R stand for in ERG? A. Radiological B. Response C. Region D. Rules - correct answer- B. Response What is the first priority on any hazardous material incident? A. Safety of responders B. Rescue of victims C. Stop leak D. Confine material - correct answer- A. Safety of responders Which is a critical factor in determining the decontamination methods employed for a specific incident? A. Level of PPE B. Area exposed C. Specific hazard(s) involved D. Incident commander's preference - correct answer- C. Specific hazard(s) involved What can be used to determine the pH of a hazardous material? A. Litmus paper B. Organic paper C. M-8 paper D. M-9 tape - correct answer- A. Litmus paper What does the abbreviation TLV stand for? A. Type limit variable B. Total limit viability C. Time length variable D. Threshold limit value - correct answer- D. Threshold limit value Which value is the maximum concentration to which an adult can be exposed 8 hours per day, 40 hours per week? A. Time-weighted average B. Long-term exposure limit C. Working exposure limit D. Ceiling level - correct answer- A. Time-weighted average _______________ is an atmospheric concentration of any substance that poses an immediate threat to life.A. Ceiling level B. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) C. Short-term exposure limit D. Maximum exposure limit - correct answer- B. Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) Which Threshold Limit Value sets a maximum concentration above which no exposure of any duration should be permitted? A. Ceiling B. Maximum exposure limit C. Short-term exposure limit D. Permissible exposure limit - correct answer- A. Ceiling Which threshold limit value is the maximum concentration at which exposure should not exceed 15 minutes and should not be repeated more than four times per day? A. Time-weighted average B. Immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) C. Short-term exposure limit D. Permissible exposure limit - correct answer- C. Short-term exposure limit In the yellow and blue-bordered sections of the ERG, how are materials that are included in the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Distances identified? A. They are in bold print. B. They are italicized. C. They are highlighted. D. They are underlined - correct answer- C. They are highlighted. Materials are listed in the green section of the ERG because of their: A. flammability or explosion hazard. B. toxicity. C. reactivity. D. instability. - correct answer- B. toxicity. In the ERG, the Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances are found on pages that have __________ borders. A. red B. yellow C. blue D. green - correct answer- D. green The ERG refers to the __________ as the area downwind of the spill or leak where steps must be taken to protect the public. A. evacuation area B. protective action distance C. initial isolation zone D. exclusion zone - correct answer- B. protective action distance What term does the ERG use for the distance from a spill or leak that all persons should be evacuated in all directions? A. Exclusion zoneB. Protective area C. Contaminated area D. Initial isolation zone - correct answer- D. Initial isolation zone As it applies to hazardous materials response strategy, what does the term "isolation" mean? A. Taking steps to control the direction of a material release and minimize downwind exposures B. Use of appropriate personal protective equipment to prevent direct contact with the material C. Preventing spread of a material beyond a specified zone or perimeter D. Keeping responders and the public a safe distance away from the hazard - correct answer- D. Keeping responders and the public a safe distance away from the hazard What is the most effective way to maintain the security of an isolation perimeter? A. Posting security personnel B. Placing traffic cones, signage, and barrier tape C. Erecting barricades D. Using emergency vehicles to block access points - correct answer- A. Posting security personnel If it is necessary to isolate a hazardous materials incident, it will also be necessary to: A. take protective actions. B. deny entry. C. contain the material. D. evacuate. - correct answer- B. deny entry. Relocation of people who are threatened by a potential hazard is called: A. evacuation. B. isolation. C. decontamination. D. rescue. - correct answer- A. evacuation. How can a thermal imaging camera be useful at a hazardous materials spill? A. To detect the direction of travel of a plume B. To predict the direction of travel of vapor or smoke C. To indicate the level of material remaining in a container D. To assist in material identification - correct answer- C. To indicate the level of material remaining in a container What is the term for the amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of solution? A. Dispersion B. Concentration C. Diffusion D. pH - correct answer- B. Concentration How is the concentration of a gas typically expressed? A. PPM B. As a percentage C. pH D. Units of weight per unit of volume - correct answer- B. As a percentage What is the purpose of a secondary device?A. Initiate detonation of the primary device B. Kill and injure emergency personnel C. Backup in case of failure of the primary device D. Create misdirection or a diversion - correct answer- B. Kill and injure emergency personnel What does the A stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Avoid touching anything that might conceal an explosive device. B. Assist victims cautiously. C. Assess the scene for likely locations of secondary devices. D. Assume the presence of a secondary device at all scenes. - correct answer- B. Assist victims cautiously. What does the EVADE acronym address? A. Decontamination B. Nerve agent poisoning C. Scene assessment D. Secondary devices - correct answer- D. Secondary devices What does the D stand for in the EVADE acronym? A. Deny entry. B. Do not become part of the problem. C. Designate and enforce scene control zones. D. Dike, dam, dilute, and divert. - correct answer- C. Designate and enforce scene control zones. Diversion of material is an example of which mode of operation? A. Offensive B. Confinement C. Combined D. Defensive - correct answer- D. Defensive Dilution of material is an example of which mode of operation? A. Offensive B. Confinement C. Combined D. Defensive - correct answer- D. Defensive What service does the NFPA perform with regard to hazardous materials PPE? A. Creates standards B. Testing and certification C. Recommendations for usage D. All of the above. - correct answer- A. Creates standards Where will you find recommendations for levels of hazardous materials PPE to be used under specific conditions? A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B B. Emergency Response Guide (ERG) C. NFPA standards D. Material safety data sheets - correct answer- A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix BFor which situation will structural firefighting protective clothing provide you with adequate protection? A. You will be exposed to splashes of the material. B. You will have to handle the material. C. There are high atmospheric concentrations of the material. D. None of the above - correct answer- D. None of the above What is a proximity suit designed for? A. Limited exposures to high temperatures B. Protection from radiological hazards C. Protection from both chemical and heat hazards D. Hazardous materials support work, such as decontamination - correct answer- A. Limited exposures to high temperatures Which term describes when a chemical passes through a material on a molecular level? A. Degradation B. Permeation C. Infiltration D. Impregnation - correct answer- B. Permeation Signs that chemical protective clothing is undergoing the process of __________ include discoloration, charring, swelling, and shrinking. A. degradation B. corrosion C. decomposition D. deterioration - correct answer- A. degradation An EPA Level _____ chemical-protective suit is one that is designed to protect the wearer from gases, vapors, and liquids. A. A B. B C. C D. D - correct answer- A. A Which EPA level of protective equipment is required when working with highly toxic vapors? A. A B. B C. C D. D - correct answer- A. A You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a substance that has been positively identified. It is determined that this substance is harmful by inhalation but not by skin contact. What is the minimum EPA level of PPE for this situation? A. A B. B C. C D. D - correct answer- B. B What is the highest level of EPA chemical protective clothing that permits the use of an airpurifying respirator?A. A B. B C. C D. D - correct answer- C. C The use of EPA Level _____ protective clothing should only be used in situations where there is no atmospheric hazard. A. A B. B C. C D. D - correct answer- D. D Which form of decontamination typically consists of removing contaminated clothing and dousing the victim with large volumes of water? A. Technical B. Mass C. Emergency D. Forma - correct answer- C. Emergency A victim of a motor vehicle accident involving hazardous materials is transported by ambulance to a hospital. This action will result in __________ of ambulance personnel and the medical care facility. A. exposure B. contamination C. secondary contamination D. infection - correct answer- C. secondary contamination Which is the best example of secondary contamination? A. Exposure to alpha radiation from broken transport packaging B. Contact occurring during operations by emergency personnel to resolve the incident C. Contact with material outside of its containment vessel or packaging D. Contact with runoff from firefighting operations on an ignited material - correct answer- D. Contact with runoff from firefighting operations on an ignited material At a hazardous materials incident, what are the hot, warm, and cold zones? A. Control zones B. Isolation perimeters C. Protective action distances D. Groups or divisions - correct answer- A. Control zones For hazardous materials responders, what is the most important element of personal protective equipment? A. Vapor protection B. Respiratory protection C. Splash protection D. Thermal protection - correct answer- B. Respiratory protection Which is one of the three general types of IDLH atmospheres? A. Corrosive B. Oxygen-deficient C. Oxygen-enrichedD. Combustible - correct answer- B. Oxygen-deficient Which statement about positive-pressure SCBA is correct? A. They are also known as "rebreathers." B. They filter and condition atmospheric air for breathing. C. They prevent exposure by ingestion as well as by inhalation. D. They use compressed or liquid oxygen. - correct answer- C. They prevent exposure by ingestion as well as by inhalation. What is a primary advantage of a supplied-air respirator? A. Reduced weight and bulk for the wearer B. Greater mobility C. Less susceptible to mechanical damage D. Eliminates the need to carry an air cylinder - correct answer- A. Reduced weight and bulk for the wearer Which statement about air-purifying respirators is correct? A. They are supplied by a low-pressure hose connected to a remote air supply. B. A filter must be selected based on the specific contaminant. C. They use a closed-circuit system. D. The catalytic type may be used in low-oxygen atmospheresThere are three general IDLH atmospheres: toxic, flammable, and oxygen-deficient. Individuals exposed to There are three general IDLH atmospheres: toxic, flammable, and oxygen-deficient. Individuals exposed to There are three general IDLH atmospheres: toxic, flammable, and oxygen-deficient. Individuals exposed to. - correct answer- B. A filter must be selected based on the specific contaminant. How does a closed-circuit SCBA operate? A. Fresh air is supplied by one tank and exhaled air is stored in another tank. B. Exhaled carbon dioxide reacts with a catalyst to produce oxygen. C. Exhaled breath is released to the atmosphere. D. All inhaled and exhaled gas stays within the system. - correct answer- D. All inhaled and exhaled gas stays within the system. What does the C in CBRN stand for? A. Chemical B. Communication C. Corrosive D. Contac - correct answer- A. Chemical Which type of breathing apparatus is equipped with an escape cylinder? A. Supplied-air respirator B. Powered air-purifying respirator C. Closed-circuit SCBA D. Open-circuit SCBA - correct answer- A. Supplied-air respirator A person has a radioactive material on their clothing. What is the term for this? A. Exposure B. Contamination C. Absorption D. Contact - correct answer- B. ContaminationA fully encapsulated suit is part of EPA Level _____ protective clothing. A. A B. B C. C D. D - correct answer- A. A Preincident plans should be available to a. the highest ranking field supervisor b. units that respond to that location c. the first due unit only d. staff officers only - correct answer- b. units that respond to that location When calling a Mayday, you should a. transmit your location b. stay off the radio and listen for instructions c. throw your helmet out of a window to signal your location d. continued to talk until you are found - correct answer- a. transmit your location Which best describes the technique to use when exiting through restricted passages while using SCBA a. completely remove the SCBA backpack and harness assembly while keeping the facepiece in place and dragging the backpack behind you b. loosen the SCBA waist strap and remove one shoulder strap. Maintain control of the regulator side of the SCBA and sling the SCBA to one side to reduce your profile c. Completely remove the SCBA backpack and harness assembly while keeping the facepiece in place and pushing the backpack in front of you. - correct answer- b. loosen the SCBA waist strap and remove one shoulder strap. Maintain control of the regulator side of the SCBA and sling the SCBA to one side to reduce your profile What hould a firefighter do if their SCBA becomes dmaged or malfuncitons ? a. use the protective hood as filter b. deactivate the PASS device c. Remain calm and stay with their team d. run for the nearest exit as quickly as possible - correct answer- c. Remain calm and stay with their team Firefighters should practice reduced profile maneuvers with SCBA, but they must realize that this procedure a. should be used at every fire b. should be used as a last resort for an emergency escape c. does not require much practice to attain proficiency d. is best left to the chief officers - correct answer- b. should be used as a last resort for an emergency escape While inside the IDLH atmosphere, the technique of buddy breathing is a. considered unreliable by the NFPA and the NIOSH b. acceptable and should be implemented immediately c. required to be initiated by the rapid intervention crewd. unsafe unless performed by trained personnel - correct answer- a. considered unreliable by the NFPA and the NIOSH Which is true regarding the physical limits of wearing a SCBA a. physical and emotional stress has little effect on firefighters wearing SCBA's b. different firefighters consume air at the same rates based on physical activities c. company officer should assign strenuous activites to the youngest FF to help older FF conserve air d. firefighters consume air at different rates based on their aerobic fitness - correct answer- d. firefighters consume air at different rates based on their aerobic fitness What is one source of facts about a structure a. eyewitness accounts b. caller information c. a preincident plan d. Generalized assumption - correct answer- c. a preincident plan The three crucial fireground ops that must go hand in hand to keep the operation as safe as possible are a. fire attack, search and rescue, and ventilation b. command, operations, and planning c. overhaul, salvage, and ventilation d. direct, indirect, and combination attacks - correct answer- a. fire attack, search and rescue, and ventilation Once overhead doors have been forced they should be a. removed b. unlocked to prevent re-locking c. locked d. blocked open - correct answer- d. blocked open If you become trapped inside a burning building, which would be the best safe haven ? a. the basement b. clothes closet c. a linen