Practices 5th Edition – By Paula Howard
| Verified Chapter's 1 - 16 | Complete
,Table of Contents Qg Qg
Part I: Quality and Safety Issues
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1. Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood Industry: Safety Issues in the Blood Bank……
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Qg II: Foundations: Basic Sciences and Reagents
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2. Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank ………………………………………………
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3. Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications……………………………………………………………
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Principles in Blood Banking……………………………………………………………………………………….18
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Qg Major Blood Groups
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5. ABO and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor Status……………………………………………………………
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Group System……………………………………………………………………………………………………26
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7. Other Red Cell Blood Group Systems, Human Leukocyte Antigens, and Platelet Antigens…………
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Qg IV: Essentials of Pretransfusion Testing
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8. Antibody Qg Qg Q g Detection Qg Qg Q g and Qg Qg Q g Identification………………………………………………………………………………
Qg Compatibility Qg Qg Qg Qg Q g Testing………………………………………………………………………………………………………38
10. Blood Bank Automation for Transfusion Services……………………………………………………………………
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Qg Considerations in Immunohematology Qg Qg
11. Adverse Complications of Transfusions………………………………………………………………………………….46
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12. Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn…………………………………………………………………………
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Qg Collecting and Testing Qg Qg
13. Donor Selection and Phlebotomy………………………………………………………………………………………….55
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Blood…………………………………………………………………………………………………….60
Qg Q g Part VII: Blood Comp
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Qg Transfusion Therapy Qg
15. Blood Component Preparation and Therapy…………………………………………………………………………….63
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16. Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients……………………………………………………………………………….. 66
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,Chapter 01: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood Industry and Safety Issues in the B
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Howard: Basic & Applied Concepts of Blood Banking and Transfusion Practices, 5th Edition
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MULTIPLE CHOICE Qg
1. Biosafety levels determine: Qg Qg
a. on what floor certain infectious disease testing can be performed.
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b. the degree of risk for certain areas of a health care facility to
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exposure to infectious diseases.
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c. the amount of ventilation required in a transfusion service.
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d. how many biohazardous waste containers a laboratory must have.
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ANS: B Qg
OSHA defines biosafety levels based on potential exposure to infectious material.
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
2. A laboratory technologist decided she would like to bring her lab coat home for laundering b
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wrinkles when
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it was returned by the laboratory’s laundry service. Is this practice acceptable?
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a. Yes, if she uses 10% bleach
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b. Yes, if she clears it with her supervisor
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c. Yes, as long as she removes the coat and does not wear it home
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d. No, because the laboratory is a biosafety level 2, and lab coats
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may not be removed
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ANS: D Qg
Methods of transporting the lab coat and the risk of contamination do not permit health care
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home for cleaning.
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DIF: Level 2 Qg
3. Personal protective equipment includes:
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a. safety glasses. Qg
b. splash barriers. Qg
c. masks.
d. All of the above Qg Qg Qg
ANS: D Qg
Safety glasses, splash barriers, and masks are types of personal protective devices.
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
4. At what point in the employment process should safety training take place?
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a. During orientation and training Qg Qg Qg
b. Following lab training when employees are more familiar with
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their responsibilities
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c. Following the employees’ first evaluation Qg Qg Qg Qg
d. Before independent work is permitted and annually thereafter
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ANS: D Qg
The Occupation Safety and Health Administration requires safety training before independent w
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annually
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
, 7. Which of the following is true regarding good manufacturing practices (GMPs)?
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a. GMPs are legal requirements established by the Food and Drug Administration.
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b. GMPs are optional guidelines written by the AABB.
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c. GMPs are required only by pharmaceutical companies.
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d. GMPs are part of the quality control requirements for blood products.
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ANS: A Qg
Good manufacturing practices are requirements established by the Food and Drug Administratio
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
8. Which of the following is an example of an unacceptable record-keeping procedure?
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a. Using dittos in columns to save time Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg
b. Recording the date and initials next to a correction Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg
c. Not deleting the original entry when making a correction
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d. Always using permanent ink on all records Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg
ANS: A Qg
All records must be clearly written. Dittos are unacceptable.
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
9. A technologist in training noticed that the person training her had not recorded the results of
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helpful, she carefully
Qg recorded the results she saw at a later time, using the technologist’s
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acceptable procedure?
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a. Yes; all results must be recorded regardless of who did the test.
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b. No; she should have brought the error to the technologist’s attention.
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c. Yes; because she used the other technologist’s initials.
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d. Yes; as long as she records the result in pencil.
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ANS: B Qg
This is an example of poor record keeping; results must be recorded when the test is perform
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doing the test.
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DIF: Level 3 Qg
10. Unacceptable quality control results for the antiglobulin test performed in test tubes may be n
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a. preventive maintenance has not been performed on the cell washer.
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b. the technologist performing the test was never trained.
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c. the reagents used were improperly stored.
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d. All of the above Qg Qg Qg
ANS: D Qg
Training, equipment maintenance, and reagent quality can affect quality control.
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DIF: Level 2 Qg
11. All of the following are true regarding competency testing except:
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a. it must be performed following training.
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b. it must be performed on an annual basis.
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c. it is required only if the technologist has no experience.
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d. retraining is required if there is a failure in competency testing.
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ANS: C Qg
All employees must have competency testing following training and annually thereafter. If ther
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competency testing,
Qg retraining is required. Qg Q g Qg Qg
DIF: Level 2 Qg
,14. The standard operating procedure is a document that:
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a. helps achieve consistency of results.
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b. may be substituted with package inserts.
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c. is necessary only for training new employees.
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d. must be very detailed to be accurate.
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ANS: A Qg
Standard operating procedures are written procedures that help achieve consistency and should
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DIF: Level 2 Qg
15. Employee training takes place: Qg Qg Qg
a. after hiring and following implementation of new procedures.
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b. following competency assessment. Qg Qg
c. only for new inexperienced employees.
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d. as procedures are validated.
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ANS: A Qg
Training occurs with all new employees regardless of their experience and following implemen
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
16. Plans that provide the framework for establishing quality assurance in an organization are:
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a. current good manufacturing practices. Qg Qg Qg
b. standard operating procedures. Qg Qg
c. change control plan. Qg Qg
d. continuous quality improvement plan. Qg Qg Qg
ANS: D Qg
The total quality management or continuous quality improvement plan are part of the quality
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organization.
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
17. A facility does not validate a refrigerator before use. What is a potential outcome?
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a. The facility is in violation of current good manufacturing practices and
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could be
Qg Qg Q g cited Qg by the Food and
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Qg
b. The facility Qg is in
Qg Qg Qg compliance if the Qg Qg Qg equipment functions properly. Qg Qg
c. The facility Qg is in
Qg Qg Qg compliance if the Qg Qg Qg blood products stored in it are not transfused.
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d. The facility Qg is in
Qg Qg Qg violation of AABB Qg Qg Qg and may no longer be members.
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ANS: A Qg
Validation of equipment is a current good manufacturing practice, which is a legal requirement
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Food and Drug
Qg Administration.
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DIF: Level 2 Qg
MULTIPLE RESPONSE Qg
1. In a routine audit of a facilities blood collection area, the quality assurance department found
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bags used on that
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apply.)
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a. Initiate a root cause analysis and quarantine the blood collected in the
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expired bags.
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b. Notify the FDA since the expired bags were distributed.
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c. Change the expiration date on the bags to avoid legal issues.
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d. Fire the donor room supervisor, and discard the blood collected in the
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,MATCHING
Match the government or accrediting agencies with the description that best fits their purpose
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a. Ensures safe and healthful working conditions
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b. Ensures the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices
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c. Provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories
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d. Professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services
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e. Makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health
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Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission
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1. FDA
2. OSHA
3. CDC
4. AABB
5. CAP
1. ANS: B DIF: Level 1
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2. ANS: A DIF: Level 1
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3. ANS: E DIF: Level 1
Qg
4. ANS: D DIF: Level 1
Qg
5. ANS: C DIF: Level 1
Qg
Match the following descriptions with the appropriate terms.
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a. The CAP survey is an example
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b. Systematic evaluations to determine whether procedures are being followed
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c. Testing to determine the accuracy and precision of reagents and equipment
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d. Process of standardizing an instrument against a known value
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e. Removal of products from the market that might compromise the
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safety of the recipient
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f. Degree to which a measurement represents the true value
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g. Establishing that a specific process produces an expected result
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h. Evaluation of an employee’s ability to perform a specific skill
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i. Investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error
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j. Maximizes the duration of equipment and increases the reliability
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of the equipment
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k. System to plan and implement changes to prevent problems
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6. Root cause analysis
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7. Recall
8. Accuracy
9. Validation
10. Calibration
11. Quality control Qg
12. Proficiency test Qg
13. Competency assessment Qg
14. Change control Qg
15. Audit
16. Preventive maintenance Qg
6. ANS: Qg Q g I DIF: Level 1
Qg
7. ANS: Qg Q g E DIF: Level 1
Qg
8. ANS: Qg Q g F DIF: Level 1
Qg
9. ANS: Qg Q g G DIF: Level 1
Qg
10. ANS: Qg Q g D DIF: Level 1
Qg
11. ANS: Qg Q g C DIF: Level 1
Qg
,3. Quality control is the same as quality assurance.
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ANS: F Qg
Quality control is performed on reagents and equipment; quality assurance is a system to ens
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effective products.
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
,Chapter 02: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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Howard: Basic & Applied Concepts of Blood Banking and Transfusion Practices, 5th Edition
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MULTIPLE CHOICE Qg
1. Select the cell involved in humoral immunity.
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a. Neutrophils
b. T lymphocytesQg
c. B lymphocytesQg
d. Monocytes
ANS: C Qg
B lymphocytes have the ability to transform into plasma cells to produce antibodies, which is
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response.
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DIF: Level 2 Qg
2. What process is described by opsonization?
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a. Lysis of cells Qg Qg
b. Binding to cells or antigens Qg Qg Qg Qg
c. Ingestion of cells Qg Qg
d. Phagocytosis
ANS: B Qg
Opsonization promotes phagocytosis by binding to cells or antigens.
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
3. Select the term that describes cells or tissue from a genetically different individual within the
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a. Allogeneic
b. Autologous
c. Xenogeneic
d. Autograft
ANS: A Qg
Allogeneic cells or tissue come from a genetically different individual within the same species.
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
4. Select the substance that regulates the activity of other cells by binding to specific receptors.
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a. Cytokines
b. Complement
c. Immunoglobulins
d. Anaphylatoxin
ANS: A Qg
Cytokines are proteins secreted by cells that regulate the activity of other cells by binding to
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
5. Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement?
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a. Bacteria
b. Foreign proteins Qg
c. Virus
d. Antibody bound to antigen Qg Qg Qg
ANS: D Qg
,ANS: B Qg
The five distinctive heavy-chain molecules distinguish the class or isotype. Each heavy chain im
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features, which
Qg permit them to have unique biological functions.
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DIF: Level 2 Qg
, 8. Select the immunoglobulin class produced first in the primary immune response.
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a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgM
ANS: D Qg
IgM antibodies are produced first, followed by the production of IgG antibodies.
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
9. In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as:
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a. equivalence.
b. antigen excess. Qg
c. antibody excess. Qg
d. serum-to-cell ratio. Qg
ANS: C Qg
Antibody excess is termed prozone, often leading to a false-negative reaction.
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
10. What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concen
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Qg used?
a. False negatives Qg
b. False positives Qg
c. Hemolysis
d. No effect Qg
ANS: A Qg
Antigen excess is termed postzone and will lessen the reaction, causing a false-negative.
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DIF: Level 3 Qg
11. After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed. How sh
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graded?
Qg
a. 2+
b. 3+
c. 4+
d. 0
ANS: C Qg
One large agglutinate is graded a 4+ reaction.
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DIF: Level 2 Qg
12. Select the portion of the antibody molecule that imparts the antibody’s unique class function.
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a. Constant region of the heavy chain Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg
b. Constant region of the light chain Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg
c. Variable region of the heavy chain Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg
d. Variable region of the light chain Qg Qg Qg Qg Qg
ANS: A Qg
The heavy-chain constant region has the function of the class.
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DIF: Level 1 Qg
13. What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in the
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