DOT EXAM QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE
SOLUTIONS
A 25-year-old driver denies a history of any
medical problems. She is a nonsmoker who
exercises regularly without symptoms. The medical
examiner auscultates bilateral wheezes during the
examination. The driver's SpO2 is 90 percent in the
medical examiner's office. The rest of the
examination is normal. The driver should be:
Correct Answers Temporarily disqualified until
further evaluation
This is the correct response because the driver has
a non-diagnosed respiratory or thoracic illness that
might interfere with the ability to safely operate a
CMV. The driver should not be certified until the
etiology is confirmed and treatment has been
shown to be effective, safe, and stable.Also,
according to FMCSA medical guidelines, a SpO2 of
less than 92 percent warrants obtaining an arterial
blood gas analysis.
A 26 year-old driver presents for a first-time
certification. He has a long-standing history of
ADHD and is taking methylphenidate. You have
verified his diagnosis and obtained clearance from
his treating psychiatrist. As the certified examiner,
yo Correct Answers May certify for a maximum of
12 months.
,A 41-year-old male presents for examination. He
has a history of thoracic aortic aneurysm which is
reported by his treating cardiovascular specialist to
be 2.9 cm. How would you handle this case and
what is the medical certification period for this
medical history? Correct Answers Query and
evaluate other associated cardiovascular diseases;
annual certification.
FMCSA's guidelines, persons with a thoracic aortic
aneurysm of less than 3.5 cm may be certified
annually after thorough evaluation and ruling out
of any associated cardiovascular diseases.
A 48-year-old male driver presents for a
certification examination. He reports in his history
a back injury that had occurred 4 years earlier. He
states that he was out of work following back
surgery for over a year, but since has returned to
driving and his last certification was good for 2
years. He lists as his only medication Oxycodone,
which he takes only as needed. He reports seeing
his "pain doctor" every few months for evaluation.
He also reports he has had a steroid injection
(series of 3) about a year ago,which "helped a lot."
The examiner should: Correct Answers Request
medical clearance.
, The driver suffers a chronic pain condition which
may inhibit his ability to perform all essential
functions associated with driving a CMV. He is also
taking a narcotic medication. Both of these will
need clearance from a treating provider prior to
making a decision regarding certification
A bipolar driver has been stable for 5 years without
any manic or major depressive episodes.Paperwork
from his mental health provider confirms this. He is
treated with lithium. What is the best certification
period? Correct Answers 1 year
Lithium therapy has not been shown to interfere
with safe driving. For stable bipolar disorder,
guidance recommends a one-year certification.
A commercial driver is taking Coumadin for a
diagnosis of atrial fibrillation. As the medical
examiner you explain to the driver that: Correct
Answers He must undergo monthly INR
monitoring.
For a patient taking Coumadin, the maximum
certification period is 1 year.Recommend to certify
the driver if the driver is stabilized on medication
for at least 1 month, provides a copy of the INR
results at the examination, and has at least
monthly INR monitorin
SOLUTIONS
A 25-year-old driver denies a history of any
medical problems. She is a nonsmoker who
exercises regularly without symptoms. The medical
examiner auscultates bilateral wheezes during the
examination. The driver's SpO2 is 90 percent in the
medical examiner's office. The rest of the
examination is normal. The driver should be:
Correct Answers Temporarily disqualified until
further evaluation
This is the correct response because the driver has
a non-diagnosed respiratory or thoracic illness that
might interfere with the ability to safely operate a
CMV. The driver should not be certified until the
etiology is confirmed and treatment has been
shown to be effective, safe, and stable.Also,
according to FMCSA medical guidelines, a SpO2 of
less than 92 percent warrants obtaining an arterial
blood gas analysis.
A 26 year-old driver presents for a first-time
certification. He has a long-standing history of
ADHD and is taking methylphenidate. You have
verified his diagnosis and obtained clearance from
his treating psychiatrist. As the certified examiner,
yo Correct Answers May certify for a maximum of
12 months.
,A 41-year-old male presents for examination. He
has a history of thoracic aortic aneurysm which is
reported by his treating cardiovascular specialist to
be 2.9 cm. How would you handle this case and
what is the medical certification period for this
medical history? Correct Answers Query and
evaluate other associated cardiovascular diseases;
annual certification.
FMCSA's guidelines, persons with a thoracic aortic
aneurysm of less than 3.5 cm may be certified
annually after thorough evaluation and ruling out
of any associated cardiovascular diseases.
A 48-year-old male driver presents for a
certification examination. He reports in his history
a back injury that had occurred 4 years earlier. He
states that he was out of work following back
surgery for over a year, but since has returned to
driving and his last certification was good for 2
years. He lists as his only medication Oxycodone,
which he takes only as needed. He reports seeing
his "pain doctor" every few months for evaluation.
He also reports he has had a steroid injection
(series of 3) about a year ago,which "helped a lot."
The examiner should: Correct Answers Request
medical clearance.
, The driver suffers a chronic pain condition which
may inhibit his ability to perform all essential
functions associated with driving a CMV. He is also
taking a narcotic medication. Both of these will
need clearance from a treating provider prior to
making a decision regarding certification
A bipolar driver has been stable for 5 years without
any manic or major depressive episodes.Paperwork
from his mental health provider confirms this. He is
treated with lithium. What is the best certification
period? Correct Answers 1 year
Lithium therapy has not been shown to interfere
with safe driving. For stable bipolar disorder,
guidance recommends a one-year certification.
A commercial driver is taking Coumadin for a
diagnosis of atrial fibrillation. As the medical
examiner you explain to the driver that: Correct
Answers He must undergo monthly INR
monitoring.
For a patient taking Coumadin, the maximum
certification period is 1 year.Recommend to certify
the driver if the driver is stabilized on medication
for at least 1 month, provides a copy of the INR
results at the examination, and has at least
monthly INR monitorin
