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AANA NBCRNA Study test in depth Examination and 100% correctly verified Solutions Latest version 2024/2025

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AANA NBCRNA Study test in depth Examination and 100% correctly verified Solutions Latest version 2024/2025 A mainstem intubation is more likely to occur with? - correct answer neck flexion & trendelenberg Abg for pt with severe chronic obstructive sleep apnea shows? - correct answer hypercarbia & hypoxemia Which factors are responsible for sore throat following lma use? - correct answer cuff overinflation & long surgical duration The anesthesia provider starts an anesthetic, turns on vent after pt has been intubated. Immediately the oxygen low pressure alarm begins to signal. What is the 1st step in mgmt of this incident? - correct answer fully open backup oxygen cylinder & disconnect pipeline Following the administration of an inter scalene block, the pt reports dyspnea. This most likely results from paralysis of which cervical nerves? - correct answer 3, 4, & 5 In supine position under mechanical ventilation, a normal tv in ml for an 80kg adult is? - correct answer 600ml A pt with diabetic nephropathy is undergoing a radiologic procedure with radiocontrast dye under general anesthesia. What actions can anesthesia provider take to limit the renal effects of the dye? - correct answer prehydration with ivf The most appropriate treatment for a 75kg male who develops a laryngospasm that cannot be relieved with continuous ppv is the administration of? - correct answer suxx 20mg

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Publié le
20 février 2025
Nombre de pages
41
Écrit en
2024/2025
Type
Examen
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AANA NBCRNA Essential Test Toolkit Exam Questions
and Approved with Distinction Marking Scheme Latest
2024/2025

What is the primary pathway of etomidate metabolism? - correct answer ester
hydrolysis driven by plasma esterases and microsomal enzymes


What drugs must be avoided with acute intermittent poryphyrias? - correct answer
etomidate, barbiturates, glucocorticoids, hydralazine


Treatment for acute intermittent poryphyrias - correct answer glucose and heme
arginate


Rank iv anesthetics from most to least plasma protein binding - correct answer
propofol, midazolam, dexmedetomidine, etomidate, ketamine


What pias are methyl isopropyl ethers? Methyl ethyl ethers? - correct answer methyl
isopropyl ether = sevoflurane


Methyl ethyl ether = isoflurane and desflurane


What pia is not metabolized to tfa? - correct answer sevoflurane not metabolized to tfa,
but is broken down to inorganic fluoride ions


What local anesthetics can cause methemoglobinemia? - correct answer benzocaine,
cetacaine (contains benzocaine), prilocaine, emla cream (contains prilocaine)


What are the three components of a local anesthetic molecule? - correct answer
benzene ring, intermediate chain (ester vs amide), tertiary amine


What local anesthetic is metabolized to o-toluidine? - correct answer prilocaine

,Maximum dose of cocaine when used as a local anesthetic in adults - correct answer
150-200 mg


What subunits must be occupied to open the nicotinic receptor at the motor end plate? -
correct answer two alpha subunits


What are the five subunits on the nicotinic receptor? - correct answer 2 alpha, 1 beta,
1 delta, 1 epsilon


What are the two pathological variants of the nicotinic receptor? - correct answer 1)
episilon replaced by gamma subunit


2) 5 alpha subunits


What causes fade during train of four stimulation? - correct answer antagonism of
presynaptic nn receptors


Why do nondepolarizers cause a phase ii block? - correct answer inhibit the
presynaptic nicotinic receptor ach mobilization is impaired


Best place to measure onset of blockade (intubation conditions) vs recovery of blockade
(return of upper airway muscle function) - correct answer onset = orbicularis oculi or
corrugator supercilii (facial nerve)


Return = adductor policis (ulnar nerve) or flexor hallucis


Its difficult to detect visual or tactile fade when the tof > ____ - correct answer 0.4


What drugs reduce pseudocholinesterase activity? - correct answer metoclopramide,
esmolol, neostigmine, echothiophate, oral contraceptives, mao inhibitors,
cyclophosphamide, nitrogen mustard

,With atypical plasma cholinesterase, pseudocholinesterase is not produced in sufficient
quantities and will prolong the duration of action for succinylcholine. T or f - correct
answer false, pseudocholinesterase is produced in sufficient quanities but the enzyme
that is produced is not functional


Who is at highest risk of myalgias after sux administration? - correct answer young
adults undergoing ambulatory surgery (women>men)


How do multiple sclerosis affect depolarizers vs nondepolarizers - correct answer
depolarizers = hyperkalemia


Nondepolarizers = sensitive


What neuromuscular disease causes a resistance to sux - correct answer myasthenia
gravis


What nmb is long-acting? - correct answer pancuronium (85 min duration)


What electrolyte disturbances potentiate neuromuscular blocking agents? (lithium,
magnesium, calcium, potassium) - correct answer increased lithium, increased
magnesium, decreased calcium, decreased potassium


What nmbs cause release of histamine? - correct answer sux, atracurium, mivacurium


What is unique about pancuronium? - correct answer has vagolytic properties making
it good for bradycardia or regurgitant lesions


Opioids decrease the incidence of myalgias. T or f - correct answer false. Pretreatment
1/10 dose of nondepolarizer, nsaids, lidocaine, and a higher dose of sux reduce the risk.

, What drug inhibits acetylcholinesterase via electrostatic attachment? - correct answer
edrophonium


What drug noncompetitively inhibits acetylcholinesterase? - correct answer
echothiophate/organophosphates


Pyridostigmine vs edrophonium dose - correct answer pyridostigmine = 0.3 mg/kg


Edrophonium = 1 mg/kg


Pyridostigmine crosses the bbb making it useful for treating central anticholinergic
syndrome. T or f - correct answer false, physostigmine crosses bbb (useful for
anticholinergic syndrome)


What muscarinic antagonist causes the most sedation? - correct answer scopolamine


Opioid receptor moa - correct answer opioid binds to receptor, activates g protein,
adenylate cyclase is inhibited, camp is inhibited, ca conductance is decreased, k
conductance is increased


What are the endogenous ligands of mu, kappa, and delta receptors? - correct answer
mu = endorphins


Kappa = dynorphins


Delta = enkephalins


Key side effects of kappa receptor stimulation - correct answer dysphoria,
antishivering, diuresis
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