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Examen

Test Bank For Medical Genetics 6th Edition By Authors Lynn B. Jorde, John C. Carey, Michael J. Bamshad.

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282
Grade
A+
Publié le
15-10-2024
Écrit en
2024/2025

Chapter 9: Immunogenetics 1. Which of the following best describes immunogenetics? A) The study of genes involved in immune responses B) The study of infectious diseases C) The study of cancer genetics D) The study of hereditary disorders Answer: A Rationale: Immunogenetics focuses on the genetic factors that influence the immune system's response to pathogens and diseases. NCLEX preference: Understanding immunogenetics is crucial for assessing patient responses to infections and vaccinations. 2. Which type of immune cell is primarily involved in the adaptive immune response? A) Macrophages B) Neutrophils C) T cells D) Natural killer cells Answer: C Rationale: T cells play a central role in the adaptive immune response, including the activation of other immune cells and the direct attack on infected cells. NCLEX preference: Knowledge of immune cell functions is essential for understanding immune responses and related disorders. 3. What is the primary function of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules? A) To produce antibodies B) To present antigens to T cells C) To activate complement proteins D) To stimulate B cells Answer: B Rationale: MHC molecules present antigens to T cells, which is crucial for initiating the adaptive immune response. NCLEX preference: Understanding MHC function is important for transplant immunology and autoimmune disease management. 4. A patient has an autoimmune disorder. Which genetic factor might contribute to the development of this condition? A) Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) B) Chromosomal abnormalities C) Gene duplications D) Gene deletions Answer: A Rationale: SNPs in genes associated with immune regulation can contribute to the risk of autoimmune diseases by affecting immune system function. NCLEX preference: Recognizing genetic risk factors in autoimmune disorders aids in patient education and management strategies. 5. Which type of immunoglobulin is primarily found in mucosal areas and plays a key role in mucosal immunity? A) IgA B) IgG C) IgM D) IgE Answer: A Rationale: IgA is the main antibody found in mucosal areas, such as the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts, helping to protect against pathogens at these sites. NCLEX preference: Understanding the role of different immunoglobulins is vital for evaluating immune responses in various clinical scenarios. 6. What is the significance of human leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing in transplantation? A) To prevent infections post-transplant B) To ensure compatibility between donor and recipient C) To monitor organ rejection D) To assess immune response to pathogens Answer: B Rationale: HLA typing is crucial for determining compatibility between donor organs and recipients, reducing the risk of transplant rejection. NCLEX preference: Knowledge of HLA typing is essential for nursing care related to organ transplantation. 7. A patient receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize? A) Monitor for signs of infection B) Administer antibiotics prophylactically C) Increase fluid intake D) Encourage high-fiber foods Answer: A Rationale: Neutropenia increases the risk of infections; therefore, monitoring for signs of infection is critical in managing the patient's health. NCLEX preference: Awareness of the implications of neutropenia enhances patient safety and care planning. 8. Which autoimmune disease is associated with the presence of anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies? A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) C) Multiple sclerosis D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis Answer: B Rationale: Anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and are used in its diagnosis. NCLEX preference: Understanding specific antibodies related to autoimmune diseases supports accurate diagnosis and management. 9. Which of the following best describes the concept of tolerance in immunology? A) The ability to recognize pathogens B) The ability to differentiate self from non-self C) The ability to mount a rapid immune response D) The ability to produce antibodies Answer: B Rationale: Immunological tolerance refers to the immune system's ability to distinguish between self and non-self antigens, preventing attacks on the body's own tissues. NCLEX preference: Knowledge of tolerance is essential for understanding autoimmune conditions and transplantation. 10. What is the role of cytokines in the immune response? A) To produce antibodies B) To enhance the activity of immune cells C) To destroy pathogens directly D) To present antigens Answer: B Rationale: Cytokines are signaling molecules that enhance and regulate the activity of various immune cells, playing a vital role in coordinating the immune response. NCLEX preference: Understanding cytokines helps in interpreting immune responses and guiding treatment strategies. 11. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by an immediate allergic response? A) Type I hypersensitivity B) Type II hypersensitivity C) Type III hypersensitivity D) Type IV hypersensitivity Answer: A Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity is an immediate allergic reaction mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to symptoms like asthma and anaphylaxis. NCLEX preference: Recognizing hypersensitivity reactions is crucial for effective patient assessment and interventio

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Publié le
15 octobre 2024
Nombre de pages
282
Écrit en
2024/2025
Type
Examen
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Test Bank For Medical Genetics 6th Edition
By Authors: Lynn B. Jorde, John C. Carey, Michael J. Bamshad

@2024

,Chapter 1 - Background and History

1. Which of the following are examples of Mendelian inheritance? (Select all that apply)

A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Down syndrome
C) Hemophilia A
D) Huntington's disease
E) Turner syndrome

Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: Mendelian inheritance refers to single-gene disorders inherited in a dominant,
recessive, or X-linked pattern. Cystic fibrosis (autosomal recessive), Hemophilia A (X-linked
recessive), and Huntington's disease (autosomal dominant) are examples of Mendelian
inheritance. Down syndrome (chromosomal abnormality) and Turner syndrome (chromosomal
condition) are not.
NCLEX preference: Test-takers must understand genetic inheritance patterns and differentiate
between Mendelian and non-Mendelian conditions.

2. What is the significance of Gregor Mendel’s contribution to genetics?

A) Discovered DNA as the genetic material
B) Established the principles of inheritance
C) Mapped the human genome
D) Discovered the double-helix structure of DNA

Answer: B
Rationale: Gregor Mendel, known as the "Father of Genetics," established the principles of
inheritance (dominant and recessive traits) through his work with pea plants. Options A, C, and
D are associated with later discoveries in genetics.
NCLEX preference: Basic understanding of foundational genetic principles is required.

3. A patient has a family history of Huntington's disease, which is an autosomal dominant
condition. What is the chance that this patient will inherit the disorder if one parent is
affected?

A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 0%

Answer: B
Rationale: In autosomal dominant inheritance, there is a 50% chance of passing the affected
allele from an affected parent to a child. Each child has an independent 1 in 2 chance of
inheriting the disorder.
NCLEX preference: Recognizing inheritance risks in genetic counseling is vital for nurses.

,4. Which of the following is a hallmark of X-linked recessive inheritance?

A) Equal incidence in males and females
B) Higher incidence in males than females
C) Direct father-to-son transmission
D) All children of affected mothers will inherit the disorder

Answer: B
Rationale: X-linked recessive disorders primarily affect males, as they only have one X
chromosome. Fathers cannot pass X-linked recessive conditions to their sons, and not all
children of affected mothers will inherit the disorder unless the father is also affected.
NCLEX preference: Understanding X-linked inheritance patterns helps in clinical assessments
and patient education.

5. Which genetic disorder is most commonly associated with non-disjunction during
meiosis?

A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Down syndrome
C) Marfan syndrome
D) Sickle cell anemia

Answer: B
Rationale: Down syndrome is commonly caused by non-disjunction during meiosis, resulting in
an extra chromosome 21. The other disorders listed are caused by gene mutations, not
chromosomal abnormalities.
NCLEX preference: Nurses must identify the cause of chromosomal disorders and recognize
their clinical implications.

6. What does the term "genotype" refer to in genetics?

A) The observable physical traits of an individual
B) The location of a gene on a chromosome
C) The genetic makeup of an individual
D) The process of gene mutation

Answer: C
Rationale: Genotype refers to the genetic constitution of an individual, i.e., the alleles present at
a particular locus or loci. The phenotype refers to the observable traits.
NCLEX preference: Definitions of key genetic terms are crucial for test-takers.

7. In mitochondrial inheritance, which of the following statements is true?

A) Mitochondrial DNA is inherited equally from both parents
B) Only males can pass mitochondrial DNA to offspring

, C) Only females pass mitochondrial DNA to their children
D) Mitochondrial disorders are caused by mutations in nuclear DNA

Answer: C
Rationale: Mitochondrial DNA is inherited exclusively from the mother. Both male and female
offspring can inherit the mitochondrial DNA, but only females pass it on.
NCLEX preference: Nurses should understand maternal inheritance patterns in genetic
diseases.

8. Which of the following best describes the Human Genome Project?

A) A project focused on creating synthetic genomes
B) A research initiative to identify all the genes in human DNA
C) A project aimed at identifying genetic mutations in cancer
D) A clinical trial for gene therapy

Answer: B
Rationale: The Human Genome Project was an international research initiative with the goal of
mapping all human genes and understanding their functions.
NCLEX preference: Familiarity with major advances in genetics is essential for modern
healthcare practice.

9. In autosomal recessive inheritance, if both parents are carriers, what is the probability
that their child will express the disorder?

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%

Answer: A
Rationale: In autosomal recessive inheritance, when both parents are carriers, there is a 25%
chance that their child will inherit two copies of the mutated gene and express the disorder.
NCLEX preference: Understanding inheritance patterns is key for nurses in genetic counseling.

10. Which of the following historical milestones is associated with the discovery of DNA's
double-helix structure?

A) Gregor Mendel's experiments
B) The Human Genome Project
C) Watson and Crick's work
D) The discovery of X-linked inheritance

Answer: C
Rationale: James Watson and Francis Crick are credited with discovering the double-helix
structure of DNA in 1953.
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