NR602 Final Exam Study Guide Questions And 100% Guaranteed Answers.

Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum? a. Verruciform b. Plaque-like c. Vesicular d. Bullous - correct answer a 39yo female has completed course of amox for strep throat. LMP was 2wks ago, says it was normal. On exam, there's erythema of extern. genitalia w/small amount of white discharge. Micro wet prep reveals few clue cells, but many budding hyphae. No WBCs. Which one would be the most appropriate treatment? a. Metronidazole 500mg BID x7 days b. OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID c. Fluconazole tabs 150mg x1 dose d. Erythromycin 500mg TID x10 days - correct answer c Woman c/o vaginal itching, white discharge. She is in good health except for recent abx for strep throat. Pelvic reveals tender vulvovaginal area w/edema and nonmalodorous white patches. Which is the most likely cause? a. Bacterial vaginosis b. Trichomonas c. Lactobacillus overgrowth d. Candidiasis - correct answer d 18yo female c/o secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is normal secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out. What would necessitate further eval? a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels b. Androgen deficiency c. Galactorrhea d. Hirsutism - correct answer c 24yo female is dx'd w/primary dysmenorrhea. Which med would be used as first-line to help control symptoms? a. Antianxiety meds b. Progesterone-only contraception c. Oral steroids d. NSAIDs - correct answer d Primary amenorrhea is best described as: a. Cessation of menstruation x6mo b. Failure of menstruation to occur by 17ho c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13yo d. Cessation of menstruation x6mo after menarche - correct answer c 25yo female c/o vaginal irritation and discharge. On exam, cervix is easily friable and erythematous. No adnexal tenderness. Wet prep reveals mobile protozoa on NS slide. This most likely represents: a. Trichomonas b. Mucopurulent cervicitis c. Bacterial vaginosis d. Gonorrhea - correct answer a 16yo female has h/o secondary amenorrhea. Menarche at 10yo, regular cycles x2yrs, has not menstruated x4yrs. What is most frequent etiology of this problem? a. Eating disorder b. Pregnancy c. Anovulatory cycles d. Stress - correct answer a Woman is experiencing vaginal discharge. Wet mount with KOH would be used to confirm: a. Herpes simplex b. Gonorrhea c. Candidiasis d. Chlamydia - correct answer c Treatment options for condyloma acuminatum include: a. Imiquimod (Aldera) b. Azithromycin c. Acyclovir d. Metronidazole - correct answer a 25yo postmenopausal female c/o pain in upper outer quadrant of L breast x1mo. Best course of action would be: a. Reassure pt that pain is often not presenting symptom of breast cancer. b. Teach pt breast self-exam. c. Order labs as most likely this is secondary to hormonal fluctuation d. Perform breast exam and order mammo - correct answer d PID typically presents with all of the followin