Summary ACE Health Coach Exam Bank Guide for Certification.

ACE Health Coach Exam Bank Guide for Certification Guide, Answered 600+ Questions 2022/2023. ACE Health Coach Exam Bank Guide for Certification. 1. Which of the following aptitudes related to health improvement involves creating a sense of autonomy, competence, and relatedness to life? a. The ability to enjoy b. The ability to choose c. The ability to keep developing d. The ability to see meaning 2. From a coaching perspective, what is often a major limitation for client success? a. A client's inner critical voice b. A client's listening skills c. A client's lack of knowledge d. A client's schedule 3. Which of the following terms represents the ability to recognize one's own feelings, as well as the feelings of others? a. Psychological intelligence b. Emotional intelligence c. Behavioral intelligence d. Interpersonal intelligence 4. Which of the following components of emotional intelligence involves understanding the emotions, needs, and concerns of others? a. Self-awareness b. Self-regulation c. Empathy d. Social skills 5. Jason is a successful health coach who enjoys a very full schedule working with a variety of clients. When asked about why they think Jason is so good at his job, his clients often report that Jason communicates clearly, makes them feel like they are part of a cooperative team, and inspires them to work hard. These characteristics describe which competency within the arena of emotional intelligence? a. Self-awareness b. Self-regulation c. Empathy d. Social skills 6. When Susan meets with her health coach, Matthew, she appreciates how Matthew summarizes what she says and then asks if there is anything that was misunderstood in his summary. What communication skill is Matthew using in this situation? a. Active listening b. Motivational interviewing c. Positive listening d. Empathetic questioning 7. If a client perceives changing his or her eating habits as unbearable because of the feeling of having to give everything up at once, he or she is likely suffering from a type of cognitive style called _______________. a. Full-preference thinking b. Dissociative disorder c. Neuro-linguistic programming d. Absolutistic demanding 8. Which of the following fields of practice is most similar to what health coaches offer to clients in their services? a. Personal/life coaching b. Family counseling c. Sports performance coaching d. Behavioural counselling 9. Which response best describes a health coach's role in facilitating behavioral change? a. A health coach directs the behavior to be changed b. A health coach develops the plan of action for change c. A health coach creates the environment to foster change d. A health coach manages the rewards and consequences as a result of change 10. If a client has an uncontrolled chronic condition (such as diabetes) or a history of diet failures or weight-cycling, a referral to which of the following healthcare professionals would be most appropriate? a. Registered dietitian b. Licensed behavioral specialist c. Nutritionist d. Occupational therapist 11. Renee is a health coach who works with many clients who have chronic health conditions. She communicates regularly with her clients' physicians to keep them informed of their progress in her programs. In her communications, Renee is careful to document client measurements and any noticeable symptoms, which are characteristics of what element of the SOAP note? a. Subjective b. Objective c. Assessment d. Plan 12. If, for whatever reason, the client-health coach relationship must be discontinued, which of the following responses represents the best exit strategy for the health coach? a. Hiring a lawyer to communicate with the client that the business relationship is no longer tenable for the parties b. Stating upfront that if certain landmarks are not achieved within a particular agreed-upon timeframe, the relationship may need to be terminated c. Providing a full refund for any services rendered to the client in exchange for future referrals to the health coach's business d. Recommending that the client seek his or her own professional help elsewhere due to an inability to resolve conflict 13. Knowing your own capabilities, having integrity, taking responsibility for results, and having a clear intent are components of what kind of trust when developing the foundation of a relationship? a. Relationship trust b. Self-trust c. Character trust d. Rapport trust 14. Which of the following communication components involves creating a carefully constructed message so that the intent of the communication is understood? a. Planning b. Encoding c. Decoding d. Offering feedback 15. Tory is a new client who enjoys helping others and is not comfortable making quick decisions. During your initial interview with Tory, she reveals that she is very focused on her relationships with her family and friends and that she spends much of her free time helping them in various ways. Which personality type best describes Tory? a. Dominant b. Cautious c. Inspiring d. Supportive 16. Abbey is a research scientist at a chemical company. Upon hiring a health coach to help her manage her weight and improve her eating habits, she explains that she is skeptical of most weight-loss programs and would like to see any peer-reviewed research that supports the health coach's recommendations. Which personality type best describes Abbey? a. Dominant b. Cautious c. Inspiring d. Supportive 17. According to early research on factors involved when conveying a message, approximately what total percentage of the message communicated is made up of nonverbal language? a. 17 b. 38 c. 55 d. 90 18. During the initial goal-setting process, Danny asks his client, Sarah, the following questions: "How have things changed for you because of your weight? What do you believe will happen if you continue as you are now? If things were to improve, what needs to be different? What do you believe are the costs of changing and the benefits of changing?" What type of investigatory technique is Danny using to evoke thoughtful responses from Sarah? a. Motivational interviewing b. Funnel-type questioning c. Empathetic interviewing d. Leading questioning 19. When health coaches encourage clients to engage in regular physical activity, make healthy nutrition choices, and properly manage emotional stress, they are facilitating a reduced risk of _______________. a. Behavioral relapses b. Musculoskeletal injuries c. Nutritional deficiencies d. Hypokinetic diseases 20. Within the medical fitness field's continuum of care, at what point does the health coach typically begin to work with a client? a. Before the client receives any medical attention b. When the client initiates primary care with a physician c. During the period when the client is seeing a physical therapist d. When the client is ready for post-rehabilitation or post-medical care services 21. Which of the following factors of operant conditioning heavily influences behavioral outcomes and occurs after a behavior is executed? a. Antecedents b. Response consequences c. Stimulus control d. Social support 22. The cornerstone of cognitive behavioral therapy is that a client's ____________ determine how he or she behaves, not the external events that actually take place. a. Actions b. Demographics c. Attitudes d. Beliefs 23. Jim has been hearing a lot from his friend, Mike, about Mike's new health coach. Currently, Jim engages in a sporadic walk, or even a visit to the gym, but he is very inconsistent with physical activity. Jim often asks Mike about specifics for creating his own plan. Mike suggests that Jim set up an appointment with his health coach to investigate weight-loss programs, health clubs, and planning how a diet and/or exercise program can fit into his lifestyle and schedule. Jim tells Mike he will arrange to meet with Mike's health coach. In what stage of change is Jim? a. Precontemplation b. Contemplation c. Preparation d. Action 24. During a brief encounter at a health fair where Elizabeth is promoting her services as a health coach, she asks her potential new client, Jack, "On a scale of 1 to 10, how ready do you believe you are to make this change or adopt this healthy behavior?" Jack answers, "I'd say about a 3." Based on his answer, in which stage of change would you categorize Jack? a. Precontemplation b. Contemplation c. Preparation d. Action 25. Which of the following strategies would be most appropriate for a client who has been working on incorporating physical activity into his lifestyle and has made it to the maintenance stage of behavior change? a. Plan for potential lapses b. Reiterate the long-term benefits of adherence c. Explain and personalize the inherent risks of physical activity d. Help the client identify social support 26. _______________ can act as both a determinant and an outcome of behavioral change. a. Self-determination b. Self-esteem c. Self-efficacy d. Self-confidence 27. Before shopping, Jessica makes a grocery list and avoids purchasing non-listed items, with the intent that if poor quality food is not in the house, it will not be eaten. Jessica is using which of the following strategies to facilitate healthy eating? a. Shaping b. Stimulus control c. Goal-setting d. Extrinsic feedback 28. When Jack was in elementary school, he participated in physical education activities only because he had to, simply to avoid punishment. Today, Jack has a career as a health coach and participates in daily exercise because he truly enjoys the way it makes him feel while he is doing it. Which of the following types of motivation best describes Jack's physical-activity experiences when he was a child? a. Integrated regulation b. Identified regulation c. Introjected regulation d. External regulation 29. Paul, a very busy accountant, has a goal of incorporating exercise into his daily schedule. When tax season approaches, Paul knows his schedule will become even more hectic and as each day wears on, his work-related list of responsibilities typically gets longer. Based on available research conducted on the topic of self-control, which of the following responses would be the best approach to help Paul stick to his exercise plan? a. Plan to block out the lunch hour and reserve it for daily workouts b. Schedule daily workouts at the fitness center on the way home from work c. Plan to fit in "mini" exercise sessions between meetings with clients throughout the day d. Schedule daily morning exercise sessions, before the workday starts 30. Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding an individual's self-control? a. Self-control is a limited resource b. The force of habit requires a high level self-control c. Coping with stress requires a certain level of self-control d. Self-control appears to be renewed daily 31. _______________ is the most common reason that people abandon their plans to change behavior. a. A busy schedule b. Stress c. Depression d. Lack of knowledge 32. Which of the following lifestyle-modification strategies deals specifically with helping clients achieve success early in their programs by setting realistic goals that they can reasonably accomplish? a. Strengthen autonomous motivation to change b. Increase readiness to change c. Encourage clients to modify environmental cues d. Look for ways to increase self-efficacy 33. Janna has said in the past, "I must be perfect in my weight-control behaviors." Recently, she has been guided by a health coach to rephrase such thoughts as, "Nobody is perfect. I am making improvements in several areas, such as drinking more water and stretching daily, and I am getting healthier and stronger every day." What behavior-modification technique did the health coach use in this instance? a. Problem-solving b. Self-assessment c. Cognitive restructuring d. Negative mood management 34. In which stage of behavior change do clients experience the highest levels of self-efficacy, and thus self-reliance? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance 35. Within which of the following spheres of the social-ecological model does a health coach have the most influence over his or her clients? a. Community b. School c. Interpersonal d. Individual 36. Patricia realizes that for her client, Rick, to feel motivated he needs to experience a connection with other people with similar interests. Thus, Patricia identifies other people in the fitness center where she works who are interested in the same kind of walking program that Rick is. Ultimately, she helps to form a walking club on the weekends for Rick and the other members. This is an example of which strategy for establishing self-reliance in clients? a. Establish self-efficacy through goal-setting b. Encourage clients to practice behaviors on their own c. Help clients find and implement a support system d. Help clients create or maintain an environment that fosters success 37. Todd has hired Matt as his health coach to help him make better nutrition choices. Todd confided in Matt that he often finds himself snacking on junk food during the workday and while at home watching television. Which of the following approaches would be the most appropriate first step for Matt to suggest to help Todd create an environment that fosters success? a. Ask Todd to identify those places or cues that encourage unhealthy behaviors by taking an inventory of his home and workspace b. Recommend that Todd to throw out all of his junk food he has stored at work and at home c. Suggest that Todd place a note that says "get up and walk" on his refrigerator at home d. Educate Todd about healthy snaking versus eating junk food and ask him to keep a food log for one week 38. A primary difference between disaccharides, oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides is _______________. a. The number of sugar compounds linked together that make up the molecule b. The number of calories per gram of the carbohydrate in which the molecule is found c. That each different molecule is found in different types of caloric sweeteners d. That each different molecule is found in different types of non-caloric sweeteners 39. Why do food manufacturers tend to favor high-fructose corn syrup over other types of caloric sweeteners for use in their products? a. Decreased cost of production b. Increased feelings of satiety c. Reduced risk of insulin resistance d. Decreased amount of "empty calories" 40. Which of the following terms represents a positive nitrogen balance, in which the body produces more protein than it breaks down and which occurs in times of growth such as childhood, pregnancy, recovery from illness, and in response to resistance training when overloading the muscles promotes protein synthesis? a. Catabolism b. Anabolism c. Hypermetabolism d. Hypometabolism 41. Which of the following types of fatty-acid structures represents the chemical form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body? a. Adipocytes b. Phospholipids c. Cholesterol d. Triglycerides 42. Which of the following structures of the gastrointestinal tract represents the site of the majority of food digestion and absorption in the human body? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine 43. In which of the following nutrients might a client become deficient if he or she has a medical condition or is taking a medication that impairs fat absorption? a. Folate b. Calcium c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin A 44. The latest hydration recommendations for the average adult exerciser are to __________. a. Drink 8 ounces of fluids before, during, and after most types of exercises b. Follow individualized hydration regimens and let thirst be the guide - if thirsty, drink water c. Avoid over-hydration (hyponatremia) by limiting fluid intake until after an exercise session d. Reduce the risk of dehydration by drinking enough fluids while exercising to gain weight during the exercise session 45. Jeffery is a 65-year-old retiree who has hypertension and is currently limiting his sodium intake to 2,300 mg per day. According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, to what amount could Jeffery limit his daily sodium intake for even greater blood pressure reduction? a. 1000mg b. 1500mg c. 2000mg d. 1800mg 46. For the first time since their inception, the 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans explicitly recommend that Americans _______________. a. Limit fat intake b. Reduce sodium c. Minimize trans fatty acids d. Eat less 47. Review the nutrition information below. Which of the following represents the percentage of calories from carbohydrate, protein, and fat in a serving of this food item? 48. Nutrition Information 49. Serving size: 3 tablespoons (30 g), Servings per container: About 22, Amount per serving, Calories: 217, Total fat: 21 g, Saturated fat: 2 g, Trans fat: 0 g, Cholesterol: 0 mg, Sodium: 0 mg, Total carbohydrate: 3 g, Dietary fiber: 2 g, Sugars: 1 g, Protein: 4 g, a. 6% carbohydrate; 7% protein; 87% fat b. 10% carbohydrate; 15% protein; 75% fat c. 13% carbohydrate; 17% protein; 70% fat d. 20% carbohydrate; 25% protein; 55% fat 50. John is a 175-pound, healthy, recreational exerciser. According to the American Dietetic Association (Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics) and the American College of Sports Medicine, how much daily protein intake is appropriate for John? a. 30 to 48 g b. 50 to 68 g c. 70 to 88 g d. 90 to 108 g 51. According to the ACE Position Statement on Nutritional Supplements, what should a health coach do if he or she works at a place of business that expects the health coach to promote or sell nutritional supplements? a. Consider changing employers to find a location that does not require health coaches to sell nutritional supplements b. Take a continuing education course to add the credential of "nutritionist" to the health coach's qualifications c. Before selling any nutritional supplements to clients, inform them that the federal government does not regulate these items d. Ensure that the health coach's employer possesses adequate insurance coverage for him or her should a problem arise 52. Which of the following snacks would be most beneficial for post-exercise fueling to replenish glycogen stores and facilitate muscle repair? a. Whole-grain toast with peanut butter b. Plain white bagel with cream cheese c. Carrots, celery, and raisins d. Bowl of mixed berries 53. Which of the following strategies would contradict the National Eating Disorders Association's recommendations for dealing with a client who is suspected of having, or who has been diagnosed with, an eating disorder? a. Suggest weekly body-weight checks to ensure the client is staying on track b. Do not assume that reducing body fat or weight will improve performance c. Help other fitness professionals recognize the signs of eating disorders d. Emphasize the health risks of low weight 54. Which of the following tools for understanding a client's current dietary habits makes it LEAST likely that the client will forget to include foods in the process? a. Food diary b. Food record c. 24-hour recall d. Food-frequency questionnaire 55. Which of the following responses represents the two overarching concepts put forth by the 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans? a. Maintain calorie balance to achieve and sustain a healthy weight and focus on nutrient-dense foods and beverages b. Prevent a gradual age-related weight gain and prevent decreases in metabolism over time c. Consult a healthcare provider about weight-loss strategies and ensure appropriate management of chronic conditions d. Choose more nutrient-dense foods and reduce foods or food components consumed in excessive amounts 56. Which of the following activities would be outside the scope of practice for a health coach working with clients? a. A health coach refers her overweight and obese clients to a website known for healthy recipes b. After determining his morbidly obese client needs to lose significant weight, a health coach gives the client advice on a very-low-calorie diet c. A health coach gives a competitive athlete eating strategies for pre- and post-exercise nutrition d. After being hired at a health club, a health coach develops and implements a lecture series educating members on weight-loss physiology 57. Kerry is 5'7" and weighs 190 lb. What is her BMI? a. 19 kg/m2 b. 25 kg/m2 c. 30 kg/m2 d. 35 kg/m2 58. Obesity that occurs later in life is associated with _______________. a. An increase in the number of adipocytes b. An enlargement of the existing fat cells c. A pear-shaped body-fat distribution pattern d. More fat distributed in the extremities versus the trunk 59. Which of the following nutrients is the most metabolically costly to convert and store as fat in the body (i.e., which nutrient takes the most energy to break down and store as body fat if there is an excess of this type of nutrient present)? a. Carbohydrate b. Fat c. Protein d. Alcohol 60. What component of human daily energy expenditure contributes the least amount of energy to the overall daily total? a. Resting metabolic rate b. Basal metabolic rate c. Thermic effect of food d. Activity thermogenesis 61. Which of the following hormones is produced by the pancreatic ß-cells and secreted in response to elevated blood glucose levels? a. Insulin b. Leptin c. Ghrelin d. Cholecystokinin 62. What hormone has been found in obese children and adults to circulate in direct proportion to adipose tissue mass when weight is stable, in amounts four times higher than in lean individuals? a. Insulin b. Leptin c. Ghrelin d. Cholecystokinin 63. Which of the following environmental factors is independently associated with obesity? a. The presence of supermarkets in one's neighborhood b. Working near many fast-food restaurants c. Living more than 25 miles away from the workplace d. Living in a low-income neighborhood 64. Over the past year, Cynthia has gained 15 pounds. Assuming this weight gain is the result of excess energy intake, how many total extra calories has Cynthia consumed beyond her body's average daily needs to create the added weight over the past year? a. 35,000 calories b. 46,500 calories c. 52,500 calories d. 60,000 calories 65. Which type of diet has been shown (more than the others listed) to promote satiety and thermogenesis? a. Carbohydrate-restricted diet b. High-fat diet c. High-protein diet d. Detoxification diet 66. Which of the following statements about the glycemic index is true? a. The glycemic index of a food reflects its overall nutritional value b. The glycemic index of a food is affected by cooking, ripeness, protein and fat content, and handling c. A high-glycemic food is less nutritious than a low-glycemic food d. Low-glycemic foods cause a spike in blood glucose may lead to overeating and subsequent weight gain 67. Which of the following statements about programming for weight loss is most accurate? a. Fasting allows an individual to lose weight rapidly and is appropriate for kick-starting long-term weight loss b. Carbohydrate-restricted diets appear to be best eating plan for both short- and long-term weight loss c. In general, bariatric surgery is the most effective tool for helping people lose weight and keep it off long-term d. Increasing activity, with a modest restriction in calories, is the most advisable way to tip the scale toward weight loss 68. Which of the following medical symptoms of untreated anorexia nervosa (AN) is directly related to arrythmias of the heart? a. Low potassium levels b. Atrophy of the gut c. Diminished peristalsis d. Osteopenia or osteoporosis 69. What psychological problem is most frequently suffered both by individuals with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa? a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder b. Post-traumatic stress disorder c. Schizophrenia d. Depression 70. What are the three symptoms associated with the female athlete triad? a. Dysmenorrhea, anorexia nervosa, and osteoporosis b. Amenorrhea, disordered eating, and osteoporosis c. Oligomenorrhea, disordered eating, and osteopenia d. Amenorrhea, bulimia nervosa, and osteopenia 71. Which of the following statements about self-efficacy is most accurate? a. If a client's self-efficacy is high, he or she will be more likely to drop out b. Client self-efficacy levels should be evaluated for the first time about midway through a lifestyle-management program c. Self-efficacy is a dynamic construct, meaning that it can change from day to day d. Clients with low self-efficacy should be challenged with vigorous-intensity workouts at the very beginning of their exercise programs 72. Which of the following responses represents a factor that can erroneously lead clients to put the responsibility of program success on the health coach, removing their own personal responsibility from the equation? a. Lack of rapport b. Decreased self-efficacy c. Past experience d. Unclear expectations 73. When interviewing clients, Stacey matches their gestures, facial expressions, and body positioning to promote a strong connection. What approach for enhancing rapport is Stacey demonstrating when she mirrors her clients in this way? a. Nonverbal communication b. Active listening c. Empathy d. Mimicry 74. Which of the following components of communication is a learned skill that is demonstrated by showing concern and genuine interest? a. Active listening b. Empathy c. Open-ended questioning d. Sympathy 75. The psychological environment of the client-health coach relationship is most related to _______________. a. Customer service b. Communication c. First impressions d. Personality 76. Conducting an initial full session of body measurements and strength and cardiovascular tests on a new, overweight client could be disadvantageous because _______________. a. Newcomers to a lifestyle-modification program are essentially going to "fail" most assessments, which may be harmful to self-efficacy, rapport, or program enthusiasm b. New clients should not be charged for a session of assessments since there is no program progress being made in the allotted time c. Assessments should be conducted one per session so that the time for exercise is not drastically reduced d. The time spent discussing the results and explaining how they relate to the client's goals will typically take more time than the session allows 77. Which of the following statements about self-help weight-loss programs is true? a. The safety, effectiveness, and quality of self-help approaches are consistent across most programs b. In general, in self-help programs, one basic approach is recommended for everyone, with little or no individualization c. Most self-help weight-loss programs are associated with commercial-based franchise, with coaches available as resources d. Self-help programs are typically run as an outpatient track associated with a hospital or university 78. The Department of Consumer Affairs of New York City was the first agency to introduce a "Truth-in-Dieting" regulation as a result of the _______________. a. High cost associated with weight-loss programs b. Large number of consumers who were participating in weight-loss program c. Increased opportunity to tax rapid-weight-loss centers' earnings d. Deceptive practices of many rapid-weight-loss centers 79. According to the Institute of Medicine's stepped levels of care for obesity treatment in Weighing the Options: Criteria for Evaluating Weight-Management Programs, in which step is it appropriate to introduce a very-low-calorie diet? a. Step 1 b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4 80. Based on the Institute of Medicine's stepped levels of care for obesity treatment in Weighing the Options: Criteria for Evaluating Weight-Management Programs, in which step can a health coach begin to promote lifestyle change through education, support, and structure? a. Step 1 b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4 81. Which of the following pencil-and-paper assessments is limited by its lack of detail, which may overlook important health conditions, medications, and past injuries? a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) b. American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) coronary artery disease risk factor stratification c. Exercise history and attitude questionnaire d. Weight-loss readiness quiz 82. Based on Jeremy's health data below, which assessment results would you mark as positive risk factors (+1) using the ACSM atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease risk factor thresholds? 83. Jeremy is a 45-year-old restaurateur who works 60 hours or more each week. His physical activity consists of the time he spends walking through his restaurant meeting and greeting customers. The following data are Jeremy's assessment results from his latest visit with his physician. 84. Body weight: 240 lb, Height: 5' 10", LDL cholesterol: 150 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol: 45 mg/dL, Blood pressure: 140/90 mmHg a. LDL cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, and blood pressure b. Age, sedentary lifestyle, BMI, LDL cholesterol, and blood pressure c. Age, body weight, LDL cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol d. Sedentary lifestyle, BMI, HDL cholesterol, and blood pressure 85. Based on the number of positive risk factors determined in the previous question, which of the following intensity recommendations is most appropriate for Jeremy to start with at this time? a. Exercise intensity equivalent to 40-60% VO2max b. Exercise intensity equivalent to 50-70% VO2max c. Exercise intensity equivalent to 55-75% VO2max d. Exercise intensity equivalent to 75-85% VO2max 86. Cynthia is a client who struggles with her choices and portions when she eats out for lunch, which she does almost daily. This type of behavior, which Cynthia would like to change, is labeled _______________. a. Behavioural disintegration b. Behavioural laxity c. Behavioural excess d. Behavioural deficit 87. Harvey has unsuccessfully tried to lose weight in the past. He hires a health coach to help him achieve his weight-loss goals this time. Harvey says his pursuit to lose weight is always brought on by suggestions from his wife and his physician, who are both concerned about his health. He doesn't share their enthusiasm, but is willing to try it again. Which term best describes Harvey's motivation to change his weight? a. Intrinsic motivation b. Extrinsic motivation c. Self-motivation d. Familial motivation 88. Clients who pursue lifestyle behavioral change for their own personal achievement and enjoyment are more likely to _______________. a. Fail b. Drop out c. Persist d. Relapse 89. Which of the following responses best represents the two main characteristics that are most effective when setting small goals? a. Small goals must be meaningful to the client and be within immediate reach b. Small goals should be set by the health coach and achievable within a short time period c. Small goals will be more effective if they are initially general and chosen by the client d. Small goals must be relevant to the health coach's program and be achieved within one year 90. Nick, Liza's new health coach, asks her to write down the advantages and disadvantages of a lifestyle behavior she would like to change. Liza decides she would like to exercise more, so she writes down all of her positive and negative perceptions about exercise, which ultimately helps her connect with the benefits of change and remove barriers to change. What tool did Nick use to help Liza realize the pros and cons of changing her behavior? a. Exercise history and attitude questionnaire b. Physical-activity preferences worksheet c. Personal-belief questionnaire d. Decisional balance worksheet 91. Which of the following terms best describes bodily fat that is necessary for normal functioning and is incorporated into the nerves, brain, heart, lungs, liver, and mammary glands? a. Triglycerides b. Essential fat c. Nonessential fat d. Adipocytes 92. John's circumference measurements are 42 inches at the waist and 36 inches at the hips. Based on these results, which of the following statements is true? a. John exhibits gynoid obesity b. John's waist-to-hip ratio places him in the "average" category c. John exhibits android obesity d. John's waist-to-hip ratio places him in the "good" category 93. Individuals with "normal-weight obesity" reinforce the concept that which of the following health measures can be inherently inaccurate? a. Waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) b. Skinfold measurements c. Body mass index (BMI) d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) 94. Christina is a 60-year-old woman who weighs 190 pounds (86 kg) and has an estimated body fat of 36%. Her goal is to reduce her body fat to 23%. What will her corresponding body weight be when she reaches her goal of 23% body fat? a. 138 lb b. 148 lb c. 158 lb d. 168 lb 95. Which of the following body-composition estimation methods requires the technician to practice the skill many times before becoming proficient at the technique? a. Skinfold measurements b. Circumference measurements c. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) d. Near infrared interactance (NIR) 96. During John's first exercise session with his new health coach, Mitch, he learns how to find his pulse for heart-rate monitoring. Mitch teaches him to palpate his wrist below the palm on the same side as his thumb. Which pulse site is Mitch teaching John to use? a. Carotid artery b. Radial artery c. Ulnar artery d. Femoral artery 97. After several minutes of sitting and talking with his new client, Terry takes an estimation of his client's resting heart rate (RHR). Peter, Terry's client, appears to have a RHR of 120 bpm. Which of the following terms best represents an accurate description of Peter's RHR at this instance? a. Bradycardia b. Normal sinus rhythm c. Tachycardia d. Junctional rhythm 98. The initial evaluation with a deconditioned 35-year-old male client reveals that his RHR is 75 bpm. What is his target heart rate (THR) range at 50-70% of heart-rate reserve (HRR)? a. 120 to 141 bpm b. 130 to 151 bpm c. 140 to 161 bpm d. 150 to 171 bpm 99. Jody is Clara's new obese client. After her first blood pressure assessment on Jody, Clara realized that she used a standard-sized blood pressure cuff instead of the appropriate size cuff for the measurement. What was the likely result of this first measurement? a. A blood pressure reading with amplified Korotkoff sounds b. A blood pressure reading void of Korotkoff sounds c. A falsely elevated blood pressure reading d. A falsely low blood pressure reading 100. Which one of the following statements is true about the use of ratings of perceived exertion (RPE)? a. Initially, very active individuals may find it difficult to use RPE charts b. The 0 to 10 scale should be used to gauge intensity only when the health coach needs to measure heart rate via the RPE c. Men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend o overestimate exertion d. Conditioned individuals may overrate their exercise intensity if they focus on the muscular tension requirement of the exercise rather than cardiorespiratory effort 101. During the administration of the talk test to her new client, Teresa, Lisa stops the test when Teresa claims that reciting the Pledge of Allegiance is becoming uncomfortable and breathing is getting more difficult. At what point did Lisa stop the test? a. First ventilator threshold (VT1) b. Second ventilator threshold (VT2) c. Third ventilator threshold (VT3) d. Fourth ventilator threshold (VT4) 102. Sherry is a successful full-time hair stylist who is seeking a health coach to help her strengthen her postural muscles to ease the aches and pains she feels as a result of holding her arms up throughout the day as she works on her clients. During a static postural assessment, you notice that Sherry has slightly exaggerated kyphotic and lordotic spinal curves. In which of the following planes of motion does Sherry's spinal deviation occur? a. Sagittal b. Frontal c. Coronal d. Transverse 103. Which of the following tests is designed to specifically assess static balance with the removal of visual sensory perception? a. Stork-stand balance test b. Sharpened Romberg test c. Trunk extensor endurance test d. Modified hurdle-step test 104. Which of the following terms best represents a lack of core and gluteal muscle strength to counteract the force of the hip flexors and erector spinae during the squat movement? a. Glute dominance b. Hamstrings dominance c. Quadriceps dominance d. Lumbar dominance 105. During the overhead reach mobility test, Amy reported feeling it mainly in the shoulders, was able to keep her back relatively flat on the mat, and could touch her left thumb to the floor. Which of the following statements best interprets Amy's results on the overhead reach test? a. Amy lacks appropriate shoulder mobility and core stability b. Amy shows appropriate left-shoulder mobility and core stability c. Amy displays adequate right-shoulder mobility and lacks core stability d. Amy exhibits good shoulder mobility and core stability 106. For individuals who are obese, each pound of excess body weight translates to an additional _______________ of stress on the knee. a. 2lb b. 3lb c. 4lb d. 5lb 107. Amanda's health and fitness goals include losing body fat and becoming more aerobically fit. She is interested in engaging in a physical-activity program of light to moderate intensity on most days of the week. Based on this information, to which of the following phases of the cardiorespiratory fitness-training portion of the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model will Amanda most likely progress and then stay? a. Aerobic-base training (phase 1) b. Aerobic-efficiency training (phase 2) c. Anaerobic-endurance training (phase 3) d. Anaerobic-power training (phase 4) 108. In general, with regard to stability and mobility programming for the body's kinetic chain, _______________. a. Distal stability facilities distal mobility b. Proximal stability facilitates proximal mobility c. Distal stability facilitates proximal mobility d. Proximal stability facilitates distal mobility 109. Which of the following responses BEST represents the two main program components that have been shown to be successful for sustained weight loss in overweight and obese individuals? a. Modest reductions in energy intake and adequate levels of physical activity b. Severe reductions in energy intake and modest levels of physical activity c. Significant reductions in energy intake and high levels of physical activity d. Minimal reductions in energy intake and significant levels of physical activity 110. According to the ACE IFT Model, which of the following responses BEST represents the characteristics of training that occurs in phase 1 of cardiorespiratory training? a. Fitness assessments are required prior to exercise in this phase b. Intervals in the upper end of zone 2 (RPE of 6) are introduced in this phase c. The client is progressed to phase 2 once he or she can sustain steady-state cardiorespiratory exercise for 20 to 30 minutes d. The focus is on helping clients to perform seven or more hours of cardiorespiratory exercise per week 111. Beth has been involved in a walking program for the past six months, which has allowed her to achieve her initial weight-loss goal of 10% of her former body weight. She is now expressing an interest in increasing the intensity of her aerobic workouts and wants to try jogging. Currently, she has no problem walking for 45 continuous minutes most days of the week. Which of the following ratio intervals (jog:walk) would be an appropriate place for Beth to begin the next phase of her cardiorespiratory program? a. 3:1 b. 1:1 c. 1:2 d. 1:3 112. Jason is a competitive cyclist who is getting ready for his next event in three months. In general, how much time should Jason spend training at intensities just below the first ventilatory threshold (VT1)? a. 70-80% b. 40-50% c. 15-20% d. 5-10% 113. Jim is an obese client who experiences chronic pain in his back and knees, which reduces his mobility and makes it uncomfortable for him to transition from the floor to a standing position. He has been cleared by his physician for exercise and is ready to begin his training program with John, a health coach. What can John do to help Jim most successfully engage in a program of stability and mobility training, which necessarily involves exercises in the supine and prone positions? a. Recommend that Jim perform aerobic exercise for initial weight loss before he engages in stability and mobility training b. Allow Jim to perform floor exercises on an elevated platform or on a sturdy athletic training table c. Recommend that Jim perform all stability and mobility exercises in a seated position on a chair with a sturdy back rest d. Allow Jim to perform all stability and mobility exercises in a standing position in front of a corner wall 114. Which of the following movements is most closely associated with the human gait pattern (e.g., walking)? a. Body-weight squat b. Tandem balance on both feet c. Static balance on a single leg d. Hip-hinge progressions 115. A client who has just finished her first month of resistance training using selectorized weight machines is ready to progress the intensity of her strength-training program. She currently uses 100 lb on the leg press machine. Which of the following responses represents the most appropriate increase in resistance for the leg press exercise for her next workout? a. 105-110lb b. 110-120lb c. 120-125lb d. 130-150lb 116. The main criteria the judicial system will utilize when addressing a potential complaint regarding independent contractor status is the _______________. a. Nature of the work b. Number of clients the contractor sees c. Control over work-related matters d. Intention of the parties involved 117. Travis and his client, Angie, agree to meet twice weekly for one hour so that Angie can receive health-coaching services from Travis. Angie will pay Travis $75 per session. In terms of legal contracts, which of the following responses represents the money exchanged for services in this scenario? a. An offer b. An acceptance c. A consideration d. A negotiation 118. Which of the following documents is designed to formally warn individuals about the potential dangers and specific risks of participating in physical activity? a. Agreement to participate b. Informed consent c. Liability waiver d. Behavioral contract 119. Within the context of a liability waiver (or release), what is an exculpatory clause? a. A statement included in an agreement that limits the time allotted to sue for damages, which allows the health coach adequate time to defend against potential litigation if it occurs b. A portion of a contract that allows the client to have something done to him or her (e.g., strength test or flexibility assessment) by the health coach c. A portion of an agreement that states that the health coach will keep all client health information protected and confidential d. Language included in an agreement that bars clients from seeking damages for injuries caused by the inherent risk of activities and by the ordinary negligence of the health coach 120. Which legal term BEST describes a health coach's actions if he or she failed to properly spot a client while performing a bench press exercise? a. Fraud b. Vicarious liability c. Negligence d. Respondeat superior 121. Rebecca is an independent contractor who works as a health coach in a fitness facility. She often takes her client, Stacy, into an unoccupied group fitness room for Stacy's boot-camp style interval workout. On one of the hottest days of the summer, Rebecca enters the room and notices that the air conditioning is not working properly in that space and the temperature is 88 degrees Fahrenheit. What is the most appropriate action for Rebecca to take in this situation? a. Rebecca should notify the facility's management and void that area until it has been addressed b. Rebecca should continue with the planned exercise session, but at a lower than normal intensity c. Rebecca should cancel the session with Stacy and ask her to come back at another time when the temperature is more appropriate d. Rebecca should continue with the planned exercise session and open the facility's doors and place fans in the room for additional airflow 122. The American Council on Exercise recommends retaining at least _______________ in professional liability coverage, in the event that a personal injury occurs as a result of a training session. a. $100,000 b. $1 million c. $250,000 d. $2 million 123. Which of the following legal activities do organizations such as the American Society of Composers, Authors, and Publishers (ASCAP), Broadcast Music, Inc. (BMI), and the Society of European Stage Authors and Composers (SESAC) oversee? a. Marketing activities b. Financial transactions c. Risk management d. Copyright issues 124. Which of the following risk-management strategies involves keeping a certain risk in place if removing the risk would eliminate a potential benefit? a. Avoidance b. Transfer c. Reduction d. Retention 125. (Refer to case 1) Which of the following recommendations are the BEST initial approach to help Jenna reach her weight-loss goal? a. Maintain daily caloric intake and increase physical activity to include 60 to 90 minutes of moderate to vigorous aerobic exercise 5 days per week b. Maintain current activity level and reduce daily caloric intake to 1800 calories c. Reduce daily caloric intake by approximately 250 calories and increase physical activity to include 30 minutes of moderate exercise most days of the week d. Reduce daily caloric intake by 500 calories and introduce a multivitamin 126. (Refer to case 1) Which of the following recommendations is the MOST appropriate regarding this client's nutritional choices? a. Decrease consumption of sugary beverages and incorporate more fruits and vegetables into the diet b. Limit carbohydrate consumption and introduce protein-fortified meal replacement bars and shakes c. Decrease refined sugar intake and increase the consumption of iced tea and black coffee to increase energy d. Incorporated red meat and beans into the diet to enhance iron consumption and increase energy throughout the day 127. (Refer to case 1) Which of the following food items, if eliminated or reduced from Jenna's diet, would make the MOST beneficial caloric and nutritional change? a. Chocolate peanut better "energy" bar b. Animal cookies c. Café mocha d. Alcohol 128. (Refer to case 1) What is the MOST appropriate time frame for Jenna to reach her weight-loss goal? a. 3 to 6 weeks b. 8 to 12 weeks c. 3 to 5 months d. 6 to 8 months 129. Jim has been a participant in your group weight-loss program for three months. He recently confided to you his concerns about his tendency to miss exercise classes during vacations, holidays, or times of increased work or family pressures. Which of the following statements would be the MOST appropriate recommendation for Jim? a. "I understand that missing exercise classes is a concern for you. Let's plan ahead and prepare a home-based workout for the times you can't make it to the gym." b. "Missing your exercise classes must be difficult for you. The next time it happens, feel free to call me and we can discuss your options at that time." c. "I hear you saying that you're concerned about missing your exercise classes. Would you like to choose another class format that you might enjoy more?" d. "The exercise classes are an important part of your weight-loss program. You need to make the classes a priority on your schedule" 130. Which of the following responses BEST describes the type of information found in the "objective" section of a client's SOAP notes a. Exercises occasionally and is unhappy about her weight b. 35-year-old female, 260lb (118.2kg), married, no children c. Client is basically healthy, inactive, has obesity d. Eat three vegetable servings per day 131. You are working with a new client who is sedentary and wants to lose weight. When asking him about his exercise history, he tells you about his years of competitive swimming and describes himself as a "swimmer" and would like to incorporate swimming into his program. To this client, swimming provides what type of motivation? a. Introjected regulation b. Identified regulation c. External regulation d. Integrated regulation 132. A new client you are working with has type 1 diabetes. She has agreed to check her blood glucose level and share this information with you before and after each exercise session. As you prepare to begin the first workout, she informs you that her blood glucose has dropped too low. What would be the MOST appropriate course of action for this client? a. Suggest that she increase her insulin dosage prior to the upcoming workout session b. Ask her to wait 15 minutes and then check her blood glucose level again c. Recommend that she inject insulin into primary muscle groups that will be used during the upcoming exercise session d. Suggest that she consume simple carbohydrates and check her blood glucose level again prior to exercise 133. A client is struggling with after-dinner snacking and claims that he is not necessarily hungry when snacking but has a hard time resisting the urge. What would be the BEST problem-solving approach to help him make a lasting behavioral change to avoid or minimize snacking at night? a. Suggest that he stay out of the kitchen after dinner to avoid the temptation to snack b. Recommend that he keep track of the factors that precede and follow after-dinner snacking c. Ask him to record the amount and types of foods he prefers to snack on after dinner d. Recommend that he eat more calories at dinner so that he is full and has less desire to snack afterward 134. A client shows you a food label from one of his favorite mid-afternoon snacks. Use the nutrition information from the food label provided below to determine which of the following statements is MOST accurate. 135. Amount per serving 136. Calories 90 137. Total fat 3 g 138. Saturated fat 0 g 139. Trans fat 0 g 140. Cholesterol 0 mg 141. Sodium 300 mg 142. Total carbohydrate 13 g 143. Dietary fiber 3 g 144. Sugars 3 g 145. Protein 3 g a. The protein content of this food item accounts for 30% of its total calories b. 30% of the total calories in this food item are from fat c. The dietary fiber content of this food item accounts for 10% of its total calories d. Less than 10% of the total calories in this food item are from sugars 146. Your new client, Betsy, was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes at age 40 and has been administering two insulin injections per day to control her condition for the past 10 years. She is concerned about her health and wants to become more physically active, and she has a physician's release for exercise as tolerated. Use the health-history and physical-assessment information below to answer. 147. Health-history Data 148. Age: 55 years 149. Body weight: 200 lb (91 kg) 150. Height: 5' 3" (160 cm) 151. Body composition: 42% body fat - obese classification 152. Resting blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg (with medication) 153. Fasting glucose: Diagnosed type 2 diabetic 154. Smoking status: Non-smoker 155. Physical activity: Sedentary 156. Family History: Mother has hypertension 157. Surgeries: None 158. Medications: Beta blocker for hypertension and insulin injections for diabetes 159. According to ACSM's risk stratification, what is Betsy's level of risk for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease? a. Low risk b. Moderate risk = 2 total risk factors c. Moderate risk = 5 total risk factors d. High risk 160. Your new client, Betsy, was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes at age 40 and has been administering two insulin injections per day to control her condition for the past 10 years. She is concerned about her health and wants to become more physically active, and she has a physician's release for exercise as tolerated. Use the health-history and physical-assessment information below to answer. 161. Health-history Data 162. Age: 55 years 163. Body weight: 200 lb (91 kg) 164. Height: 5' 3" (160 cm) 165. Body composition: 42% body fat - obese classification 166. Resting blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg (with medication) 167. Fasting glucose: Diagnosed type 2 diabetic 168. Smoking status: Non-smoker 169. Physical activity: Sedentary 170. Family History: Mother has hypertension 171. Surgeries: None 172. Medications: Beta blocker for hypertension and insulin injections for diabetes 173. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate initial goal for Betsy's program? a. Achieve a 25% increase in aerobic capacity b. Reduce body fat to less than 21% c. Achieve a 5 to 10% reduction in body weight d. Reduce insulin intake by 20% 174. Your new client, Betsy, was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes at age 40 and has been administering two insulin injections per day to control her condition for the past 10 years. She is concerned about her health and wants to become more physically active, and she has a physician's release for exercise as tolerated. Use the health-history and physical-assessment information below to answer. 175. Health-history Data 176. Age: 55 years 177. Body weight: 200 lb (91 kg) 178. Height: 5' 3" (160 cm) 179. Body composition: 42% body fat - obese classification 180. Resting blood pressure: 132/86 mmHg (with medication) 181. Fasting glucose: Diagnosed type 2 diabetic 182. Smoking status: Non-smoker 183. Physical activity: Sedentary 184. Family History: Mother has hypertension 185. Surgeries: None 186. Medications: Beta blocker for hypertension and insulin injections for diabetes 187. Which initial cardiorespiratory exercise program would be MOST appropriate for Betsy? a. Aim to complete 30-minute sessions 4-5 days per week of moderate-intensity exercise with intervals of varying length and frequency performed at high intensity b. Begin with continuous exercise as tolerated below the talk test threshold (VT1) and work up to 20-30 continuous minutes performed 5 days per week c. Perform daily cardiorespiratory exercise for up to 60 minutes per day using a variety of modes to prevent boredom d. Exercise every other day for a minimum of 45 minutes per session at a moderate to high intensity 188. Mark has been your client for six months and has achieved his short-term goals of weight loss and incorporating physical activity into his lifestyle. Recently, while on vacation, Mark suffered a herniated disc. He has been through rehabilitation and cleared by his physician to return to exercise. What would be the BEST course of action as Mark begins to exercise again? a. Daily exercises to increase spinal range of motion and hip flexibility b. Resistance training to increase muscular strength in the spinal extensors c. Muscular endurance and core stability training d. Daily stretching and focus on strength training for the back extensors 189. During your initial interview with a potential client, you learn that she has intentions of attending a weekly yoga class and walking on a treadmill at a local fitness facility three days per week. She tells you that for the past three months she has been making it to the yoga class about every other week, and walks on the treadmill once or twice every other week. According to the stages-of-change model, which stage BEST describes this potential client's readiness for exercise a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Action d. Maintenance 190. A client you have been working with for two months can now perform 30 minutes of continuous cardiorespiratory exercise just below the talk test threshold. What progression would be MOST appropriate for her next workout? a. Introduce three intervals performed at an exercise intensity just above the second ventilator threshold b. Increase exercise duration to 45 minutes at the same intensity c. Introduce short intervals performed at an exercise intensity just above the first ventilator threshold d. Increase exercise intensity by having her carry 5 pound dumbbells during her walks 191. Following the body-weight squat assessment, your client stated that the movement was felt mainly in the front of the thighs and knees. What exercise should be included in this client's initial program to address the incorrect movement? a. Leg extensions b. Hip-hinge c. Lunge matrix d. Body-weight squat variations 192. You have designed a strength-training program for a client that includes two sets of 8-12 repetitions performed on 10 different exercises, two days per week. The client has just completed 12 repetitions with a 200 pound (91 kg) barbell, while maintaining good form. What would be the MOST appropriate weight to progress him to at his next workout session? a. 205 lb (93.2kg) b. 210 lb (95.5kg) c. 225 lb (102.3kg) d. 235 lb (106.8kg) 193. You are working with a client who tells you that she has her greatest success with commitments when there is a reward for her to earn upon program completion. As such, you work together to create a behavioral contract with built-in rewards to enhance her program adherence. Which of the following sentences represents the MOST effective goal statement for the client's contract? a. "I will eat less fat to create a negative caloric balance so I can lose weight and feel better" b. "I agree to lose weight so I can purchase a new dress in a smaller size" c. "I will lose 15 pounds in one month so I can schedule a tropical vacation" d. "I will lose 1 to 2 pounds per week for the next 2 months so I can buy a new outfit" 194. A client you have been working with for six months is pleased inform you that he has reached his weight-loss goals and has made many beneficial lifestyle modifications. He is worried about regaining the weight, as he read that only about half of the people who lose weight manage to keep it off. Which of the following statements would be the MOST effective in helping him as he progresses into the maintenance stage of behavioral change? a. "Don't worry. You've done such a great job that you're not going to be one of those people who relapses after they have lost weight" b. "It's okay to feel concerned. Temporary breaks from your program are acceptable and are not failures. Let's figure out coping strategies for when they occur" c. "You'll do fine if you keep in mind the reasons why you wanted to change your lifestyle in the first place; to improve your health and have more energy" d. "It's normal to feel concerned. Now that you know your triggers, you should be able to modify your environment to prevent them from happening" 195. In your first meeting with a new client, she tells you that her previous attempts to start exercising have generally ended after only a couple of weeks. Which of the following strategies will MOST likely enhance this client's overall experience and promote adherence and self-efficacy? a. Design a program based on the client's goals and creating enjoyable exercise experiences from the start b. Emphasize baseline fitness assessments as motivation for self-improvement and program adherence c. Focus on recreational activities that are challenging and full of variety, such as recreational dance or sport d. Implement structured exercise that results in a calorie expenditure of 300 to 500 calories 196. In addition to weight loss, your client, Frank, is interested in general nutrition recommendations for decreasing the risk of heart disease. Which of the following responses is MOST representative of the American Heart Association's dietary strategies for optimal cardiovascular risk reduction? a. Minimize the intake of beverages and foods containing artificial sweeteners b. Limit the consumption of saturated fat to less than 7% of total daily energy intake c. Consume 30% of total daily calories from protein d. Choose and prepare foods with moderate amounts of salt or sodium 197. Your client has been instructed by his physician to adopt the DASH eating plan due to his prehypertension and family history of cardiovascular disease. In helping him to better understand the DASH eating plan, which of the following general statements is MOST accurate? a. The DASH eating plan was initially developed to reduce obesity, but has shown to have favorable effects on blood pressure. b. The DASH eating plan is restricted for use by individuals diagnosed with prehypertension or hypertension. c. The DASH eating plan consists primarily of grains, fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products. d. The DASH eating plan recognizes fish as a superior protein source compared to poultry and red meats. 198. Andy, an active college student, has been following an exercise program to maintain his current fitness level, and following a diet plan with an intake of 1400 calories. Recently, he started a running program to prepare for a local half-marathon. He has expressed concern because he notices he is losing weight, which is not one of his goals. Which of the following strategies is the BEST approach to help Andy maintain or improve his running performance and avoid losing weight? a. Suggest that Andy increase his daily caloric intake to match his increased energy needs due to running. b. Instruct Andy to cut back his running mileage until his weight stabilizes and then maintain the new, reduced mileage. c. Recommend that Andy incorporate strength-training into his exercise program to build muscle and reduce weight loss. d. Instruct Andy that weight loss will improve his running time and that after the half-marathon his weight will return to normal. 199. Which of the following goal statements would be MOST appropriate for an individual who needs to lose weight and has struggled with adherence to weight-loss plans in the past? a. Decrease daily caloric intake by 250 calories, while increasing expenditure by 250 calories. b. Decrease daily caloric intake by 300 calories, while increasing expenditure by 400 calories. c. Consume small meals of approximately 300 calories per meal several times each day. d. Consume three moderate-calorie meals and three small 100-calorie snacks each day. 200. Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of an informed consent? a. An exculpatory clause or agreement that puts all risks associated with exercise training on the client b. The process of identifying and eliminating or reducing potential liabilities before they occur c. Acknowledgement by the client that they accept the risks inherent with exercise participation d. The legal clause that protects health coaches in cases of acts of commission and omission 201. A client sues a health coach for injuries sustained during an exercise session at the client's home. Which type of insurance is designed to handle this type of claim? a. General liability insurance b. Professional liability insurance c. Disability insurance d. Medical insurance 202. A client is suing a health coach because he claims that during an exercise session, the health coach had him exercising at too high of an intensity, causing him to fall. Which of the following describes the legal concept that was allegedly breached? a. The risk-management plan b. A release of liability c. An act of omission d. The standard of care 203. Which of the following statements BEST describes release of liability or liability waiver? a. An exculpatory clause or agreement that puts all risks associated with exercise training on the client. b. The process of identifying and eliminating or reducing potential liabilities before they occur. c. A fitness professional relies on a defense that an injured client knew that a potential danger existed and decided to act anyway d. Wanton recklessness or intentional misconduct. 204. During an initial interview with a potential client, you notice she is able to express her ideas about what s