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practice exam 2026
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NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm – Chamberlain 2026(NEW
UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)- GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED 2026
NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology – Practice
Questions
1. A patient is prescribed a drug that has a half-life of 8 hours. How long will it take for
approximately 75% of the drug to be eliminated from the body?
A) 8 hours
B) 16 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 32 hours
Answer: B) 16 hours
Rationale: 1 half-life = 50% elimination, 2 half-lives = 75% elimination. 8 × 2 = 16 hours.
2. A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol. Which receptor does albuterol primarily
stimulate?
A) Beta-1 adrenergic
B) Beta-2 adrenergic
C) Alpha-1 adrenergic
D) Muscarinic
Answer: B) Beta-2 adrenergic
Rationale: Albuterol is a selective beta-2 agonist, causing bronchodilation in the lungs.
practice exam 2026
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3. A patient develops bradycardia after receiving propranolol. This adverse effect occurs because
propranolol:
A) Is a non-selective beta blocker
B) Stimulates beta-2 receptors
C) Inhibits alpha receptors
D) Increases sympathetic tone
Answer: A) Is a non-selective beta blocker
Rationale: Non-selective beta blockers inhibit beta-1 receptors in the heart, causing bradycardia.
4. Which lab value should be monitored closely in a patient taking digoxin?
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Magnesium
D) Calcium
Answer: A) Potassium
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases risk of digoxin toxicity.
5. A patient receiving gentamicin develops tinnitus and vertigo. These are signs of:
A) Nephrotoxicity
B) Ototoxicity
C) Neurotoxicity
D) Hepatotoxicity
Answer: B) Ototoxicity
Rationale: Aminoglycosides can damage the auditory and vestibular systems, causing tinnitus
and vertigo.
6. Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
A) NPH
B) Regular
C) Lispro
D) Glargine
Answer: C) Lispro
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with onset of 15–30 minutes.
practice exam 2026
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7. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed morphine. Which of the following is the priority
nursing assessment?
A) Blood glucose
B) Respiratory rate
C) Urine output
D) Blood pressure
Answer: B) Respiratory rate
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression, making monitoring respiration critical.
8. A patient on warfarin is advised to avoid which food?
A) Bananas
B) Leafy green vegetables
C) Apples
D) Rice
Answer: B) Leafy green vegetables
Rationale: Vitamin K-rich foods can decrease warfarin effectiveness by promoting clotting.
9. Which drug class is the first-line therapy for hypertension in African-American patients without
chronic kidney disease?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Beta blockers
D) Alpha blockers
Answer: B) Thiazide diuretics
Rationale: Thiazides are effective in lowering blood pressure in African-American populations
according to current guidelines.
10. A patient taking lithium reports nausea, tremors, and confusion. What is the likely cause?
A) Lithium toxicity
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypermagnesemia
practice exam 2026
practice exam 2026
,2|Page
NR 565 - advanced pharmacology midterm – Chamberlain 2026(NEW
UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)- GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED 2026
NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology – Practice
Questions
1. A patient is prescribed a drug that has a half-life of 8 hours. How long will it take for
approximately 75% of the drug to be eliminated from the body?
A) 8 hours
B) 16 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 32 hours
Answer: B) 16 hours
Rationale: 1 half-life = 50% elimination, 2 half-lives = 75% elimination. 8 × 2 = 16 hours.
2. A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol. Which receptor does albuterol primarily
stimulate?
A) Beta-1 adrenergic
B) Beta-2 adrenergic
C) Alpha-1 adrenergic
D) Muscarinic
Answer: B) Beta-2 adrenergic
Rationale: Albuterol is a selective beta-2 agonist, causing bronchodilation in the lungs.
practice exam 2026
,3|Page
3. A patient develops bradycardia after receiving propranolol. This adverse effect occurs because
propranolol:
A) Is a non-selective beta blocker
B) Stimulates beta-2 receptors
C) Inhibits alpha receptors
D) Increases sympathetic tone
Answer: A) Is a non-selective beta blocker
Rationale: Non-selective beta blockers inhibit beta-1 receptors in the heart, causing bradycardia.
4. Which lab value should be monitored closely in a patient taking digoxin?
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Magnesium
D) Calcium
Answer: A) Potassium
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases risk of digoxin toxicity.
5. A patient receiving gentamicin develops tinnitus and vertigo. These are signs of:
A) Nephrotoxicity
B) Ototoxicity
C) Neurotoxicity
D) Hepatotoxicity
Answer: B) Ototoxicity
Rationale: Aminoglycosides can damage the auditory and vestibular systems, causing tinnitus
and vertigo.
6. Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
A) NPH
B) Regular
C) Lispro
D) Glargine
Answer: C) Lispro
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with onset of 15–30 minutes.
practice exam 2026
, 4|Page
7. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed morphine. Which of the following is the priority
nursing assessment?
A) Blood glucose
B) Respiratory rate
C) Urine output
D) Blood pressure
Answer: B) Respiratory rate
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression, making monitoring respiration critical.
8. A patient on warfarin is advised to avoid which food?
A) Bananas
B) Leafy green vegetables
C) Apples
D) Rice
Answer: B) Leafy green vegetables
Rationale: Vitamin K-rich foods can decrease warfarin effectiveness by promoting clotting.
9. Which drug class is the first-line therapy for hypertension in African-American patients without
chronic kidney disease?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Beta blockers
D) Alpha blockers
Answer: B) Thiazide diuretics
Rationale: Thiazides are effective in lowering blood pressure in African-American populations
according to current guidelines.
10. A patient taking lithium reports nausea, tremors, and confusion. What is the likely cause?
A) Lithium toxicity
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypermagnesemia
practice exam 2026
