COMPREHENSIVE ATI RN PREDICTOR WITH
NGN VERSION 1 ACTUAL EXAM NEWEST
2025/2026 COMPLETE TEST-BANK Verified
Questions and Answers with Detailed
Rationales Graded A+ Guaranteed Pass
VERSION 1
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the provider?
A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds
B. Early decelerations in the FHR
C. FHR baseline 170/min
D. Temperature 37.4° C (99.3° F) - Answer ✓✓The correct answer is:
C. FHR baseline 170/min
Explanation:
Why this is correct: A fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia
and can be a sign of fetal distress or infection. A normal FHR baseline is typically between
,110-160 bpm. A baseline of 170/min requires prompt attention and further assessment by
the provider to determine the underlying cause.
Why not the others?
A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds: Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds could be
concerning, but 80 seconds is not a cause for immediate concern. The nurse should still
monitor the contractions but this duration isn't outside the expected range for active
labor.
B. Early decelerations in the FHR: Early decelerations are generally considered normal
during labor and are associated with head compression. They do not require intervention
and are typically not a concern.
D. Temperature 37.4° C (99.3° F): A temperature of 37.4°C is within the normal range for a
laboring woman. While a temperature above 38°C (100.4°F) could indicate infection, 37.4°C
is not concerning.
Therefore, the FHR baseline of 170/min should be reported to the provider for further
evaluation.
A nurse is caring for a child who reports migraine headaches for the past 4 months. Which
of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Refer the family to a chronic pain support group.
B. Request a change in medication from the provider.
C. Review the child's electronic pain diary.
D. Set up an appointment with the school nurse. - Answer ✓✓The correct answer is:
C. Review the child's electronic pain diary.
Explanation:
Why this is correct: The first step in addressing chronic migraines is to gather more
information about the child's headaches. Reviewing the child's electronic pain diary can
provide valuable insights into the frequency, duration, triggers, and severity of the
migraines. This information is essential for developing an effective treatment plan and
,understanding the child's specific migraine pattern. A pain diary can also help the
healthcare provider make informed decisions about management strategies, such as
medication or lifestyle modifications.
Why not the others?
A. Refer the family to a chronic pain support group: While support groups can be helpful
for managing chronic pain, the priority is to first understand the nature of the migraines
and address any immediate treatment needs. This action can be considered later.
B. Request a change in medication from the provider: Before requesting a change in
medication, the nurse should first assess the current management and collect detailed
information about the migraines, which can inform any necessary medication adjustments.
D. Set up an appointment with the school nurse: Although it may be helpful to involve the
school nurse in the management of migraines, it is more important initially to assess the
severity and patterns of the child's migraines to guide any necessary interventions.
Therefore, reviewing the child's electronic pain diary is the most appropriate first action.
A nurse in the emergency department is receiving report on a group of clients. Which of
the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who has Clostridium difficile and a temperature of 38.6° C (101.5° F)
B. A client who has a complete femur fracture and reports a pain level of 7 on a scale from
0 to 10
C. A client who has left shoulder pain and S-T elevation on a 12-lead ECG
D. A client who has orthostatic hypotension and 4+ pitting edema in the lower extremities -
Answer ✓✓The correct answer is:
C. A client who has left shoulder pain and S-T elevation on a 12-lead ECG
Explanation:
Why this is correct: The client with left shoulder pain and S-T elevation on the ECG is most
likely experiencing acute myocardial infarction (MI). The presence of S-T elevation is a key
indicator of a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a life-threatening condition that
, requires immediate intervention to prevent further heart damage and potential
complications. This client should be the priority because a STEMI is an emergency situation
that requires rapid assessment and treatment.
Why not the others?
A. A client who has Clostridium difficile and a temperature of 38.6° C (101.5° F): While this
client has an infection and fever, Clostridium difficile can be managed with appropriate
antibiotics and supportive care. The infection is serious, but it does not have the same
immediate life-threatening urgency as a STEMI.
B. A client who has a complete femur fracture and reports a pain level of 7 on a scale from
0 to 10: A femur fracture is a serious injury, and the pain level is significant. However, this is
not immediately life-threatening compared to the risk of a heart attack.
D. A client who has orthostatic hypotension and 4+ pitting edema in the lower extremities:
This client might be experiencing fluid overload or heart failure. While this is important, it
is not as immediately life-threatening as the client with a possible STEMI.
Therefore, assessing the client with left shoulder pain and S-T elevation on the ECG is the
priority because this could be a cardiac emergency.
A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following
clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
B. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
D. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 7.2% (less than 7%). - Answer ✓✓The
correct answer is:
B. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
Explanation:
Why this is correct: The client with a hip fracture who has a new onset of tachypnea (rapid
breathing) should be assessed first. This could indicate a pulmonary embolism (PE), a life-
NGN VERSION 1 ACTUAL EXAM NEWEST
2025/2026 COMPLETE TEST-BANK Verified
Questions and Answers with Detailed
Rationales Graded A+ Guaranteed Pass
VERSION 1
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the provider?
A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds
B. Early decelerations in the FHR
C. FHR baseline 170/min
D. Temperature 37.4° C (99.3° F) - Answer ✓✓The correct answer is:
C. FHR baseline 170/min
Explanation:
Why this is correct: A fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia
and can be a sign of fetal distress or infection. A normal FHR baseline is typically between
,110-160 bpm. A baseline of 170/min requires prompt attention and further assessment by
the provider to determine the underlying cause.
Why not the others?
A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds: Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds could be
concerning, but 80 seconds is not a cause for immediate concern. The nurse should still
monitor the contractions but this duration isn't outside the expected range for active
labor.
B. Early decelerations in the FHR: Early decelerations are generally considered normal
during labor and are associated with head compression. They do not require intervention
and are typically not a concern.
D. Temperature 37.4° C (99.3° F): A temperature of 37.4°C is within the normal range for a
laboring woman. While a temperature above 38°C (100.4°F) could indicate infection, 37.4°C
is not concerning.
Therefore, the FHR baseline of 170/min should be reported to the provider for further
evaluation.
A nurse is caring for a child who reports migraine headaches for the past 4 months. Which
of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Refer the family to a chronic pain support group.
B. Request a change in medication from the provider.
C. Review the child's electronic pain diary.
D. Set up an appointment with the school nurse. - Answer ✓✓The correct answer is:
C. Review the child's electronic pain diary.
Explanation:
Why this is correct: The first step in addressing chronic migraines is to gather more
information about the child's headaches. Reviewing the child's electronic pain diary can
provide valuable insights into the frequency, duration, triggers, and severity of the
migraines. This information is essential for developing an effective treatment plan and
,understanding the child's specific migraine pattern. A pain diary can also help the
healthcare provider make informed decisions about management strategies, such as
medication or lifestyle modifications.
Why not the others?
A. Refer the family to a chronic pain support group: While support groups can be helpful
for managing chronic pain, the priority is to first understand the nature of the migraines
and address any immediate treatment needs. This action can be considered later.
B. Request a change in medication from the provider: Before requesting a change in
medication, the nurse should first assess the current management and collect detailed
information about the migraines, which can inform any necessary medication adjustments.
D. Set up an appointment with the school nurse: Although it may be helpful to involve the
school nurse in the management of migraines, it is more important initially to assess the
severity and patterns of the child's migraines to guide any necessary interventions.
Therefore, reviewing the child's electronic pain diary is the most appropriate first action.
A nurse in the emergency department is receiving report on a group of clients. Which of
the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who has Clostridium difficile and a temperature of 38.6° C (101.5° F)
B. A client who has a complete femur fracture and reports a pain level of 7 on a scale from
0 to 10
C. A client who has left shoulder pain and S-T elevation on a 12-lead ECG
D. A client who has orthostatic hypotension and 4+ pitting edema in the lower extremities -
Answer ✓✓The correct answer is:
C. A client who has left shoulder pain and S-T elevation on a 12-lead ECG
Explanation:
Why this is correct: The client with left shoulder pain and S-T elevation on the ECG is most
likely experiencing acute myocardial infarction (MI). The presence of S-T elevation is a key
indicator of a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a life-threatening condition that
, requires immediate intervention to prevent further heart damage and potential
complications. This client should be the priority because a STEMI is an emergency situation
that requires rapid assessment and treatment.
Why not the others?
A. A client who has Clostridium difficile and a temperature of 38.6° C (101.5° F): While this
client has an infection and fever, Clostridium difficile can be managed with appropriate
antibiotics and supportive care. The infection is serious, but it does not have the same
immediate life-threatening urgency as a STEMI.
B. A client who has a complete femur fracture and reports a pain level of 7 on a scale from
0 to 10: A femur fracture is a serious injury, and the pain level is significant. However, this is
not immediately life-threatening compared to the risk of a heart attack.
D. A client who has orthostatic hypotension and 4+ pitting edema in the lower extremities:
This client might be experiencing fluid overload or heart failure. While this is important, it
is not as immediately life-threatening as the client with a possible STEMI.
Therefore, assessing the client with left shoulder pain and S-T elevation on the ECG is the
priority because this could be a cardiac emergency.
A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following
clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
B. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
D. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 7.2% (less than 7%). - Answer ✓✓The
correct answer is:
B. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
Explanation:
Why this is correct: The client with a hip fracture who has a new onset of tachypnea (rapid
breathing) should be assessed first. This could indicate a pulmonary embolism (PE), a life-
