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ATI Pharmacology Practice Test A Questions with Correct Answers

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ATI Pharmacology Practice Test A Questions with Correct Answers

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ATI Pharmacology
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Institución
ATI Pharmacology
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ATI Pharmacology

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Subido en
6 de diciembre de 2025
Número de páginas
60
Escrito en
2025/2026
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Examen
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ATI Pharmacology Practice Test A Questions
with Correct Answers

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has peptic ulcer disease and is to start a new
prescription for sucralfate. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the
teaching?


A. Decreases stomach acid secretion



B. Neutralizes acids in the stomach



C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers



D. Treats ulcers by eradicating H. pylori - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Forms a protective barrier
over ulcers

- Secretions by the parietal and chief cells, hydrochloric acid and pepsin, can further irritate the
ulcerated areas. Sucralfate, a mucosal protectant, forms a gel-like substance that coats the ulcer,
creating a barrier to hydrochloric acid and pepsin.



Rationale:

A - Peptic ulcer disease manifests as an erosion of the gastric or duodenal mucosa. The acid
production in the stomach causes further irritation and pain. H2 receptor antagonists, such as
famotidine, decrease stomach acid secretion.



B - Acid production in the stomach causes further irritation and pain to a client who has a
peptic ulcer. Antacids, such as aluminum hydroxide, neutralize acids in the stomach and
prevent pepsin formation, a digestive enzyme that can further damage the eroded epithelium.

,D - A common cause of peptic ulcers is a bacterial infection with Helicobacter pylori.
Treatment of the ulcer includes a combination of antibiotics, such as metronidazole,
tetracycline,
clarithromycin, or amoxicillin, to eradicate the H. pylori infection.



A nurse is caring for a female older adult on a medical-surgical unit.



Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 mg/dL (10 to 20 mg/dL)Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL (0.5 to 1.2
mg/dL)Gentamicin peak 6.2 mcg/mL (4 to 6 mcg/mL)Gentamicin trough 4.9 mcg/mL (less than
2 mcg/mL)



The client is at greatest risk for (A - nephrotoxicity/B - ototoxicity/C - Diarrhea) due to (A -
kidney functions/B - trough level/C - Cefazolin). - CORRECT ANSWER -The client is at greatest
risk for nephrotoxicity

due to kidney function



Rationale:

- When prioritizing hypothesis, the nurse should recognize that the client is most at risk for
developing nephrotoxicity. The client has elevated BUN and creatinine levels indicating
altered kidney function. The risk of nephrotoxicity is increased when concurrent use of other
ototoxic drugs like furosemide are used. When trough levels are consistently elevated,
ototoxicity can occur, but this is not the immediate concern.



A nurse is teaching a client who has insomnia about zolpidem. The nurse should identify that
which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?



A. "I will need to get laboratory testing prior to a refill of this medication."



B. "I will use this medication for a short period of time."

,C. "I will need to take this medication for 1 week before results are seen."



D. "I will need to change the medications to prevent building up a tolerance." -
CORRECT ANSWER -B. "I will use this medication for a short period of time."

- Zolpidem is used for short-term treatment of insomnia. Therefore, the provider
should reassess the client before refilling the prescription.



Rationale:

A - Laboratory testing is not needed when taking this medication for sleep.

C - The client who takes zolpidem should experience improved sleep within 2 days of starting
this medication.

D - The client who takes zolpidem should not build up a tolerance to the medication with short-
term use.



The nurse is preparing to administer the 0900 medications to the client, which of the following
actions should the nurse take?



Client has history of fibromyalgia and is being admitted for pain management.



Fentanyl 25 mcg/hr apply transdermal every 72 hrMorphine sulfate 4 mg IV bolus every 2 hr as
needed for pain



Select all that apply.



A - Flush IV catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administering the medication.



B - Check the client's ID bracelet after administering the medication.

, C - Clean the IV injection port with an antiseptic swab.



D - Clean area on skin with soap and water.



E - Cut patch in half prior to applying it to the skin.



F - Apply sterile gloves.



G - Check for blood return of the IV catheter by gently pulling back on the plunger of the
syringe. - CORRECT ANSWER -Answers: A, C, D, G

A - Flush IV catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administering the medication.

C - Clean the IV injection port with an antiseptic swab.

D - Clean area on skin with soap and water.

G - Check for blood return of the IV catheter by gently pulling back on the plunger of the
syringe.



Rationale:

- When generating solutions, the nurse should prepare to administer morphine sulfate via
IV bolus route. Therefore, prior to administering the medication, the nurse should clean the
injection port with an antiseptic swab to prevent infection, flush the IV catheter with 0.9%
sodium chloride before and after to ensure and maintain patency of the IV, and check for
blood return to ensure the IV is in the vein. When administering a fentanyl transdermal patch,
the nurse should apply clean gloves and cleanse the skin area with soap and water



A nurse is administering diazepam to a client who is having a colonoscopy. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?



A. Ensure flumazenil is available to administer for toxicity management.
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