APM PFQ EXAM 2025 TEST BANK 100
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(PROFESSOR VERIFIED) | GRADED A+ | LATEST
EDITION (JUST RELEASED)
Introduction
This 2025 APM PFQ (Project Fundamentals Qualification) mini-test bank delivers 100
original, scenario-based items aligned to the latest APM Body of Knowledge and PFQ
syllabus. Domains span principles, lifecycle, business case, stakeholders, planning, risk,
quality, change and communication. Each question carries four plausible options, one
bolded Adobe Devanagari answer, and a concise guideline-based rationale to support
mastery-level performance.
Examination (Questions 1 – 100)
Question 1:
A project sponsor asks the project manager to reduce the schedule by 3 weeks without
increasing cost. Which constraint is primarily being affected?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Risk
D. Resources
Answer: C. Risk
Solution: Schedule compression increases uncertainty (risk) of rework, overrun or
quality slip; BoK defines risk as effect of uncertainty on objectives.
Question 2:
Which document authorises the project manager to apply organisational resources?
A. Project charter
B. Scope statement
C. Management plan
D. Business case
Answer: A. Project charter
Solution: APM BoK 7th ed. sec. 2.1 – charter (or mandate) confers authority; other
documents describe what and how, not who may spend.
pg. 1
,Question 3:
During which lifecycle phase are the majority of risks typically identified?
A. Definition
B. Deployment
C. Transition
D. Benefits realisation
Answer: A. Definition
Solution: Risk identification workshops occur early (definition) when uncertainty is
highest; later phases focus on monitoring and response.
Question 4:
A stakeholder grid plots influence vs interest. A high-influence, low-interest party
should be:
A. Monitored with minimal effort
B. Kept satisfied
C. Managed closely
D. Ignored until interest rises
Answer: B. Kept satisfied
Solution: APM power-interest matrix – high influence/low interest = “Keep satisfied” to
prevent them using power negatively.
Question 5:
Which technique is most appropriate for defining activities when deliverables are well
understood?
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Agile user stories
D. Benefits mapping
Answer: B. Work Breakdown Structure
Solution: WBS decomposes deliverables into work packages/activities – suited for clear
scope; rolling wave used when detail is future.
Question 6:
The critical path of a network diagram is the:
A. Shortest sequence of tasks
B. Path with zero float
pg. 2
, C. Set of highest-risk activities
D. List of milestone dates
Answer: B. Path with zero float
Solution: BoK scheduling – critical path possesses zero total float; any delay extends
project finish.
Question 7:
Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of a risk is calculated as:
A. Impact × probability
B. Impact ÷ probability
C. Impact + mitigation cost
D. Probability ÷ impact
Answer: A. Impact × probability
Solution: EMV quantifies risk exposure; high probability/high impact risks receive
priority funding for mitigation.
Question 8:
Which quality tool is used to rank defects by frequency?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Pareto chart
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart
Answer: B. Pareto chart
Solution: Pareto (80/20 rule) ranks frequency of problems; Ishikawa seeks root cause,
control chart monitors variation.
Question 9:
A change request is approved that increases scope. Which baseline must be updated
first?
A. Schedule baseline
B. Cost baseline
C. Scope baseline
D. Quality baseline
Answer: C. Scope baseline
Solution: Scope baseline (WBS, statement, dictionary) defines what is delivered;
changes cascade to time/cost after scope revision.
pg. 3
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
(PROFESSOR VERIFIED) | GRADED A+ | LATEST
EDITION (JUST RELEASED)
Introduction
This 2025 APM PFQ (Project Fundamentals Qualification) mini-test bank delivers 100
original, scenario-based items aligned to the latest APM Body of Knowledge and PFQ
syllabus. Domains span principles, lifecycle, business case, stakeholders, planning, risk,
quality, change and communication. Each question carries four plausible options, one
bolded Adobe Devanagari answer, and a concise guideline-based rationale to support
mastery-level performance.
Examination (Questions 1 – 100)
Question 1:
A project sponsor asks the project manager to reduce the schedule by 3 weeks without
increasing cost. Which constraint is primarily being affected?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Risk
D. Resources
Answer: C. Risk
Solution: Schedule compression increases uncertainty (risk) of rework, overrun or
quality slip; BoK defines risk as effect of uncertainty on objectives.
Question 2:
Which document authorises the project manager to apply organisational resources?
A. Project charter
B. Scope statement
C. Management plan
D. Business case
Answer: A. Project charter
Solution: APM BoK 7th ed. sec. 2.1 – charter (or mandate) confers authority; other
documents describe what and how, not who may spend.
pg. 1
,Question 3:
During which lifecycle phase are the majority of risks typically identified?
A. Definition
B. Deployment
C. Transition
D. Benefits realisation
Answer: A. Definition
Solution: Risk identification workshops occur early (definition) when uncertainty is
highest; later phases focus on monitoring and response.
Question 4:
A stakeholder grid plots influence vs interest. A high-influence, low-interest party
should be:
A. Monitored with minimal effort
B. Kept satisfied
C. Managed closely
D. Ignored until interest rises
Answer: B. Kept satisfied
Solution: APM power-interest matrix – high influence/low interest = “Keep satisfied” to
prevent them using power negatively.
Question 5:
Which technique is most appropriate for defining activities when deliverables are well
understood?
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Work Breakdown Structure
C. Agile user stories
D. Benefits mapping
Answer: B. Work Breakdown Structure
Solution: WBS decomposes deliverables into work packages/activities – suited for clear
scope; rolling wave used when detail is future.
Question 6:
The critical path of a network diagram is the:
A. Shortest sequence of tasks
B. Path with zero float
pg. 2
, C. Set of highest-risk activities
D. List of milestone dates
Answer: B. Path with zero float
Solution: BoK scheduling – critical path possesses zero total float; any delay extends
project finish.
Question 7:
Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of a risk is calculated as:
A. Impact × probability
B. Impact ÷ probability
C. Impact + mitigation cost
D. Probability ÷ impact
Answer: A. Impact × probability
Solution: EMV quantifies risk exposure; high probability/high impact risks receive
priority funding for mitigation.
Question 8:
Which quality tool is used to rank defects by frequency?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Pareto chart
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart
Answer: B. Pareto chart
Solution: Pareto (80/20 rule) ranks frequency of problems; Ishikawa seeks root cause,
control chart monitors variation.
Question 9:
A change request is approved that increases scope. Which baseline must be updated
first?
A. Schedule baseline
B. Cost baseline
C. Scope baseline
D. Quality baseline
Answer: C. Scope baseline
Solution: Scope baseline (WBS, statement, dictionary) defines what is delivered;
changes cascade to time/cost after scope revision.
pg. 3
